ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY THE UNITY OF FORM AND FUNCTION 7TH ED BY SALADIN – TEST BANK A+

Description

1. The skin carries out the first step in the synthesis of vitamin D.

1. Living keratinocytes exfoliate from the epidermis as tiny specks called dander.

1. The deeper of the two layers of the skin is the hypodermis.

1. The youngest keratinocytes are found in the stratum basale.

1. Melanin, hemoglobin, and carotene give color to the skin.

1. Albinism is the genetic lack of melanin that results in a milky white coloration of the skin.

1. Embarrassment can be perceived by an abnormal coloration of the skin called cyanosis.

1. Freckles are elevated patches with an abnormal coloration of the skin.

1. Straight hair is round, wavy hair is oval, and curly hair is relatively flat.

1. Hair and nails are composed of collagen.

1. Merocrine sweat glands are associated with hair follicles in the pubic and anal regions, axilla, areola, and beard.

1. Pattern baldness is relatively rare in women because women have lower testosterone levels than men.

1. The acidity of sweat contributes to the acid mantle that inhibits bacterial growth in the skin.

1. Debridement is not necessary to infection control.

1. The three forms of skin cancer are defined by the types of cells from which they originate.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following is not part of the skin?
2. Epidermis
3. Papillary layer
4. Hypodermis
5. Stratum basale
6. Dermis

1. Which of the following is not found in the epidermis?
2. Melanocytes
3. Fibroblasts
4. Stem cells
5. Keratinocytes
6. Tactile cells

1. Skin covering the __________ has sweat glands but no hair follicles or sebaceous glands.
2. forearm
3. buttocks
4. abdomen
5. fingertips
6. back

1. Most of the skin is __________ mm thick.
2. 0.01 to 0.02
3. 0.1 to 0.2
4. 1 to 2
5. 10 to 20
6. 100 to 200

1. In which of the following skin layers would a subcutaneous injection be administered?
2. Stratum basale
3. Stratum spinosum
4. Stratum corneum
5. Dermis
6. Hypodermis

1. Which of the skin layers below is the most superficial?
2. Basal lamina
3. Epidermis
4. Papillary layer
5. Reticular layer
6. Hypodermis

1. Which of the following best describes the composition of the dermis?
2. Collagen and living keratinocytes
3. Collagen and dead keratinocytes
4. Collagen and fibroblasts
5. Elastic fibers and melanocytes
6. Elastic fibers and dendritic cells

1. What type of tissue is found in the most superficial layer of skin?
2. Simple squamous epithelium
3. Stratified squamous epithelium
4. Dense irregular connective tissue
5. Areolar connective tissue
6. Dense regular connective tissue

1. Looking at a slide of thin skin under the microscope, you note that the stratum basale is the __________ layer of the epidermis in from the surface.
2. second
3. third
4. first
5. fifth
6. fourth

1. Which of the following cells is largely responsible for skin color?
2. Dendritic cell
3. Keratinocyte
4. Melanocyte
5. Merkel cell
6. Dead keratinocyte

1. Which layer of the epidermis consists of up to 30 layers of dead cells?
2. Stratum basale
3. Stratum spinosum
4. Stratum granulosum
5. Stratum lucidum
6. Stratum corneum

1. Which of the following are associated with the sense of touch?
2. Fibroblasts
3. Melanocytes
4. Keratinocytes
5. Dendritic (Langerhans) cells
6. Tactile (Merkel) cells

1. The fastest rate of mitosis happens in the __________.
2. stratum basale
3. stratum spinosum
4. stratum granulosum
5. stratum lucidum
6. stratum corneum

1. Which of the following cells stand guard against toxins, microbes and other pathogens?
2. Keratinocytes
3. Melanocytes
4. Adipocytes
5. Dendritic (Langerhans) cells
6. Tactile (Merkel) cells

1. Fingerprints left on things we touch are associated with our __________.
2. dermal papillae
3. dermal connective tissue
4. stratum basale
5. subcutaneous tissue
6. subcutaneous adipose

1. Calluses or corns are the result of accelerated multiplication by ___________.
2. melanocytes
3. keratinocytes
4. fibroblasts
5. tactile cells
6. red blood cells

1. The __________ is absent from most epidermis.
2. stratum basale
3. stratum spinosum
4. stratum granulosum
5. stratum lucidum
6. stratum corneum

1. Leather is made of the __________ layer of the dermis.
2. areolar
3. keratin
4. reticular
5. collagen
6. papillary

1. The hypodermis is characterized by an abundance of which tissue?
2. Statified squamous epithelium
3. Smooth muscle
4. Nervous tissue
5. Adipose tissue
6. Dense irregular connective tissue

1. The skin discoloration most likely to suggest physical abuse is __________.
2. pallor
3. albinism
4. erythema
5. hematoma
6. jaundice

1. The reddish color of the skin of the lips is primarily due to the presence of which pigment?
2. Hemoglobin
3. Myoglobin
4. Melanin
5. Carotene
6. Keratin

1. Which skin color is most likely to result from anemia?
2. Pallor
3. Erythema
4. Hematoma
5. Albinism
6. Jaundice

1. Increased bilirubin levels cause a skin discoloration called __________.
2. erythema
3. jaundice
4. pallor
5. bronzing
6. cyanosis

1. Ethnic differences in skin color are primarily caused by differences in ___________.
2. UV radiation exposure
3. the quantity of hemoglobin carried in the blood
4. the quantity of melanin produced
5. the number of melanocytes
6. the number of keratinocytes

1. A __________ is an elevated patch of melanized skin.
2. hemangioma
3. mole
4. freckle
5. flexion line
6. friction ridge

1. A pilus is a __________.
2. hair
3. hair follicle
4. tiny muscle that moves a hair
5. sensory nerve fiber around the base of a hair
6. gland associated with a hair follicle

1. What type of hair is present prenatally and usually replaced by birth?
2. Lunule
3. Peach fuzz
4. Terminal hair
5. Vellus
6. Lanugo

1. Blood vessels in the __________ provide a hair with its sole source of nutrition.
2. bulb
3. root
4. shaft
5. dermal papilla
6. medulla

1. The base where a hair follicle originates in the skin is known as the __________.
2. Hair bulb
3. Hair root
4. Shaft
5. Medulla
6. Cuticle

1. The contraction of the piloerector muscles (pilomotor muscle or arrector pili) in humans causes __________.
2. hairs to stand on end, trapping an insulating layer of warm air next to the skin
3. generation of heat to raise the body temperature
4. hairs to stand on end to make the individual appear bigger
5. hairs to stand on end with no apparent function
6. increased ability to feel pain

1. A hair cycle consists of three developmental stages in which order?
2. Anagen, telogen, and catagen
3. Anagen, catagen, and telogen
4. Catagen, anagen, and telogen
5. Catagen, telogen, and anagen
6. Telogen, anagen, and catagen

1. Each hair grows in an oblique epithelial tube called a(an) __________.
2. hair follicle
3. vellum
4. pilus
5. bulb
6. shaft

1. Excessive hairiness is called __________.
2. telogenism
3. anagenism
4. catagenism
5. alopecia
6. hirsutism

1. The narrow zone of dead skin overhanging the proximal end of a nail is called the __________.
2. eponychium
3. lunule
4. nail plate
5. nail body
6. nail root

1. What is the white opaque “moon” often found at the proximal end of a fingernail called?
2. Free edge
3. Nail body
4. Eponychium
5. Lunule
6. Nail root

1. Variations in hair color arise from differing amounts of __________.
2. collagen and elastic filaments
3. keratin and melanin
4. carotene and hemoglobin
5. carotene and collagen
6. eumelanin and pheomelanin

1. Mitosis in the __________ accounts for growth of the nail.
2. nail plate
3. nail fold
4. eponychium
5. hyponychium
6. nail matrix

1. The oil of your scalp is secreted by __________ glands associated with the hair follicles.
2. merocrine sweat
3. apocrine sweat
4. sebaceous
5. ceruminous
6. eccrine sweat

1. Secretions from __________ glands contribute to the acid mantle that inhibits bacterial growth on the skin.
2. mammary
3. ceruminous
4. sebaceous
5. apocrine sweat
6. merocrine sweat

1. __________ is/are formed partly from the secretions of glands in the external ear canal.
2. Sebum
3. Cerumen
4. Sweat
5. Scents
6. Mucus

1. Looking at a slide of axillary skin under the microscope, you notice the presence of __________ glands that are absent on slides of the scalp.
2. merocrine
3. apocrine
4. sebaceous
5. ceruminous
6. perspiration

1. Which cutaneous glands are concerned with cooling the body?
2. Ceruminous glands
3. Sebaceous glands
4. Merocrine glands
5. Apocrine glands
6. Exothermic glands

1. The __________ glands are a source of sex pheromones.
2. ceruminous
3. merocrine
4. mammary
5. sebaceous
6. apocrine

1. Mammary glands are modified __________ glands that develop within the female breasts.
2. merocrine
3. apocrine
4. ceruminous
5. sebaceous
6. eccrine

1. Which two strata of the epidermis are most susceptible to cancer?
2. Stratum corneum and stratum lucidum
3. Stratum basale and stratum corneum
4. Stratum spinosum and stratum basale
5. Stratum granulosum and stratum spinosum
6. Stratum lucidum and stratum granulosum

1. The “ABCD rule” for recognizing early signs of malignant melanoma refers to the following characteristics of the lesion:
2. asymmetry, border irregularity, color, and diameter
3. asymmetry, brightness, color, and diameter
4. aspect, brightness, color, and distance
5. aspect, border irregularity, color, and distance
6. area, border irregularity, color, and density

1. The least common, but most deadly, type of skin cancer is __________.
2. basal cell carcinoma
3. squamous cell carcinoma
4. melanoma
5. skin lymphoma
6. skin sarcoma

1. Basal cell carcinoma initially affects cells of the stratum __________.
2. spinosum
3. germinativum
4. corneum
5. basale
6. lucidum

1. __________ burns involve the epidermis, all of the dermis, and often some deeper tissue.
2. First-degree
3. Second-degree
4. Third-degree
5. Partial-thickness
6. Malignant

1. The most immediate threat to the life of a patient with severe burns is __________.
2. fluid loss
3. eschar
4. heat loss
5. pain
6. infection

1. The skin is a barrier to all of the following except __________.
2. metals such as mercury
3. infectious organisms
4. water
5. UV rays

1. In whom are mammary glands found?
2. In lactating females
3. In lactating and non-lactating females
4. In non-lactating females
5. In non-lactating females and males

Chapter 07

Bone Tissue

True / False Questions

1. Most blood cells are produced in the red marrow of bones.

1. A vertebra is considered an irregular bone.

1. A radiograph (X-ray) of a child’s hand will show epiphyseal lines.

1. The hemopoietic tissue in a bone is otherwise known as myeloid tissue.

1. Concentric lamellae within an osteon are connected by lacunae.

1. Osteogenic cells are bone stem cells that differentiate into osteoblasts and osteoclasts.

1. Osteoid tissue is similar to bone except for a lack of minerals.

1. Intramembranous ossification is common in children, whereas endochondral ossification is typical in young adults.

1. Bones grow in diameter by interstitial growth.

1. Hypercalcemia causes depression of the nervous system.

1. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) binds to receptors on osteoblasts.

1. Hypercalcemia is rare, but hypocalcemia can result from a wide variety of conditions.

1. Closed reduction is the surgical realignment of the parts of a broken bone.

1. Osteomalacia results in bone brittleness.

1. Osteoporosis often leads to an exaggerated thoracic spinal curvature, which is called kyphosis.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following is not a function of the skeleton?
2. Storage of calcium and phosphate ions
3. Storage of red blood cells
4. Providing support for most muscles
5. Protecting the brain
6. Protecting the spinal cord

1. Osseous tissue is a(an) ____________ tissue.
2. connective
3. epithelial
4. dense regular
5. dense irregular
6. reticular

1. Which of the following tissues is not found as part of a long bone?
2. Osseous tissue
3. Nervous tissue
4. Adipose tissue
5. Cartilage
6. Transitional epithelium

1. The center cavity of the diaphysis of a long bone is called the __________.
2. marrow cavity
3. central canal
4. nutrient foramen
5. canaliculus
6. epiphysis

1. The thin layer of compact bone that separates an adult’s epiphysis from the diaphysis is called the __________.
2. periosteum
3. metaphysis
4. growth plate
5. epiphyseal line
6. diaphyseal line

1. The cortex of the long bone’s diaphysis is made of _________.
2. marrow
3. compact bone
4. spongy bone
5. dense regular connective tissue
6. articular cartilage

1. The expanded head at each end of a long bone is called the __________.
2. epiphysis
3. diaphysis
4. articular cartilage
5. periosteum
6. endosteum

1. A long bone is covered externally with a sheath called the __________, whereas the marrow cavity is lined with the __________.
2. epiphysis; diaphysis
3. diaphysis; epiphysis
4. compact bone; spongy bone
5. periosteum; endosteum
6. endosteum; periosteum

1. Bone-forming cells are called __________.
2. osteogenic (osteoprogenitor) cells
3. osteoblasts
4. osteoclasts
5. osteocytes
6. osteons

1. When ____________ become enclosed in lacunae, they become cells called _____________.
2. osteogenic cells; osteoblasts
3. osteoblasts; osteoclasts
4. osteoblasts; osteocytes
5. osteocytes; osteoclasts
6. osteocytes; osteoblasts

1. The spaces found within the concentric lamellae are called __________, and they contain __________.
2. canaliculi; osteoblasts
3. osteons; stem cells
4. lacunae; osteocytes
5. lacunae; osteoclasts
6. central canals; osteocytes

1. Which of the following is an inorganic component of the bone matrix?
2. Proteoglycans
3. Glycoproteins
4. Collagen
5. Hydroxyapatite
6. Glycosaminoglycans

1. Spicules and trabeculae are found in __________.
2. compact bone
3. bone matrix
4. yellow bone marrow
5. red bone marrow
6. spongy bone

1. Red bone marrow does not contain __________.
2. myeloid tissue
3. yellow bone marrow
4. hemopoietic tissue
5. white blood cells
6. red blood cells

1. The hardness of bone comes from __________, whereas __________ provide(s) some degree of flexibility.
2. hydroxyapatite and other minerals; proteins
3. collagen and elastic fibers; minerals
4. glycoproteins; proteoglycans
5. calcium carbonate; calcium phosphate
6. proteins; collagen

1. The plasma membrane of __________ have a ruffled border with many deep infoldings, whereas __________ have long, thin, fingerlike cytoplasmic processes.
2. osteoclasts; osteocytes
3. osteocytes; osteoclasts
4. osteoblasts; osteoclasts
5. osteoblasts; osteocytes
6. osteocytes; osteogenic cells

1. What would you find in the marrow cavity of the diaphysis of an adult humerus (arm bone)?
2. Periosteum
3. Hemopoietic tissue
4. Red bone marrow
5. Yellow bone marrow
6. Compact bone

1. Which one of the following bone cells would have the greatest number of lysosomes?
2. Osteoblasts
3. Osteoclasts
4. Osteocytes
5. Osteogenic cells
6. Stem cells

1. It is common to find __________ in compact bone, but they are not seen in spongy bone.
2. lamellae
3. osteoclasts
4. lacunae
5. central canals
6. osteocytes

1. Intramembranous ossification produces the __________.
2. irregular bones of the vertebrae
3. flat bones of the skull
4. long bones of the limbs
5. short bones of the wrist
6. short bones of the ankle

1. In endochondral ossification, the precursor connective tissue is __________, which is replaced by bone.
2. embryonic mesenchyme
3. fibrous membranes
4. hyaline cartilage
5. transitional epithelium
6. fibrocartilage

1. The __________ is a marginal zone of the epiphyseal plate where, in children and adolescents, bone can be seen replacing the hyaline cartilage.
2. metaphysis
3. primary ossification center
4. secondary ossification center
5. osteoid tissue
6. epiphyseal line

1. Achondroplastic dwarfism is a hereditary condition, in which the long bones of the limbs fail to elongate normally because of reduced hyperplasia and hypertrophy of cartilage in the __________.
2. primary ossification center
3. secondary ossification center
4. primary bone marrow
5. secondary bone marrow
6. epiphyseal plate

1. Chondrocytes multiply in the zone of __________ of the metaphysis.
2. reserve cartilage
3. cell proliferation
4. cell hypertrophy
5. calcification
6. bone deposition

1. Mature bones are remodeled throughout life via a process known as __________.
2. intramembranous ossification
3. endochondral ossification
4. interstitial growth
5. appositional growth
6. metaphysical growth

1. Bone elongation is a result of __________.
2. cartilage growth
3. muscle growth
4. osseous tissue growth
5. fibrous membrane addition
6. dense irregular connective tissue addition

1. Wolff’s law of bone explains the effect of __________.
2. different diets on bone elongation
3. mechanical stress on bone remodeling
4. temperature on bone growth
5. age on bone thickening
6. sex on bone widening

1. A growing long bone in a child has only two areas of cartilage at the epiphysis. These two areas are the __________.
2. elastic cartilage and epiphyseal plate
3. epiphyseal plate and epiphyseal line
4. primary and secondary ossification centers
5. fibrocartilage and articular cartilage
6. articular cartilage and epiphyseal plate

1. The process of dissolving bone and returning its minerals to the bloodstream is known as _________.
2. mineralization
3. mineral deposition
4. crystallization
5. resorption
6. ossification

1. Which of the following exemplifies a positive feedback process happening in bone mineral deposition?
2. The first few crystals that form attract more calcium and phosphate.
3. Osteoblasts neutralize inhibitors that prevent bone resorption.
4. Osteoclasts secrete acid phosphatase that digests collagen.
5. Collagen is digested by enzymes and hydroxyapatite by hydrochloric acid.
6. Solubility product is reached in the tissue fluids.

1. Phosphate is necessary for all of the following except __________.
2. ATP
3. DNA
4. phospholipids
5. RNA
6. amino acids

1. Calcium plays an essential role in all of the following except __________.
2. muscle contraction
3. exocytosis
4. blood clotting
5. DNA synthesis
6. communication among neurons

1. Which of the following is not a function of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?
2. Promote calcium reabsorption by the kidneys
3. Stimulate osteoclast activity
4. Lower blood calcium
5. Promote calcitriol synthesis
6. Inhibit osteoblast activity

1. Synthesized by the combined action of the skin, kidneys, and liver, _________ is important to the deposition of bone.
2. growth hormone
3. testosterone
4. estrogen
5. calcitonin
6. calcitriol

1. Which of the following does not put women at risk for hypocalcemia?
2. Lactation
3. Pregnancy
4. Removal of the parathyroid glands
5. Removal of the thyroid gland
6. Lack of exposure to UV radiation

1. Blood Ca2+ deficiency stimulates __________ secretion, which leads to __________.
2. calcitonin; more urinary phosphate reabsorption
3. calcitriol; more urinary phosphate excretion
4. parathyroid hormone; increased osteoclast activity
5. growth hormone; increased osteoblast activity
6. thyroid hormone; less urinary calcium excretion

1. Hypocalcemia can cause __________.
2. emotional disturbances
3. depression of the nervous system
4. muscle weakness
5. sluggish reflexes
6. muscle spasms

1. Arteriosclerosis is one example of ectopic ossification, which means __________.
2. the solubility product has been reached
3. artery mineralization by osteoblasts
4. abnormal calcification of a tissue
5. accumulation of collagenous fibers in blood vessels
6. ossification of an entire blood vessel

1. If a thyroid tumor secreted an excessive amount of calcitonin, we would expect ___________.
2. an elevated level of osteoclast activity
3. an elevated level of osteoblast activity
4. a reduced rate of endochondral ossification
5. a rise in blood calcium concentration
6. increasingly brittle bones

1. A soft callus forms during ___________.
2. endochondral ossification
3. intramembranous ossification
4. bone growth at the metaphysis
5. the remodeling of bone
6. the healing of a fracture

1. Osteoporosis is most common in elderly women because of the lack of ___________, which would otherwise inhibit ____________.
2. dietary calcium; estrogen production
3. osteoblasts; osteoclast activity
4. estrogen; osteoclast activity
5. parathyroid hormone; osteocyte activity
6. exercise; osteoblast activity

1. A fracture in which the bone is broken into three or more pieces is called a __________ fracture.
2. linear
3. pott
4. comminuted
5. greenstick
6. compound

1. The result of blood calcium and phosphate levels being too low for normal deposition is a softness of the bones called __________ in children and __________ in adults.
2. osteomalacia; rickets
3. rickets; osteomalacia
4. osteoporosis; osteomalacia
5. osteomyelitis; osteosarcoma
6. osteomyelitis; osteomalacia

1. Bone protrudes through the skin in a fracture called __________.
2. complete
3. incomplete
4. closed
5. open
6. displaced

1. A break in a bone that is already weakened by some other disease is called a(n) __________ fracture.
2. greenstick
3. open
4. closed
5. pathologic
6. displaced

1. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the healing of a bone fracture?
2. Bone remodeling  soft callus formation  hard callus formation  hematoma formation
3. Bone remodeling  hard callus formation  soft callus formation  hematoma formation
4. Hematoma formation  soft callus formation  hard callus formation  bone remodeling
5. Hematoma formation  hard callus formation  soft callus formation  bone remodeling
6. Soft callus formation  hard callus formation  hematoma formation  bone remodeling

1. Patches of fibrocartilage formed in the healing of a fracture are called __________, whereas the bony collar formed around the fracture is called __________.
2. fracture hematoma; granulation tissue
3. granulation tissue; soft callus
4. fracture hematoma; hard callus
5. granulation tissue; hard callus
6. soft callus; hard callus

1. The most common bone disease is __________.
2. osteomyelitis
3. osteoporosis
4. osteosarcoma
5. osteomalacia
6. rickets