Basic Clinical Laboratory Techniques 6th edition By Barbara H. -Test Bank A+

$35.00
Basic Clinical Laboratory Techniques 6th edition By Barbara H. -Test Bank A+

Basic Clinical Laboratory Techniques 6th edition By Barbara H. -Test Bank A+

$35.00
Basic Clinical Laboratory Techniques 6th edition By Barbara H. -Test Bank A+

In clinical chemistry, which of the following is true?

a. Substances in the body are always in balance.

b. Results of analysis can be used to diagnose, treat, and prevent disease.

c. Quality assessment policies are not very important.

d. Homeostasis is affected only by external factors.

ANS: B PTS: 1

The tests performed in clinical chemistry can be:

a. for normal substances d. all of the above

b. for drugs or other toxic substances e. none of the above

c. for waste products of metabolism

ANS: D PTS: 1

Which of the following is true concerning changes in concentration of substances in the body?

a. Changes, whether up or down, are permanent.

b. An elevation in glucose levels will stimulate the release of insulin.

c. The balance between the concentrations is referred to as hemostasis.

d. Electrolytes have little importance in the acid-base balance in the body.

ANS: B PTS: 1

To assess liver function, which of the following test(s) can be helpful?

a. creatine kinase c. ALT

b. BUN d. all of the above

ANS: C PTS: 1

Which of the following is true concerning enzymes?

a. All enzymes are widely distributed in the body.

b. Enzyme levels are always very specific for certain organs.

c. LDH is one enzyme that can be used to assess liver damage.

d. ALP was formerly known as SGOT.

ANS: C PTS: 1

COMPLETION

Excessive amount of fat in the blood is known as ____________________.

ANS: hyperlipidemia

PTS: 1

An anion has a(n) ____________________ charge.

ANS: negative

PTS: 1

A chemical substance that is the subject of chemical analysis is a(n) ____________________.

ANS: analyte

PTS: 1

HDL is the high density lipoprotein fraction of blood ____________________.

ANS: cholesterol

PTS: 1

Hypocalcemia is a condition in which the blood level of ____________________ is below normal.

ANS: calcium

PTS: 1

The thyroid hormone, T3, is also commonly known as ____________________.

ANS: triiodothyronine

PTS: 1

A deficiency in the function of the thyroid is called ____________________.

ANS: hypothyroidism

PTS: 1

Creatine kinase (CK) is often measured to aid in diagnosing ____________________.

ANS: heart attack

PTS: 1

The group of cations and anions important in maintaining fluid and acid-base balance are the ____________________.

ANS: electrolytes

PTS: 1

AST is the enzyme present in cardiac, muscle, and liver tissue that is measured to assess the function of the ____________________.

ANS: liver

PTS: 1

MATCHING

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. anion g. 8.7–10.5 mg/dL

b. Technicon Corp. h. the 1600s

c. cation i. quality control

d. Hippocrates j. transferrin

e. lipid profile k. 0.7–1.4 mg/dL

f. U/L l. creatinine

reference range for calcium

sodium

kidney function

iron

tasting the patient’s urine

enzyme activity units per liter

AutoAnalyzer

Levey-Jennings chart

invention of the microscope

triglycerides

ANS: G PTS: 1

ANS: C PTS: 1

ANS: L PTS: 1

ANS: J PTS: 1

ANS: D PTS: 1

ANS: F PTS: 1

ANS: B PTS: 1

ANS: I PTS: 1

ANS: H PTS: 1

ANS: E PTS: 1

Lesson 6-2: Chemistry Specimen Collection and Processing

TRUE/FALSE

Plasma is the liquid from blood that has been allowed to clot.

ANS: F PTS: 1

Standard policy is to draw blood from a vein above an intravenous line.

ANS: F PTS: 1

If plasma is to be used in a test, it should be removed from the cellular portion of blood as soon as possible after collection.

ANS: T PTS: 1

For chemistry analysis, blood must be free of hemolysis.

ANS: T PTS: 1

The red/gray stopper tube contains a polymer gel and a silica activator.

ANS: T PTS: 1

In the CLSI order of draw, the red-top clot tubes are drawn first.

ANS: F PTS: 1

Mistakes occurring when blood is drawn contibute to preanalytical error.

ANS: T PTS: 1

MULTIPLE CHOICE

Which is true of hemolysis of red blood cells?

a. It can be caused by overcentrifugation.

b. It releases potassium into the plasma or serum.

c. It can be caused by excess shaking of the blood sample.

d. all of the above

ANS: D PTS: 1

How does the time of specimen collection affect certain tests?

a. Concentrations of iron are constant throughout the day.

b. Triglycerides do not change after eating.

c. Glucose and cholesterol usually change after eating.

d. Corticosteroids are not affected by the time of collection.

ANS: C PTS: 1

Which is true of plasma and/or serum?

a. Plasma is formed when a tube of blood is allowed to clot.

b. Plasma contains all of the dissolved chemical constituents.

c. Serum contains all of the dissolved chemical constituents plus the coagulation proteins.

d. none of the above

ANS: B PTS: 1

To avoid accidental needlesticks during specimen collection:

a. collect the majority of specimens by capillary puncture

b. carefully recap needles

c. use self-sheathing or safety needles

d. all of the above

ANS: C PTS: 1

Which is true of blood collection to obtain serum?

a. Blood can be collected into a red/yellow serum separator tube.

b. A red-top collection tube can be used.

c. A green-top tube should be used.

d. A purple-top tube should be used.

ANS: B PTS: 1

COMPLETION

A chemical that prevents blood coagulation is called a(n) ____________________.

ANS: anticoagulant

PTS: 1

Something that has a daily cycle is said to be ____________________.

ANS: diurnal

PTS: 1

The liquid obtained from blood that has been allowed to clot is ____________________.

ANS: serum

PTS: 1

The liquid portion of blood in which blood cells are suspended is called ____________________.

ANS: plasma

PTS: 1

The viscous fluid secreted by membranes lining the joints is called ____________________.

ANS: synovial fluid

PTS: 1

A lipemic sample has a cloudy appearance due to the presence of excess ____________________.

ANS:

lipids

fats

PTS: 1

Blood specimens should remain capped until they are ready to be tested to prevent concentration of some constituents due to ____________________.

ANS: evaporation

PTS: 1

When collecting blood into both serum (clot) tubes and anticoagulant tubes, the light-blue-top tube is drawn first, if ordered; otherwise, serum tubes must be filled ____________________.

ANS: first

PTS: 1

The fluid surrounding the spinal cord and bathing the ventricles of the brain is called ____________________.

ANS:

cerebrospinal fluid

CSF

PTS: 1

Blood cannot be drawn from a site above a(n) ____________________.

ANS:

intravenous line

i.v. line

IV line

i.v.

IV

PTS: 1

MATCHING

Match the stopper color with its use or anticoagulant. Answers can be used more than once.

a. red/gray e. royal blue

b. lavender f. green

c. red g. light blue

d. yellow h. gray

glycolytic inhibitor

trace metals

EDTA

coagulation testing

serum separation

no additive

lithium heparin

ACD solution

sodium citrate

polymer gel/silica activator

ANS: H PTS: 1

ANS: E PTS: 1

ANS: B PTS: 1

ANS: G PTS: 1

ANS: A PTS: 1

ANS: C PTS: 1

ANS: F PTS: 1

ANS: D PTS: 1

ANS: G PTS: 1

ANS: A PTS: 1

Lesson 6-3: Principles of Chemistry Instrumentation

TRUE/FALSE

The amount of light that passes through a solution to be analyzed is the absorbance.

ANS: F PTS: 1

Absorbance is indicated by the letter A.

ANS: T PTS: 1

Since very small amounts of chemicals are used in test cassettes, there are no hazards in using them.

ANS: F PTS: 1

The technology in which the reagents are in the dried form is called solid phase chemistry.

ANS: T PTS: 1

The test cartridges used in solid phase chemistry filter red blood cells out of whole blood, leaving only the serum to mix with the test reagents.

ANS: F PTS: 1

Ion-selective electrodes are especially useful for measuring electrolyte levels.

ANS: T PTS: 1

Some analyzers (meters) use the principle of amperometry to measure blood glucose levels.

ANS: T PTS: 1

When required maintenance and quality assessment procedures are performed, most instruments in the POL provide reliable results.

ANS: T PTS: 1

MULTIPLE CHOICE

Which of the following is true concerning using a photometer for analysis?

a. Photometers can measure the amount of light that passes through a solution.

b. The amount of light that passes through a solution is the absorbance.

c. Solutions measured by a photometer do not follow Beer’s law.

d. Photometers cannot be integrated into the small, handheld devices.

ANS: A PTS: 1

What is the most important consideration in choosing an instrument?

a. price c. size

b. quality of results d. must be one all the technicians like

ANS: B PTS: 1

A good quality assessment program is essential for instrumentation in the laboratory because:

a. it ensures accuracy of patient results

b. it checks the reliability of reagents

c. it checks the operating status of instruments

d. all of the above

ANS: D PTS: 1

A reflectance photometer provides analysis of samples by measuring the:

a. transmittance of light through a colored solution

b. electron flow created by a reaction

c. amount of light reflected by a colored end product in a reaction

d. amount of light that is absorbed by a colored solution

ANS: C PTS: 1

Chemistry analyzers and instruments in the clinical laboratory present:

a. biological and physical hazards

b. chemical and physical hazards

c. biological and chemical hazards

d. biological, physical, and chemical hazards

e. no hazards to the worker

ANS: D PTS: 1

COMPLETION

An electrode manufactured to respond to the concentration of a specific ion is called a(n) ____________________.

ANS:

ion specific electrode

ion-specific electrode

PTS: 1

A logarithmic expression of the amount of light absorbed by a substance containing colored molecules is called ____________________.

ANS: absorbance

PTS: 1

The technology used when a reaction produces a stream of electrons is _____________________.

ANS: amperometry

PTS: 1

The time elapsed between the physician’s ordering a test and receiving the results is called the ____________________.

ANS:

turn-around-time

turn-around time

turn around time

turnaround time

TAT

PTS: 1

The most important factor in choosing an instrument is the ____________________.

ANS:

quality of results

accuracy of results

PTS: 1

An instrument that measures intensity of light in different parts of the light spectrum is a ____________________.

ANS: spectrophotometer

PTS: 1

An instrument that is CLIA waived and is useful for community health fairs is the ____________________.

ANS:

Cholestech LDX

Cholestech cholesterol instrument

PTS: 1

MATCHING

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. nephelometry g. centrifugal analysis

b. photometer h. percent transmittance

c. CLIA ’88 i. monochromator

d. amperometry j. reflectance photometer

e. Beer’s law k. cuvette

f. ion-specific electrode l. solid phase chemistry

device that isolates a narrow portion of the light spectrum

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services

electrode manufactured to respond to certain specific ions

percentage of light that passes through a solution

measures light scatter by particles in a solution

measures light of a specific wavelength that is reflected by a colored product

instrument that measures light intensity

for colored solutions, absorbance increases proportionally with concentration

all reagents for the reaction are contained on a strip or slide

use of electrodes and electrical potential to measure electron generation

ANS: I PTS: 1

ANS: C PTS: 1

ANS: F PTS: 1

ANS: H PTS: 1

ANS: A PTS: 1

ANS: J PTS: 1

ANS: B PTS: 1

ANS: E PTS: 1

ANS: L PTS: 1

ANS: D PTS: 1

Lesson 6-4: Point-of-Care Testing

TRUE/FALSE

Point-of-care testing (POCT) can be performed in the ER, OR, CCU, patient’s hospital room or home, or in a POL.

ANS: T PTS: 1

The overall responsibility for the POCT site’s compliance with regulations lies with the individual site and its director.

ANS: T PTS: 1

Most point-of-care tests require large samples of blood.

ANS: F PTS: 1

There are no POCT instruments to perform coagulation testing.

ANS: F PTS: 1

A short turnaround time benefits the patient, who can receive required therapy sooner.

ANS: T PTS: 1

MULTIPLE CHOICE

Establishment of POCT sites requires:

a. that the personnel at all sites receive the same training

b. frequent communication between the central laboratory and the sites

c. a director for each site with ultimate responsibility for patient results

d. All of the above (a–c) are true.

e. None of the above (a–c) are true.

ANS: D PTS: 1

Which of the following is true of testing performed at POCT sites?

a. The quality of results is always lower than at the central lab.

b. The turnaround time for results is shortened.

c. The test menus are limited to glucose and cholesterol.

d. All of the above (a–c) is true.

e. None of the above (a–c) is true.

ANS: B PTS: 1

POCT sites can be:

a. in the intensive care unit (ICU) c. independent of CLIA ’88 regulations

b. inconvenient for the patient d. operated without a director

ANS: A PTS: 1

Which is true of quality assessment in POCT sites?

a. Some instruments have internal, electronic quality control systems.

b. All quality assessment policies set up for the site by the central laboratory must be followed.

c. Quality control checks must be performed at regular intervals.

d. None of the above (a–c) are true.

e. All of the above (a–c) are true.

ANS: E PTS: 1

Safety regulations in POCT sites are:

a. not necessary since there are fewer patients

b. not as stringent as in the central laboratory

c. important for the safety and welfare of patients and staff

d. determined by the staff working there

ANS: C PTS: 1

COMPLETION

POCT began when blood glucose monitors were developed for home use by ____________________.

ANS:

diabetics

diabetic patients

PTS: 1

POCT programs in hospitals can lead to shorter ____________________.

ANS:

hospital stays

stays in the hospital

turnaround times

TATs

PTS: 1

Increased patient participation in health care is one benefit of ____________________.

ANS:

point-of-care testing

POCT

near-patient testing

PTS: 1

In POCT, the overall responsibility for compliance lies with the individual site and its ____________________.

ANS:

CLIA director

director

PTS: 1

Internal controls included in many instruments and kits has lessened the need to run ____________________.

ANS:

frequent controls

controls

as many controls

external controls

PTS: 1

MATCHING

Choose the best match for each term. Every answer must be used, but some answers can be used more than once.

a. POL-registered medical assistant e. an example of a hospital POCT site

b. example of a nonhospital POCT site f. glucose monitors for home use

c. POCT g. CLIA ’88

d. training personnel

reduced need for specimen transport

beginning of POCT

less traumatic testing method

critical care unit

one role of the laboratory in POCT

one-day cholesterol screening program

emergency room

monitoring oral anticoagulant therapy

law that regulates POCT

multitrained personnel

ANS: C PTS: 1

ANS: F PTS: 1

ANS: C PTS: 1

ANS: E PTS: 1

ANS: D PTS: 1

ANS: B PTS: 1

ANS: E PTS: 1

ANS: C PTS: 1

ANS: G PTS: 1

ANS: A PTS: 1

Lesson 6-5: Blood Glucose and Hemoglobin A1c

TRUE/FALSE

The reference values for blood glucose are also the recommended values.

ANS: F PTS: 1

Insulin lowers blood glucose levels by increasing glucose uptake by cells.

ANS: T PTS: 1

Type 1 diabetes usually appears in children and young adults.

ANS: T PTS: 1

Hyperglycemia is the term for the blood glucose level being below normal.

ANS: F PTS: 1

The glucose bound to the beta chains of hemoglobin is measured in the Hgb A1c test.

ANS: T PTS: 1

MULTIPLE CHOICE

In glucose testing, postprandial refers to:

a. a blood glucose test performed after fasting 6–8 hours

b. a random blood glucose test

c. glucose testing performed 2 hours after eating

d. glucose testing every hour for 3 hours, after drinking a glucose drink

ANS: C PTS: 1

Glucose oxidase is the enzyme used in many analytical methods to:

a. convert glucose to gluconolactone

b. promote the conversion of glycogen to glucose

c. convert glucose to gluconic acid

d. convert glucose to glucose-6-phosphate

ANS: C PTS: 1

Which of the following is true of insulin?

a. It is a vitamin.

b. It lowers blood glucose.

c. Its action is similar to that of glucagon.

d. Its action is similar to that of cortisol.

ANS: B PTS: 1

A blood glucose measurement on a sample taken when the patient has not eaten for 8 hours is:

a. an OGTT c. a 2-hour postprandial test

b. a postprandial test d. a fasting glucose

ANS: D PTS: 1

Which of the following is true of type 1 diabetes?

a. It usually appears in children and young adults.

b. It is also known as insulin resistance.

c. It appears later in life.

d. It results when the body fails to properly use insulin.

ANS: A PTS: 1

COMPLETION

The enzyme that converts glucose to gluconic acid and is used in glucose analytical methods is ____________________.

ANS: glucose oxidase

PTS: 1

Glucagon is the pancreatic hormone that increases blood concentration by promoting the conversion of glycogen to ____________________.

ANS: glucose

PTS: 1

The enzyme used in glucose analytical methods to convert glucose to glucose-6-phosphate is ____________________.

ANS: hexokinase

PTS: 1

The storage form of glucose found in high concentrations in the liver is ____________________.

ANS: glycogen

PTS: 1

The condition in which the blood glucose concentration is above normal is called _____________________.

ANS: hyperglycemia

PTS: 1

The disorder of carbohydrate metabolism characterized by a state of hyperglycemia due to insulin deficiency is ____________________.

ANS:

diabetes mellitus

diabetes

PTS: 1

Hemoglobin that has glucose bound to the beta globin chains is called ____________________.

ANS:

hemoglobin A1c

Hb A1c

Hgb A1c

PTS: 1

The condition in which the blood glucose concentration is below normal is ____________________.

ANS: hypoglycemia

PTS: 1

The pancreatic hormone essential for proper metabolism of blood glucose and maintenance of blood glucose levels is ____________________.

ANS: insulin

PTS: 1

In glycolysis, energy production is a result of the metabolic breakdown of ____________________.

ANS: glucose

PTS: 1

MATCHING

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. glucose oxidase d. Hb A1c

b. glucagon e. diabetes mellitus

c. insulin

glycated hemoglobin

conversion of glycogen to glucose

hyperglycemia due to insulin deficiency

conversion of glucose to gluconic acid

pancreatic hormone essential for proper metabolism of glucose

ANS: D PTS: 1

ANS: B PTS: 1

ANS: E PTS: 1

ANS: A PTS: 1

ANS: C PTS: 1

Lesson 6-6: Blood Cholesterol and Triglycerides

MULTIPLE CHOICE

Which of the following statements is true?

a. An exogenous cholesterol level is an inherited tendency.

b. Most test methods for cholesterol measure only cholesterol from exogenous sources.

c. Exogenous cholesterol comes from foods such as egg yolks.

d. Cholesterol analyzers measure only endogenous cholesterol.

ANS: C PTS: 1

Which is true for cholesterol analytical methods?

a. Most instruments measure only total cholesterol.

b. One cholesterol fraction commonly reported is HDL.

c. Analytical methods to measure HDL and LDL have been available only since 2000.

d. The analysis of cholesterol is technically difficult.

ANS: B PTS: 1

Which is true of triglycerides?

a. They are the most common form of fat in the body.

b. Extra calories are converted to triglycerides.

c. Triglycerides are a storage form of energy.

d. All of the above (a–c) are true.

e. None of the above (a–c) are true.

ANS: D PTS: 1

Which of the following is true of reference and recommended values?

a. The NCEP desirable level for total cholesterol is < 200 mg/dL.

b. Triglyceride levels greater than 200 mg/dL are classified as very high.

c. LDL optimal level is > 190 mg/dL.

d. Cholesterol values > 240 mg/dL are borderline high.

e. All of the above (a–d) are true.

ANS: A PTS: 1

Which of the following is true of metabolic syndrome?

a. It is associated with a low LDL blood level.

b. It is associated with an elevated blood glucose and a low HDL blood level.

c. It is not thought to be related to insulin resistance.

d. It is associated with a normal blood triglyeride level and a high HDL level.

ANS: B PTS: 1

COMPLETION

Exogenous refers to something originating from the ____________________.

ANS: outside

PTS: 1

A heart attack caused by obstruction of the blood supply to or within the heart is a(n) ____________________.

ANS:

myocardial infarction

MI

heart attack

PTS: 1

A condition in which lipids, calcium, and other substances deposit on the inner walls of the arteries is ____________________.

ANS: atherosclerosis

PTS: 1

The low-density lipoprotein fraction of blood cholesterol is also called ____________________.

ANS:

LDL

LDL cholesterol

PTS: 1

“Good” cholesterol is the cholesterol fraction commonly known as ____________________.

ANS:

HDL

HDL cholesterol

high-density lipoprotein cholesterol

PTS: 1

Animal fats and egg yolks are examples of ____________________ cholesterol, or cholesterol from outside the body.

ANS: exogenous

PTS: 1

A lipid sterol that is an important component of all body tissues is ____________________.

ANS: cholesterol

PTS: 1

HDL transports cholesterol from the tissues to be broken down by the ____________________.

ANS: liver

PTS: 1

Cholesterol serves as a precursor to bile salts and ____________________.

ANS:

steroid hormones

hormones

PTS: 1

Endogenous cholesterol can be synthesized in the body by the ____________________.

ANS: liver

PTS: 1

MATCHING

Choose the best match for each item. Some answers can be used more than once.

a. LDL and HDL values

b. < 150 mg/dL

c. increased triglycerides and low HDL

d. high HDL

e. total cholesterol of 240 mg/dL and above

f. triglycerides

g. > 500 mg/dL

h. < 200 mg/dL

i. LDL

j. < 100 mg/dL

reference value for triglycerides

used to calculate the heart attack risk factor

optimal LDL cholesterol

largest portion of fats in the diet

NCEP-recommended value for total cholesterol

storage form of energy found in adipose tissue and muscle

metabolic syndrome

very high triglycerides

> 60 mg/dL

high risk of heart disease

ANS: B PTS: 1

ANS: A PTS: 1

ANS: J PTS: 1

ANS: F PTS: 1

ANS: H PTS: 1

ANS: F PTS: 1

ANS: C PTS: 1

ANS: G PTS: 1

ANS: D PTS: 1

ANS: E PTS: 1

Lesson 6-7: Electrolytes

TRUE/FALSE

Cations are the positively charged ions.

ANS: T PTS: 1

The anion gap (AG) is a calculation rather than a direct measurement.

ANS: T PTS: 1

The tests for electrolytes can be performed only on serum samples.

ANS: F PTS: 1

Since most electrolyte analysis is performed by ion-specific electrodes, it is not necessary to observe Standard Precautions.

ANS: F PTS: 1

Some electrolyte analyzers use a single-use test cartridge that contains a calibrator.

ANS: T PTS: 1

The major intracellular electrolyte is sodium.

ANS: F PTS: 1

COMPLETION

The term for blood potassium levels above normal is ____________________.

ANS: hyperkalemia

PTS: 1

The abnormal condition in which blood pH falls below 7.35 is ____________________.

ANS: acidosis

PTS: 1

The term meaning blood sodium levels below normal is ____________________.

ANS: hyponatremia

PTS: 1

Ions in the body are called ____________________.

ANS: electrolytes

PTS: 1

Since electrolyte imbalances can be life threatening, the test for electrolytes is often ordered as a(n) ____________________.

ANS:

stat test

stat

PTS: 1

Potassium is important in maintaining the muscular activity of the ____________________.

ANS: heart

PTS: 1

The SI unit for expressing electrolyte concentration is ____________________.

ANS:

millimoles per liter

mmol per liter

millimoles per L

mmol/L

mmol per L

PTS: 1

The major intracellular cation is ____________________.

ANS:

potassium

K+

PTS: 1

The cation that influences osmotic concentration and determines the extracellular fluid volume is ____________________.

ANS:

sodium

Na+

PTS: 1

Decreased serum potassium due to diarrhea vomiting or use of diuretics is known as ____________________.

ANS: hypokalemia

PTS: 1

MATCHING

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. acidosis f. alkalosis

b. HCO3– g. 135–148 mmol/L

c. 22–28 mmol/L h. 3.8–5.5 mmol/L

d. ion-specific electrodes i. electrolyte balance

e. 98–108 mmol/L j. K+

reference range for serum chloride

essential to normal cellular functions

measurement of electrolytes

bicarbonate ion

abnormal condition in which blood pH rises above 7.45

sodium reference range

potassium reference range

ANS: E PTS: 1

ANS: I PTS: 1

ANS: D PTS: 1

ANS: B PTS: 1

ANS: F PTS: 1

ANS: G PTS: 1

ANS: H PTS: 1

Lesson 6-8: Fecal Occult Blood Test

TRUE/FALSE

Standard Precautions are not required when handling fecal occult blood slides since the specimen is dried.

ANS: F PTS: 1

The fecal occult blood tests must be prepared and read in the physician’s office.

ANS: F PTS: 1

A disadvantage of the ICT is that it mainly detects colon bleeding.

ANS: T PTS: 1

The ICT endpoint is a definite colored line.

ANS: T PTS: 1

Guaiac used in the fecal occult blood test is derived from a tree resin.

ANS: T PTS: 1

Both the guaiac and ICT tests are CLIA waived.

ANS: T PTS: 1

The ICT test has high sensitivity, which means that it detects only high levels of occult blood.

ANS: F PTS: 1

Because the fecal occult blood test is so simple, it is not necessary to provide the patient with instructions on how or when to collect the sample and prepare the slides.

ANS: F PTS: 1

COMPLETION

The chemical that is derived from the resin of the Guaiacum tree and is used in the occult blood test is ____________________.

ANS: guaiac

PTS: 1

Something that is cancerous is not benign, but is instead ____________________.

ANS: malignant

PTS: 1

Another word for concealed or hidden is ____________________.

ANS: occult

PTS: 1

The fecal occult blood test detects amounts of blood too small to be ____________________.

ANS:

visible

seen

noticed

PTS: 1

The fecal occult blood test detects bleeding in the ____________________.

ANS:

gastrointestinal tract

GI tract

colon

PTS: 1

The fecal occult blood test is widely used as a screening test for ____________________.

ANS:

colon cancer

bleeding in the GI tract

bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract

PTS: 1

In the guaiac fecal occult blood test, a false positive test can be caused by the enzyme peroxidase, which is found in foods such as turnips and ____________________.

ANS: horseradish

PTS: 1

Excess vitamin C can inhibit the reaction in the guaiac test and cause a false ____________________ test.

ANS: negative

PTS: 1

The Hemoccult ICT test uses a(n) ____________________ reaction to detect hemoglobin in the fecal specimen.

ANS: immunochemical

PTS: 1

In the guaiac test, it is the ____________________ in the hemoglobin that catalyzes the reaction to form a blue color.

ANS:

iron

Fe

PTS: 1

The ICT test method detects the ____________________ portion of hemoglobin.

ANS:

globin

globin chain

protein

protein chain

PTS: 1

The developer solution used in the guaiac test contains ______________________________.

ANS:

hydrogen peroxide

H2O2

peroxide

H2O2

PTS: 1

MATCHING

Match the terms with the descriptions. Use an answer only once.

a. no dietary restrictions d. peroxidase in turnips and horseradish

b. the guaiac test e. ICT

c. CLIA waived

uses an antibody to detect the globin chain in hemoglobin

guaiac test and ICT

false positive guaiac test

ICT

temporarily eliminate red meat or large doses of vitamin C from diet

ANS: E PTS: 1

ANS: C PTS: 1

ANS: D PTS: 1

ANS: A PTS: 1

ANS: B PTS: 1

Lesson 7-1: Introduction to Clinical Microbiology

TRUE/FALSE

Another designation for rod-shaped bacteria is cocci.

ANS: F PTS: 1

Bacteria that retain the crystal violet stain are said to be gram-negative.

ANS: F PTS: 1

Sheep’s blood agar (BA) supports the growth of most bacteria.

ANS: T PTS: 1

Organisms that live in, on, or at the expense of another organism are parasites.

ANS: T PTS: 1

Fastidious organisms will grow on most types of media.

ANS: F PTS: 1

MULTIPLE CHOICE

Minimum inhibitory concentration:

a. is the area around an antibiotic disk

b. is a diagnostic method using antigen-antibody reactions

c. is the concentration of an antibiotic required to inhibit the growth of a microorganism

d. is the same as the Bauer-Kirby method

ANS: C PTS: 1

A growth medium that supports the growth of most organisms is:

a. EMB c. “chocolate” agar

b. Thayer-Martin d. 5% sheep’s blood agar (BA)

ANS: D PTS: 1

Organisms that live in, on, or at the expense of another organism:

a. are called host organisms

b. are parasites

c. are always unicellular

d. are found only in blood and bone marrow

ANS: B PTS: 1

In microbiology, which of the following is true?

a. Hyphae are filaments of mold that make up the mycelium.

b. The parasite spends its entire life cycle in one host.

c. A bacillus is a spherical organism.

d. A culture is a defined mass of microorganisms.

ANS: A PTS: 1

In the POL, which of the following would be most likely to be performed?

a. parasitology procedures c. fungal cultures

b. bacterial cultures d. virus cultures

ANS: B PTS: 1

Another name for spiral- or helical-shaped bacteria is:

a. bacillus c. coccobacillus

b. spirochete d. gram-negative

ANS: B PTS: 1

According to international rules of nomenclature, regarding the scientific names of living things:

a. the first part of the name is the family name

b. the second part of the name is the genus name

c. the first and second parts of the name are capitalized

d. scientific names must be italicized if typed or underlined if handwritten

ANS: D PTS: 1

Microbiology includes:

a. only the study of bacteria

b. only bacteria and fungi

c. the study of organisms of microscopic size

d. the study of only pathogens

ANS: C PTS: 1

All of the following are true EXCEPT:

a. Bacteria are single-celled microorganisms.

b. Bacteria usually multiply by fission.

c. All bacteria are pathogens.

d. A bacterium is a single organism.

ANS: C PTS: 1

Which of the following is true concerning growth requirements of bacteria?

a. Anaerobic bacteria grow in the absence of oxygen.

b. Aerobic bacteria require CO2 to grow.

c. Fastidious organisms can grow on almost any medium.

d. Few organisms can grow on 5% sheep’s blood agar.

ANS: A PTS: 1

COMPLETION

A rod-shaped bacterium is called a(n) ____________________.

ANS: bacillus

PTS: 1

A defined mass of bacteria assumed to have grown from a single organism is called a(n) ____________________.

ANS: colony

PTS: 1

Bacteria that require special nutritional factors to survive are called ____________________.

ANS:

fastidious

fastidious bacteria

PTS: 1

A culture is growth of microorganisms in a special ____________________.

ANS: medium

PTS: 1

Bacteria that lose the crystal violet stain and retain the safranin in the Gram stain procedure are designated ____________________ bacteria.

ANS:

gram-negative

gram negative

PTS: 1

Another name for a spherical bacterium is ____________________.

ANS: coccus

PTS: 1

Organisms that will grow only in the absence of oxygen are referred to as ____________________.

ANS:

anaerobic

anaerobic organisms

PTS: 1

Microorganisms that are normally present in a specific site are the normal ____________________.

ANS: flora

PTS: 1

An organism or agent that is capable of causing disease in a host is a(n) ____________________.

ANS: pathogen

PTS: 1

A pathological condition caused by growth of microorganisms in the host is a(n) ____________________.

ANS: infection

PTS: 1

MATCHING

Choose the best match for each item. Answers can be used more than once.

a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae c. Escherichia coli

b. Streptococcus d. Staphylococcus aureus

infections, boils

urinary tract infections

chocolate agar

EMB agar

blood agar

ANS: D PTS: 1

ANS: C PTS: 1

ANS: A PTS: 1

ANS: C PTS: 1

ANS: B PTS: 1

Lesson 7-2: Bacteriology Specimen Collection and Processing

TRUE/FALSE

Aerobic bacteria grow only in the absence of oxygen.

ANS: F PTS: 1

If antiseptic wipes are used by the patient when collecting urine for culture, the container does not have to be sterile.

ANS: F PTS: 1

The phlebotomist is required to wear sterile gloves when collecting a blood culture.

ANS: T PTS: 1

A stool specimen from an infant can be conveniently collected in a disposable diaper.

ANS: F PTS: 1

Anaerobic organisms will grow on most types of media.

ANS: F PTS: 1

A specimen from a wound is best collected using a swab.

ANS: F PTS: 1

The stool specimen from an adult can be collected from the toilet water.

ANS: F PTS: 1

A sputum specimen must be transported in a special transport medium.

ANS: F PTS: 1

MULTIPLE CHOICE

In the POL, which of the following would most likely be performed?

a. parasitology procedures c. fungal cultures

b. bacterial cultures d. virus cultures

ANS: B PTS: 1

Which of the following is true concerning growth requirements of bacteria?

a. Anaerobic bacteria grow in the absence of oxygen.

b. Aerobic bacteria require CO2 to grow.

c. Fastidious organisms can grow on almost any medium.

d. Few organisms can grow on 5% sheep’s blood agar.

ANS: A PTS: 1

Which of the following is true of blood culture collection?

a. The site is cleansed as in routine venipuncture.

b. The tops of the collection bottles are sterile.

c. Blood culture can be contaminated by skin flora

d. all of the above

ANS: C PTS: 1

A nasal or nasopharyngeal culture can be ordered:

a. to check for septicemia

b. to rule out an infection by Bordatella pertussis

c. is collected using a cotton swab

d. to check for group A Streptococcus (strep A)

ANS: B PTS: 1

COMPLETION

Organisms that will grow only in the absence of oxygen are referred to as ____________________.

ANS:

anaerobic

anaerobic organisms

PTS: 1

Microorganisms that are normally present in a specific site are the normal ____________________.

ANS: flora

PTS: 1

Salmonella species could be isolated from a ____________________.

ANS: stool specimen

PTS: 1

The patient should rinse the mouth with water before collecting a ____________________.

ANS:

sputum specimen

sputum

respiratory specimen

PTS: 1

Cary-Blair is a medium that can be used for transport of ____________________.

ANS:

stool specimens

stools for culture

PTS: 1

Health care workers may be tested for being carriers of MRSA by having a(an) ____________________.

ANS:

Lesson 7-3: Culture Techniques for Bacteriology

TRUE/FALSE

The majority of laboratory-acquired infections are transmitted by respiratory route.

ANS: T PTS: 1

An antiseptic is used to kill organisms on living tissues.

ANS: T PTS: 1

A selective medium supports the growth of most organisms.

ANS: F PTS: 1

The use of an open flame to sterilize the loop can produce aerosols.

ANS: T PTS: 1

When primary media is being inoculated, the swab containing infectious material is used to inoculate the first quadrant.

ANS: T PTS: 1

MULTIPLE CHOICE

A growth medium that allows growth of some organisms while inhibiting growth of others is called:

a. a primary medium c. a transport medium

b. an indicator medium d. a selective medium

ANS: D PTS: 1

An antiseptic is:

a. a chemical that eliminates all living microorganisms from an article or an area

b. a chemical used to control the growth of microorganisms on living tissues

c. a chemical used to sterilize a surface

d. all measures used to prevent contamination

ANS: B PTS: 1

All of the following are true concerning aseptic technique EXCEPT:

a. It prevents bacteria from infecting humans.

b. It prevents contamination of a culture by unwanted organisms.

c. It prevents contamination of surfaces.

d. It protects only the technician.

ANS: D PTS: 1

Which of the following is true concerning laboratory-acquired infections?

a. They increase when disposable inoculating loops are used.

b. The majority occur by respiratory route.

c. Aerosol formation plays no role.

d. To prevent them, an open flame should be used to sterilize loops.

ANS: B PTS: 1

Concerning microbiological safety cabinets, all of the following are true EXCEPT:

a. They are not required for routine bacteriological work.

b. All work performed with fungi and certain other highly infectious agents requires the use of a Class I cabinet.

c. Work performed on Mycobacterium requires a Class II cabinet.

d. Class II cabinets contain a HEPA filter.

ANS: B PTS: 1

COMPLETION

The seaweed derivative used to solidify microbiological media is ____________________.

ANS: agar

PTS: 1

A chemical used to control the growth of microorganisms on inanimate surfaces such as benchtops is a(n) ____________________.

ANS:

disinfectant

surface disinfectant

PTS: 1

A mass of bacteria being transferred from one medium to another is a(n) ____________________.

ANS: inoculum

PTS: 1

The process of transferring a population of microorganisms to a growth medium is ____________________.

ANS:

inoculation

inoculating

PTS: 1

The act of eliminating all living microorganisms from an article or area is ____________________.

ANS: sterilization

PTS: 1

A bacteriological medium that detects certain chemical reactions of organisms growing on it is called a(n) ____________________ medium.

ANS: indicator

PTS: 1

One-fourth of an agar plate is called a(n) ____________________.

ANS: quadrant

PTS: 1

A medium used to recover an organism from infectious material is the ____________________.

ANS:

primary medium

primary

PTS: 1

An antiseptic is a chemical used on ____________________ to control the growth of microorganisms.

ANS:

living tissue

tissue

skin

PTS: 1

Bacteria are streaked on an agar plate using a(n) ____________________.

ANS:

inoculating loop

loop

PTS: 1

MATCHING

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. indicator medium f. transport medium

b. inoculum g. aseptic technique

c. Mycoplasma h. respiratory route

d. agar i. HEPA

e. 10% chlorine bleach j. inoculating loop

measures used to prevent contamination when working with microorganisms

seaweed derivative used to solidify media

instrument used to pick up and transfer bacteria

mass of bacteria being transferred from one medium to another

differential medium

medium that provides the proper environment during transport

high-efficiency particulate air filter

tiny microorganisms lacking a cell wall

laboratory-acquired infections

effective against viruses

ANS: G PTS: 1

ANS: D PTS: 1

ANS: J PTS: 1

ANS: B PTS: 1

ANS: A PTS: 1

ANS: F PTS: 1

ANS: I PTS: 1

ANS: C PTS: 1

ANS: H PTS: 1

ANS: E PTS: 1

nasopharyngeal culture

nasal swab performed

nasopharyngeal swab performed

PTS: 1

MATCHING

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. Bordatella pertussis

b. Streptococcus

c. Escherichia coli

d. Staphylococcus aureus such as MRSA

e. anaerobic organisms

HAIs

urinary tract infections

nasal or nasopharyngeal swab

wound cultures

throat culture

ANS: D PTS: 1

ANS: C PTS: 1

ANS: A PTS: 1

ANS: E PTS: 1

ANS: B PTS: 1

Lesson 7-4: The Gram Stain

TRUE/FALSE

Organisms that retain the primary stain are said to be gram-positive.

ANS: T PTS: 1

The steps in the Gram stain procedure can be completed in less than 4 minutes.

ANS: T PTS: 1

Heat-fixing the smear causes the stain to adhere to the microorganisms.

ANS: F PTS: 1

The slide for a bacterial smear that has been correctly heat-fixed should be too hot to touch.

ANS: F PTS: 1

The counterstain in the Gram stain procedure is safranin.

ANS: T PTS: 1

If the slide becomes too hot during heat-fixing, the morphology of the microorganism can be distorted.

ANS: T PTS: 1

COMPLETION

A dye that adds a contrasting color is a(n) ____________________.

ANS: counterstain

PTS: 1

A substance that fixes a dye or stain to an object is a(n) ____________________.

ANS: mordant

PTS: 1

The special absorbent paper used to dry slides is called ____________________ paper.

ANS: bibulous

PTS: 1

Before disposal, all bacteriological specimens and materials must be sterilized by ____________________.

ANS:

autoclaving

autoclave

PTS: 1

To prepare a smear of the microorganisms on a swab, a clean microscope slide is labeled and the swab is gently rolled across the surface of the ____________________.

ANS: slide

PTS: 1

During the preparation of a bacteriological smear, the film on the slide must be completely dry before the smear is ____________________.

ANS:

heat-fixed

heat fixed

PTS: 1

The most frequently performed stain in the bacteriology laboratory is the ____________________.

ANS: Gram stain

PTS: 1

The primary stain in the Gram stain process is a dye called ____________________.

ANS: crystal violet

PTS: 1

The mordant used in the Gram stain is ____________________.

ANS: Gram’s iodine

PTS: 1

When viewed under the microscope on a stained smear the color of Escherichia coli will appear ____________________.

ANS:

pink-red

pink

pinkish-red

pinkish red

PTS: 1

Escherichia coli should give a gram-____________________ reaction with the Gram stain.

ANS:

negative

PTS: 1

Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-____________________ organism.

ANS:

positive

+

PTS: 1

MATCHING

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. gram-negative f. gram-positive

b. excess heat fixing g. inoculating loop and a drop of water

c. used slides h. bibulous paper

d. properly made smear i. decolorizer

e. insufficient heating during heat fixing j. Standard Precautions

alcohol-acetone

one method of drying stained smears

Staphylococcus aureus

Escherichia coli

distorted morphology of bacteria

methods used when handling cultures and patient specimens

sharps container

making a smear from a culture growing on an agar plate

specimen washing off the slide

barely visible on the slide

ANS: I PTS: 1

ANS: H PTS: 1

ANS: F PTS: 1

ANS: A PTS: 1

ANS: B PTS: 1

ANS: J PTS: 1

ANS: C PTS: 1

ANS: G PTS: 1

ANS: E PTS: 1

ANS: D PTS: 1

Lesson 7-5: Tests for Group A Streptococcus

TRUE/FALSE

The ICON SC group A Streptococcus (strep A) test is CLIA waived.

ANS: T PTS: 1

A negative group A Streptococcus test in a symptomatic patient should be confirmed by performing a throat culture.

ANS: T PTS: 1

In the latex agglutination tests for group A Streptococcus, microscopic beads are coated with antibodies to group A Streptococcus.

ANS: T PTS: 1

High specificity in a rapid strep test indicates that it will react only with group A Streptococcus.

ANS: T PTS: 1

High sensitivity in a rapid test for group A Streptococcus indicates that the test can be positive for other bacteria.

ANS: F PTS: 1

MULTIPLE CHOICE

Which of the following is a characteristic of group A Streptococcus?

a. It grows in clusters. d. It is inhibited by bacitracin.

b. It causes a hemolysis on BA. e. It is gram-negative.

c. It grows best in 5%–10% O2

ANS: D PTS: 1

Typical morphology of strep is:

a. growth in grapelike clusters c. organisms appear singly

b. growth in chains d. none of above

ANS: B PTS: 1

Which of the following is NOT a proper quality assessment procedure?

a. Test media to see that it supports growth of the microorganism.

b. Follow manufacturer’s instructions when using rapid test kits.

c. Test media to see that it will demonstrate hemolysis.

d. Use rapid test kits beyond expiration date.

e. Results cannot be reported unless controls give proper reactions.

ANS: D PTS: 1

Which of the following is correct concerning gamma (g) hemolysis?

a. incomplete hemolysis

b. absence of hemolysis

c. complete hemolysis

d. hemolysis producing a green color around the colony

e. hemolysis producing almost transparent agar

ANS: B PTS: 1

The typical positive reaction observed with a rapid test for group A Streptococcus is:

a. beta hemolysis

b. organisms are gram-positive

c. organisms are growing in chains

d. organisms growing in increased CO2

e. the appearance of a colored line or product

ANS: E PTS: 1

COMPLETION

The shallow depressions where the tonsils were located before surgical removal are called the ____________________.

ANS: fossae

PTS: 1

The destruction of RBCs resulting in the release of hemoglobin from the cells is called ____________________.

ANS: hemolysis

PTS: 1

Pharyngeal is having to do with the ___________________________________, or pharynx.

ANS: back of the throat

PTS: 1

Group A Streptococcus is just one of several ____________________ groups of streptococci.

ANS: Lancefield

PTS: 1

Streptococcus pyogenes belongs to Lancefield group ____________________.

ANS: A

PTS: 1

An untreated group A Streptococcus infection can result in serious complications, especially for those under the age of ____________________.

ANS:

twenty-five

25

PTS: 1

Confirmation of group A Streptococcus can be made either by identifying the organism after growing it in a culture or by performing a rapid ____________________ test.

ANS:

immunoassay

EIA

enzyme immunoassay

PTS: 1

When performing the throat swab, the technician must avoid touching the inside of the mouth or the ____________________.

ANS: tongue

PTS: 1

The growth of most streptococci is enhanced by incubation in an increased concentration of ____________________.

ANS:

CO2

carbon dioxide

PTS: 1

The medium used to culture a throat swab is a(n) ____________________.

ANS:

blood agar plate

BA plate

BA

PTS: 1

MATCHING

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. group A Streptococcus d. alpha hemolysis

b. invalid test e. rapid tests for group A Streptococcus

c. blood agar

beta hemolysis

incomplete hemolysis, green coloration

bacitracin sensitive

antigen-antibody reaction

no reaction in the control region

ANS: C PTS: 1

ANS: D PTS: 1

ANS: A PTS: 1

ANS: E PTS: 1

ANS: B PTS: 1

Lesson 7-6: Urine Culture and Colony Count

TRUE/FALSE

The primary medium is used to observe for chemical reactions.

ANS: F PTS: 1

The urine culture should be performed on urine collected before the patient begins antibiotic therapy.

ANS: T PTS: 1

Urinary tract infections are more common in females.

ANS: T PTS: 1

All calibrated loops used to inoculate urine culture media are 0.001 mL capacity.

ANS: F PTS: 1

The colony count for the urine culture is made from the EMB or MAC plate.

ANS: F PTS: 1

Agar plates for urine culture are streaked in four quadrants for isolated colonies.

ANS: F PTS: 1

Inoculating loops of 0.01 mL or 0.001 mL capacity can be used to streak urine for colony counts.

ANS: T PTS: 1

MULTIPLE CHOICE

If a urine colony count was streaked with a 0.001 mL loop and 70 colonies were counted on the blood agar plate after incubation, which of the following is true?

a. The count cannot be calculated from the blood agar plate.

b. 70,000/ mL is the colony count.

c. The 0.001 mL loop should not be used.

d. The count should be done on the EMB or MAC plate.

ANS: B PTS: 1

Which of the following are UTI symptoms?

a. fever d. all of the above

b. backache e. only (a) and (b)

c. blood in urine

ANS: D PTS: 1

All of the following are true concerning a urine culture EXCEPT:

a. Only calibrated loops should be used.

b. The specimen must be cultured before a urinalysis is performed.

c. If three or more colony types are present, each is counted separately for the colony count.

d. The media should not be used beyond its expiration date.

e. The specimen for culture must be collected before the patient begins antibiotic therapy.

ANS: C PTS: 1

Which of the following is true?

a. The routine urinalysis should be performed before the urine culture is set up.

b. For quality assessment, media should be tested once every 3 months.

c. If a calibrated loop is not available, a regular platinum loop can be used for urine culture.

d. All (a–c) are true.

e. None (a–c) are true.

ANS: E PTS: 1

All of the following are true EXCEPT:

a. Urine culture is one of the most frequently requested tests.

b. UTIs are more frequent in male patients.

c. Standard Precautions must be observed when performing a urine culture.

d. Pseudomonas can be a cause of UTIs.

ANS: B PTS: 1

COMPLETION

One of the most frequently requested tests in the bacteriology laboratory is the ____________________ culture.

ANS:

urine

urine C&S

PTS: 1

The method of estimating the number of organisms in urine by enumerating the colonies is called a(n) ____________________.

ANS: colony count

PTS: 1

An abbreviation for a urinary tract infection is ____________________.

ANS: UTI

PTS: 1

The number of colonies counted is multiplied by ____________________ if a 0.01 mL inoculating loop was used to streak the culture.

ANS:

100

one hundred

PTS: 1

The microorganism most commonly responsible for a UTI is ____________________.

ANS:

Escherichia coli

coli

PTS: 1

For colony count, the specimen is inoculated to a(n) ____________________.

ANS:

blood agar plate

BA plate

PTS: 1

Urine is inoculated to EMB or MAC, which supports the growth of gram-negative organisms and inhibits growth of ____________________.

ANS:

gram positives

gram-positive organisms

PTS: 1

After working with bacterial cultures, and any time a spill or splash occurs, the technician must wipe all work surfaces with surface ____________________.

ANS: disinfectant

PTS: 1

A gram-positive organism frequently found as a causative agent in UTI is ____________________.

ANS:

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

saprophyticus

PTS: 1

The specimen required for a urine culture is a(n) ____________________ urine specimen.

ANS:

clean-catch

clean catch

PTS: 1

MATCHING

Choose the best match for each item. Some answers can be used more than once.

a. EMB and MAC d. selective media

b. colony count e. clean-catch specimen

c. contaminated specimen

EMB

blood agar plate

three or more colony types on BA

MAC

inhibit growth of gram positives

ANS: D PTS: 1

ANS: B PTS: 1

ANS: C PTS: 1

ANS: D PTS: 1

ANS: A PTS: 1

Lesson 7-7: Bacterial Identification and Antibiotic Susceptibility Testing

TRUE/FALSE

The endpoint reaction of the catalase test is a color change.

ANS: F PTS: 1

The catalase test is used to differentiate gram positives from gram negatives.

ANS: F PTS: 1

Most identification schemes for gram negatives is based on biochemical reactions.

ANS: T PTS: 1

The Mueller-Hinton antibiotic susceptibility test uses Bauer-Kirby agar.

ANS: T PTS: 1

MULTIPLE CHOICE

Zones of inhibition:

a. are present when organisms are resistant

b. are estimated by comparison to other zones

c. are measured using a template or rule

d. contain bacterial growth

ANS: C PTS: 1

All of the following are methods of bacterial identification EXCEPT:

a. MIC c. Enterotube

b. API d. Vitek-Two

ANS: A PTS: 1

The coagulase test:

a. cannot be performed in tubes d. uses rabbit plasma

b. is a 10-minute test e. None of the above (a–d) are correct.

c. is positive for strep

ANS: D PTS: 1

Before setting up a bacterial identification test, it is most important to know:

a. the organism’s gram reaction

b. the antibiotic susceptibility of the organism

c. the colony appearance on BA

d. the zone of inhibition

ANS: A PTS: 1

Which statement is NOT correct?

a. The catalase test uses H2O2 reagent.

b. The endpoint of the coagulase test is a clot.

c. Staph bacteria grow in clusters.

d. Blood agar will not react in the catalase test.

e. The endpoint of the catalase test is bubble formation.

ANS: D PTS: 1

In the Bauer-Kirby antibiotic susceptibility test:

a. the plate is streaked in four quadrants for isolation

b. antibiotic disks are embedded into the agar before inoculation

c. the plate is inoculated with a swab rather than a loop

d. test results are available in 2–4 hours

e. the test is performed in a microplate

ANS: C PTS: 1

COMPLETION

The catalase test differentiates between Streptococcus species and ____________________ species.

ANS: Staphylococcus

PTS: 1

The minimum inhibitory concentration is abbreviated as ____________________.

ANS: MIC

PTS: 1

Pleomorphic means having ____________________.

ANS: varied shapes

PTS: 1

Coliform bacteria includes the ____________________ intestinal bacteria such as Escherichia coli.

ANS:

gram negative

gram-negative

PTS: 1

The test that differentiates between Staphylococcus aureus and other Staphylococcus species is the ____________________ test.

ANS: coagulase

PTS: 1

Gram-negative organisms will grow on BA as well as EMB and ____________________.

ANS:

MAC

MacConkey

PTS: 1

The growth of gram-____________________ organisms is inhibited on MAC or EMB.

ANS:

positive

+

PTS: 1

The Gram stain reveals the gram reaction and reveals or confirms the shape, or ____________________.

ANS:

morphology

bacterial morphology

PTS: 1

The ____________________ tests should be performed to be sure the causative agent is not resistant to antibiotics.

ANS: antibiotic susceptibility

PTS: 1

In the 1940s, the incidence of streptococcal infections declined with the discovery of ____________________.

ANS:

penicillin

the antibiotic penicillin

penicillin antibiotic

PTS: 1

MATCHING

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. Escherichia coli

b. API STAPH

c. cause of methicillin resistance

d. determining resistance or susceptibility

e. Enterotube II

f. improperly collected urine

g. MRSA

h. MicroScan Walk-Away, VITEK-2

i. Bauer-Kirby

j. Klebsiella species

methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

penicillin-binding proteins in cell wall

distinctive bubble-gum pink mucoid colonies on indicator media

a green metallic sheen on EMB

manual bacterial identification system

biochemical reactions of Staphylococcus

automated instruments for bacterial identification

manual susceptibility test

measuring the zones around the antibiotic disks

three or more different organisms cultured from a specimen

ANS: G PTS: 1

ANS: C PTS: 1

ANS: J PTS: 1

ANS: A PTS: 1

ANS: E PTS: 1

ANS: B PTS: 1

ANS: H PTS: 1

ANS: I PTS: 1

ANS: D PTS: 1

ANS: F PTS: 1

Lesson 7-8: Tests for Sexually Transmitted Diseases

TRUE/FALSE

Testing for STDs is performed only in state public health laboratories.

ANS: F PTS: 1

Venereal disease is another name for sexually transmitted disease.

ANS: T PTS: 1

Some rapid diagnostic tests can detect the organisms responsible for vaginitis in less than 10 minutes.

ANS: T PTS: 1

The three-slide test is a CLIA-waived PPM test.

ANS: T PTS: 1

Chlamydia trachomatis rarely causes urethritis in males.

ANS: F PTS: 1

A vaccine is available for both males and females to prevent HPV.

ANS: T PTS: 1

Some over-the-counter kits are available to help diagnose vaginitis.

ANS: T PTS: 1

Syphilis is no longer a public health problem.

ANS: F PTS: 1

MULTIPLE CHOICE

All of the following are true of STDs EXCEPT:

a. They can be caused by bacteria.

b. They infect the genitourinary tract and other sites in the body.

c. They can be caused by protozoa.

d. They are caused only by viruses.

ANS: D PTS: 1

All of the following are true of STDs in female patients EXCEPT:

a. STDs are not a factor in infertility in females.

b. Females are often asymptomatic.

c. They can cause vaginitis.

d. They can be passed from a positive partner.

ANS: A PTS: 1

Which of the following is NOT true of vaginitis?

a. It is commonly caused by strep group A.

b. One causative agent is Chlamydia trachomatis.

c. It can be caused by Mobiluncus species.

d. Candida albicans can be a cause.

ANS: A PTS: 1

The three-slide test is an important part of discovering the cause of vaginitis. Which of the following is true of the test?

a. The KOH preparation is used to look for Trichomonas.

b. The KOH preparation is used to look for “clue” cells.

c. A Gram stain can detect bacteria or yeasts.

d. Any properly trained technician can perform the test.

ANS: C PTS: 1

Which of the following is true of Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

a. It grows best on blood agar.

b. The colonies are tiny, shiny, and grayish.

c. It is negative by the oxidase test.

d. It causes STDs in males but not in females

ANS: B PTS: 1

COMPLETION

Treponema pallidum causes the STD ____________________.

ANS: syphilis

PTS: 1

The oxidase test is used to identify certain bacteria such as ____________________.

ANS:

Neisseria

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

gonorrhoeae

PTS: 1

A sexually transmitted virus that can cause cervical cancer is ____________________.

ANS:

HPV

human papilloma virus

PTS: 1

Untreated STDs in females can cause women of childbearing age to be ____________________.

ANS:

infertile

barren

unable to conceive

PTS: 1

The saline wet mount preparation is for detection of Trichomonas and ____________________.

ANS: clue cells

PTS: 1

MATCHING

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. syphilis f. spirochetes

b. p24 antigen g. parasitic protozoan

c. cancer of the cervix h. oxidase test

d. HSV-1 i. CLIA waived

e. hepatocarcinoma j. venereal

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

usual cause of oral herpes

motile bacteria with a helical or spiral shape

Treponema pallidum

having to do with sexual contact

test for HIV infection

Trichomonas vaginalis

genital human papilloma virus

hepatitis B virus

PPM tests

ANS: H PTS: 1

ANS: D PTS: 1

ANS: F PTS: 1

ANS: A PTS: 1

ANS: J PTS: 1

ANS: B PTS: 1

ANS: G PTS: 1

ANS: C PTS: 1

ANS: E PTS: 1

ANS: I PTS: 1

Lesson 7-9: Infection Prevention in Health Care Settings

TRUE/FALSE

If gloves are worn, handwashing is not required after their removal.

ANS: F PTS: 1

Contact Precautions are important to prevent transmission of skin infections.

ANS: T PTS: 1

Droplet Precautions are important in suspected cases of streptococcal pharyngitis.

ANS: T PTS: 1

The source of infection can be an infected person or animal, the environment, or fomites.

ANS: T PTS: 1

In 1996, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) issued Standard Precautions to augment Universal Precautions.

ANS: T PTS: 1

COMPLETION

A CDC isolation category designed to prevent transmission of diseases spread by close or direct contact is ____________________.

ANS:

contact precautions

Contact Precautions

PTS: 1

A person who harbors an organism, has no symptoms or signs of disease, but is capable of spreading the organism to others is a(n) ____________________.

ANS: carrier

PTS: 1

Inanimate objects such as bed rails, linens, or eating utensils that can be contaminated are referred to as ____________________.

ANS: fomites

PTS: 1

A pathological condition caused by growth of microorganisms in the host is a(n) ____________________.

ANS: infection

PTS: 1

The practice of limiting the movement and social contact of a patient who is potentially infectious or who must be protected from exposure to infectious agents is ____________________.

ANS: isolation

PTS: 1

An infection acquired in a hospital or other health care facility is called a(n) ____________________ infection.

ANS:

nosocomial

health-care associated

health care associated

health-care-associated

HAI

PTS: 1

Standard Precautions is a set of CDC guidelines designed to protect patients and health care workers by regarding all patients and body substances as potentially ____________________.

ANS: infectious

PTS: 1

After glove removal, the health care provider must wash the hands with a hand ____________________.

ANS:

antiseptic

antiseptic soap

PTS: 1

Protective isolation is also called ____________________ isolation.

ANS: reverse

PTS: 1

An organism not normally causing disease in a healthy individual is referred to as ____________________.

ANS:

nonpathogenic

non-pathogenic

PTS: 1

MATCHING

Choose the best match for each item. Some answers can be used more than once.

a. nosocomial infections, often drug resistant

b. pulmonary tuberculosis

c. proper handwashing

d. infection

e. 90,000 deaths annually

f. OPIM

g. Droplet Precautions

h. exposure control practices

i. Airborne Precautions

j. surface disinfectant

k. all patients

handwashing, use of gloves, masks, and gowns

first and last step of all procedures

statistic associated with health-care-associated infections (HAIs)

Staphylococcus aureus, Clostridium difficile

other potentially infectious material

process should last at least 1–2 minutes

airborne precautions

prevent transmission of disease spread through the air over short distances

pathological condition caused by growth of microorganisms in the host

fomites

Standard Precautions

influenza

ANS: H PTS: 1

ANS: C PTS: 1

ANS: E PTS: 1

ANS: A PTS: 1

ANS: F PTS: 1

ANS: C PTS: 1

ANS: B PTS: 1

ANS: G PTS: 1

ANS: D PTS: 1

ANS: J PTS: 1

ANS: K PTS: 1

ANS: G PTS: 1

Lesson 7-10: Emerging Infectious Diseases

TRUE/FALSE

Reemergence of a previously known pathogen can occur because of mutations or adaptations in the organism.

ANS: T PTS: 1

Emerging infectious diseases have the potential to develop into pandemics.

ANS: T PTS: 1

West Nile virus is spread geographically by infected humans.

ANS: F PTS: 1

Zoonotic refers to infection or disease that can be transmitted from vertebrate animals to humans.

ANS: T PTS: 1

Epizootic refers to outbreak of disease in an animal population.

ANS: T PTS: 1

MULTIPLE CHOICE

Mad cow disease is also known as:

a. avian influenza c. SARS

b. bovine spongiform encephalopathy d. Ebola

ANS: B PTS: 1

Public health crises can be caused by:

a. hurricanes disrupting wastewater treatment plants

b. natural disasters creating environments where insects and pathogens can grow

c. hurricanes causing cholera by contamination of food and water supplies

d. all of the above

ANS: D PTS: 1

All of the following are true of West Nile virus EXCEPT:

a. It was first isolated in Uganda.

b. It causes mild febrile illness in about 20% of patients.

c. It causes severe meningitis in less than 1% of patients.

d. It is not known to cause fatalities.

ANS: D PTS: 1

All of the following are true of viral hemorrhagic fevers EXCEPT:

a. The onset is abrupt.

b. The symptoms result from multiple organ damage.

c. They usually are not fatal.

d. The symptoms include fatigue and bleeding under the skin.

ANS: C PTS: 1

The filovirus family includes which of the following?

a. Ebola and Rift Valley fever viruses c. Lassa and Marburg viruses

b. Rift Valley fever virus and hantavirus d. Ebola and Marburg viruses

ANS: D PTS: 1

COMPLETION

The national network of laboratories organized by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), and the Association of Public Health Laboratories is known as the ____________________.

ANS:

Laboratory Response Network

LRN

PTS: 1

Avian influenza is a problem for humans because humans have no natural ____________________.

ANS: immunity

PTS: 1

The family of viruses that cause Ebola hemorrhagic fever and Marburg hemorrhagic fever is called ____________________.

ANS:

filovirus

filovirus family

filoviruses

Filoviridae

PTS: 1

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) is caused by an unconventional transmissible agent called a(n) ____________________.

ANS: prion

PTS: 1

Development of multidrug-resistant strains of Mycobacterium has allowed the reemergence of the disease ____________________.

ANS:

tuberculosis

TB

PTS: 1

After the 2010 earthquake in Haiti, 100,000 people were eventually hospitalized because of a reemerging disease ____________________.

ANS: cholera

PTS: 1

In Africa in 2010 there was an outreak of ____________________.

ANS: Rift Valley fever

PTS: 1

MATCHING

Choose the best match for each time. Use an answer only once.

a. RNA viruses g. Marburg virus

b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis h. West Nile virus

c. malaria 2010 i. avian influenza virus

d. SARS j. cholera

e. Ebola virus k. Haiti

f. found in animals or arthropods l. prion

discovered in Uganda in 1937

bovine spongiform encephalopathy

natural disasters, such as flooding

viral hemorrhagic fevers

zoonotic

first recognized in the Democratic Republic of Congo

laboratory workers in Europe acquired it from research monkeys

caused by a variant of the coronavirus

multidrug-resistant bacterium

bird flu

Lesson 7-11: Biological Threat Agents

TRUE/FALSE

Plague is transmitted to humans by flea bites.

ANS: T PTS: 1

Bubonic plague is characterized by swollen lymph glands, usually in the groin.

ANS: T PTS: 1

Tularemia, caused by Francisella tularensis, is also called rabbit fever.

ANS: T PTS: 1

Francisella tularensis is very difficult to grow in culture.

ANS: F PTS: 1

The neurotoxins produced by the gram-positive, spore-forming bacterium, Clostridium botulinum, are not very potent.

ANS: F PTS: 1

MULTIPLE CHOICE

Which of the following Class A agents have been recognized by the CDC as potential biological weapons?

a. Yersinia pestis c. variola virus

b. Francisella tularensis d. all of the above

ANS: D PTS: 1

All of the following are true of potential bioterrorism agents EXCEPT:

a. easily disseminated

b. not usually fatal

c. ease of person-to-person transmission

d. might disrupt society

ANS: B PTS: 1

Which of the following is true of anthrax?

a. It only causes inhalation or pulmonary disease.

b. Its spores are easily destroyed in the environment.

c. It could have been one of the plagues described in the book Exodus.

d. It is a relatively new disease.

e. It only exists in research, government, and military laboratories.

ANS: C PTS: 1

All of the following are functions of the Department of Homeland Security EXCEPT:

a. planning for natural disasters

b. establishing the LRN

c. working to eliminate potential terror threats

d. planning for human-made disasters

ANS: B PTS: 1

Terrorism threats could come in the form of:

a. chemical agents c. biological agents

b. radioactive agents d. all of the above

ANS: D PTS: 1

COMPLETION

Acts of terrorism involving threats to agricultural products such as food, animals, and crops are known as ____________________.

ANS: agroterrorism

PTS: 1

Botulinum toxin is produced by the microorganism ____________________.

ANS:

Clostridium botulinum

botulinum

PTS: 1

The infectious form of a virus is called a(n) ____________________.

ANS: virion

PTS: 1

The disease caused by Bacillus anthracis is ____________________.

ANS: anthrax

PTS: 1

Variola virus causes the disease ____________________.

ANS: smallpox

PTS: 1

Botulinum toxin is a(n) ____________________ toxin.

ANS:

neuro

nerve

PTS: 1

The U.S. governmental agency charged with planning for natural and human-made disasters as well as preventing potential terror threats is the ____________________.

ANS:

Department of Homeland Security

Homeland Security

PTS: 1

In 1972, ____________________ was considered eradicated and routine vaccinations were discontinued.

ANS: smallpox

PTS: 1

The three forms of the plague are pneumonic, septicemic, and ____________________.

ANS: bubonic

PTS: 1

The most potent neurotoxins known are the neurotoxins produced by ____________________.

ANS:

Clostridium botulinum

botulinum

PTS: 1

MATCHING

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. Class A agents e. variola virus

b. Yersinia pestis f. botulinum toxin

c. anthrax g. VHF

d. agroterrorism h. tularemia

affects animals, food, and crops

CDC’s high-priority list

disease caused by a spore-forming bacterium

smallpox

plague

rabbit fever

neurotoxic

Ebola and Marburg

ANS: D PTS: 1

ANS: A PTS: 1

ANS: C PTS: 1

ANS: E PTS: 1

ANS: B PTS: 1

ANS: H PTS: 1

ANS: F PTS: 1

ANS: G PTS: 1

reemergence of cholera in 2010 and 2011

ANS: H PTS: 1

ANS: L PTS: 1

ANS: J PTS: 1

ANS: A PTS: 1

ANS: F PTS: 1

ANS: E PTS: 1

ANS: G PTS: 1

ANS: D PTS: 1

ANS: B PTS: 1

ANS: I PTS: 1

ANS: C PTS: 1

ANS: K PTS: 1

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