Burton’s Microbiology For the Health Sciences 9th edition by Paul G. Engelkirk – Test Bank A+

$35.00
Burton’s Microbiology For the Health Sciences 9th edition by Paul G. Engelkirk – Test Bank A+

Burton’s Microbiology For the Health Sciences 9th edition by Paul G. Engelkirk – Test Bank A+

$35.00
Burton’s Microbiology For the Health Sciences 9th edition by Paul G. Engelkirk – Test Bank A+

Which one of the following characteristics do
animals, fungi, and protozoa have in
common?
A) They obtain their carbon from carbon dioxide.
B) They obtain their carbon from inorganic
compounds.
C) They obtain their energy and carbon atoms
from chemicals.
D) They obtain their energy from light.
2. Most ATP molecules are produced during
which phase of aerobic respiration?
A) electron transport chain
B) fermentation
C) glycolysis
D) Krebs cycle
3. Which of the following processes does not
involve bacteriophages?
A) lysogenic conversion
B) lytic cycle
C) transduction
D) transformation
4. In transduction, bacteria acquire new genetic
information in the form of:
A) bacterial genes.
B) naked DNA.
C) R-factors.
D) viral genes.
5. The process whereby naked DNA is absorbed
into a bacterial cell is known as:
A) transcription.
B) transduction.
C) transformation.
D) translation.
6. In lysogenic conversion, bacteria acquire new
genetic information in the form of:
A) bacterial genes.
B) naked DNA.
C) R-factors.
D) viral genes.
7.
Saprophytic fungi are able to digest organic
molecules outside of the organism by means
of:
A) apoenzymes.
B) coenzymes.
C) endoenzymes.
D) exoenzymes.
8.
The process by which a nontoxigenic
Corynebacterium diphtheriae cell is changed
into a toxigenic cell is called:
A) conjugation.
B) lysogenic conversion.
C) transduction.
D) transformation.
9. Which of the following does (do) not occur in
anaerobes?
A) anabolic reactions
B) catabolic reactions
C) electron transport chain
D) fermentation reactions
10. Proteins that must link up with a cofactor to
function as an enzyme are called:

1.
Which of the following terms best describes
chlamydial genital infection in the United
States?
A) arthropodborne disease
B) epidemic disease
C) pandemic disease
D) sporadic disease
2. Which of the following are considered
reservoirs of infection?
A) carriers
B) contaminated food and drinking water
C) rabid animals
D) all of the above
3. The most common nationally notifiable
infectious disease in the United States is:
A) chlamydial genital infections.
B) gonorrhea.
C) the common cold.
D) tuberculosis.
4. Which of the following arthropods is the
vector of Lyme disease?
A) flea
B) mite
C) mosquito
D) tick
5. The most common zoonotic disease in the
United States is:
A) Lyme disease.
B) plague.
C) rabies.
D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
6.
Which one of the following organisms in not
one of the four most likely potential biologic
warfare or bioterrorism agents?
A) Bacillus anthracis
B) Ebola virus
C) Variola major
D) Yersinia pestis
7.
All of the following are major steps in the
treatment of a community’s drinking water
except:
A) boiling.
B) filtration.
C) flocculation.
D) sedimentation.
8.
The largest waterborne epidemic ever to
occur in the United States occurred in which
of the following cities?
A) Chicago
B) Los Angeles
C) Milwaukee
D) New York City
9. Typhoid fever is caused by a species of:
A) Campylobacter.
B) Escherichia.
C) Salmonella.
D) Shigella.
10. Which of the following associations is
incorrect?
A) ehrlichiosis…tick
B) malaria…mosquito
C) plague…flea
D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever…mite
Use the following to answer questions 11-15:
Match the following items with the correct phrases.
a. communicable diseases
b. endemic diseases
c. epidemic diseases
d. pandemic diseases
e. sporadic diseases
11.
Diseases that are always present in a
population are known as
____________________.
12.
Diseases that are transmissible from person to
person are known as
____________________.
13.
Diseases that occur only occasionally in a
particular population are known as
____________________.
14.
Because large numbers of cases of AIDS,
malaria, and tuberculosis are presently
occurring in many different countries, they
are known as ____________________.
15.
Diseases with unusually high numbers of
cases that often occur in one particular
geographic location are known as
____________________.
Use the following to answer questions 16-20:
Match the following items with the correct phrases.
a. biting flies
b. bugs
c. lice
d. mosquitoes
e. ticks
16.
The causative agents of dengue fever,
filariasis, malaria, West Nile encephalitis, and
yellow fever are all transmitted by
____________________.
17.
____________________ transmit the
causative agents of babesiosis, ehrlichiosis,
Lyme disease, relapsing fever, and Rocky
Mountain spotted fever.
18.
The causative agent of American
trypanosomiasis (Chagas’s disease) is
transmitted by arthropods in a class of insects
known as ____________________.
19.
____________________ transmit the
causative agents of epidemic typhus and
trench fever.
20.
African sleeping sickness, leishmaniasis, and
onchocerciasis are transmitted by various
types of ____________________.
21. Influenza is an example of a contagious
disease.
A) True
B) False
22. Zoonotic diseases are diseases that humans
acquire from zoo animals.
A) True
B) False
22. Zoonotic diseases are diseases that humans
acquire from zoo animals.
A) True
B) False
23.
The largest waterborne outbreak ever to occur
in the United States was caused by Giardia
lamblia.
A) True
B) False
24. Water containing 1 coliform per 100 mL
would be considered potable.
A) True
B) False
25.
The most common zoonotic infection in the
United States is Rocky Mountain spotted
fever.
A) True
B) False
26. Soil can contain the spores that cause
botulism, gas gangrene, and tetanus.
A) True
B) False
27.
Chlamydial genital infections and gonorrhea
are the two most common nationally
notifiable infectious diseases in the United
States.
A) True
B) False
28.
The levels of chlorine routinely used for water
treatment are sufficient to kill Giardia cysts
and Cryptosporidium oocysts.
A) True
B) False
29.
Yersinia pestis, the bacterium that causes
plague, is one of the pathogens most often
discussed as a potential biologic weapon.
A) True
B) False
30.
Gonorrhea is considered to be a
communicable disease, but not a contagious
disease.
A) True
B) False
Use the following to answer questions 31-33:
Match the following items with the correct phrases.
a. endemic disease
b. epidemic disease
c. pandemic disease
d. sporadic disease
31. Several dozen people having nausea and
diarrhea several hours after a church picnic.
32. A disease that occurs only every once in a
while in a particular geographic region.
33. A disease that is always present in a particular
geographical region.
Use the following to answer questions 34-37:
Match the following items with the correct phrases.
a. Cryptosporidium parvum
b. Ebola virus
c. Escherichia coli O157:H7
d. Hantavirus
e. Legionella pneumophila
34. The cause of an epidemic associated with
hamburgers and a popular fast food chain.
35. The cause of the epidemic that occurred in the
four corners area of the United States in 1993.
36. The cause of the epidemic that occurred in
Philadelphia in 1976.
37. The cause of the epidemic that occurred in
Milwaukee in 1993.
Use the following to answer questions 38-43:
Match the following items with the correct phrases.
a. body louse
b. “crab” louse
c. flea
d. mite
e. tick
38.
An arachnid ectoparasite; one species causes
human scabies; larval forms of some species
are referred to as “chiggers.”
39. An insect ectoparasite; the vector of plague.
40. An arachnid ectoparasite; the vector of Rocky
Mountain spotted fever.
41.
Pediculus humanus var. corporus; an
infestation with these insects is known as
pediculosis; in the trenches in World War I,
these were known as “cooties.”
42. An insect called Phthirus pubis.
43. An arachnid ectoparasite; the vector of Lyme
disease.
Answer Key
1. B
2. D
3. A
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. A
8. C
9. C
10. D
11. b
12. a
13. e
14. d
15. c
16. d
17. e
18. b
19. c
20. a
21. A
22. B
23. B
24. A
25. B
26. A
27. A
28. B
29. A
20. a
21. A
22. B
23. B
24. A
25. B
26. A
27. A
28. B
29. A
30. A
31. b
32. d
33. a
34. c
35. d
36. e
37. a
38. d
39. c
40. e
41. a
42. b
43. e
A) apoenzymes.
B) coenzymes.
C) endoenzymes.
D) holoenzymes.
Use the following to answer questions 11-15:
Match the following items with the correct phrases.
a. autotrophs
b. heterotrophs
c. lithotrophs
d. organotrophs
e. phototrophs
11. _______________ are chemotrophs that use
inorganic chemicals as their energy source.
12.
Organisms that use organic compounds as
their source of carbon are called
____________________.
13.
Organisms that use organic compounds as
their energy source are called
____________________.
14.
Organisms that use carbon dioxide as their
source of carbon are called
____________________.
15. Organisms that use light as their energy
source are called ____________________.
Use the following to answer questions 16-20:
Match the following items with the correct phrases.
a. conjugation
b. lysogenic conversion
c. mutation
d. transduction
e. transformation
16.
In ____________________, bacteria acquire
new genetic information in the form of viral
genes.
17.
Oswald Avery and his colleagues discovered
that DNA is the hereditary molecule while
performing ____________________
experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae.
18.
In ____________________, bacteria acquire
new genetic information as a result of
absorbing pieces of naked DNA from their
environment.
19.
In ____________________, genetic
information is passed from one bacterial cell
to another via a hollow sex pilus.
20.
In ____________________, bacteria acquire
new genetic information when bacteriophages
inject bacterial genes.
21. Dehydration synthesis reactions always
involve the removal of a molecule of water.
A) True
B) False
22.
The biosynthesis of polysaccharides,
polypeptides, and nucleic acids are examples
of catabolic reactions.
A) True
B) False
23. Oxidation–reduction reactions are paired
reactions that involve the transfer of electrons.
A) True
B) False
24.
Breaking a disaccharide down into its two
monosaccharide components is an example of
a hydrolysis reaction.
A) True
B) False
25. Anabolic reactions are a cell’s major source of
energy.
A) True
B) False
26.
The majority of the energy produced in
aerobic respiration is produced by the Krebs
cycle.
A) True
B) False
27.
In glycolysis, a 6-carbon glucose molecule is
broken down into two 3-carbon molecules of
pyruvic acid.
A) True
B) False
28.
Aerobic respiration is a more efficient method
of breaking down glucose than is
fermentation.
A) True
B) False
29. Virulent bacteriophages are responsible for
lysogenic conversion.
A) True
B) False
29. Virulent bacteriophages are responsible for
lysogenic conversion.
A) True
B) False
30. Mutations are always harmful.
A) True
B) False
Use the following to answer questions 31-35:
Match the following items with the correct phrases.
a. conjugation
b. transduction
c. transformation
d. transcription
e. lysogenic conversion
31. Transfer of bacterial genes from one bacterial
cell to another by a bacteriophage.
A) True
B) False
32. Transfer of genetic material from a donor cell
to a recipient cell through a sex pilus.
A) True
B) False
33.
The process by which a nontoxigenic
Corynebacterium diphtheriae cell becomes a
toxigenic cell.
A) True
B) False
34. Occurs only in bacterial cells described as
being “competent.”
A) True
B) False
34. Occurs only in bacterial cells described as
being “competent.”
A) True
B) False
35. Acquisition of new genetic material by the
uptake of naked DNA.
A) True
B) False
Use the following to answer questions 36-42:
Match the following items with the correct phrases.
a. catabolic reactions
b. anabolic reactions
c. oxidation-reduction reactions
d. aerobic respiration
e. fermentation
36. Paired reactions that involve the transfer of
electrons.
A) True
B) False
37.
Biochemical pathway involving glycolysis
and the production of ethyl alcohol, lactic
acid, or other products from pyruvic acid; no
Krebs cycle or electron transport chain
involved; does not require oxygen.
A) True
B) False
38.
Used to build complex organic compounds
from simpler compounds; also known as
biosynthetic reactions; chemical bonds are
created; energy is required.
A) True
B) False
39.
Biochemical pathway involving glycolysis,
the Krebs cycle, and the electron transport
chain.
A) True
B) False
40.
Used to break complex organic compounds
into simpler compounds; also known as
degradative reactions; chemical bonds are
broken; energy is released.
A) True
B) False
41. Which produces more energy: “d” or “e”?
A) True
B) False
42. Cannot take place in an obligate anaerobe.
A) True
B) False
1. Otitis media is an inflammation or infection
of the:
A) ear.
B) eye.
C) brain.
D) urinary bladder.
2. Keratitis is an inflammation or infection of
the:
A) conjunctiva.
B) cornea.
C) kidney.
D) skin.
3. Which of the following is/are the most
common cause of pharyngitis?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) viruses
4. Which of the following is the most common
cause of tooth decay?
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Streptococcus agalactiae
C) Streptococcus mutans
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
5. An infection of the urinary bladder is known
as:
A) cystitis.
B) pyelonephritis.
C) ureteritis.
D) urethritis.
6. The most common cause of cystitis is:
A) Candida albicans.
B) Escherichia coli.
C) Staphylococcus epidermidis.
D) Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
6. The most common cause of cystitis is:
A) Candida albicans.
B) Escherichia coli.
C) Staphylococcus epidermidis.
D) Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
7. The most common cause of urethritis is:
A) Chlamydia trachomatis.
B) Escherichia coli.
C) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
D) Staphylococcus aureus.
8. Which of the following terms means swollen
lymph glands?
A) lymphadenitis
B) lymphadenopathy
C) lymphangitis
D) lymphitis
9. Inflammation or infection of the brain is
called:
A) encephalitis.
B) meningitis.
C) myelitis.
D) otitis externa.
10. Which of the following is not one of the three
most common causes of bacterial meningitis?
A) Escherichia coli
B) Haemophilus influenzae
C) Neisseria meningitidis
D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
Use the following to answer questions 11-15:
Match the following items with the correct phrases.
A) Encephalitis
B) Myelitis
C) Nephritis
D) Orchitis
E) Pharyngitis
11. Testes
12. Throat
13. Brain
14. Kidney
15. Spinal cord
16. All infectious diseases are caused by
microbes.
A) True
B) False
17. “Carbuncle” and “boil” are synonyms.
A) True
B) False
18.
The most common causes of sinusitis are
Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus
pyogenes.
A) True
B) False
19. Most sore throats are caused by Streptococcus
pyogenes.
A) True
B) False
20. “Bacteremia” and “septicemia” are synonyms.
A) True
B) False
21. The most common cause of cystitis is
Escherichia coli.
A) True
B) False
22. The most common cause of urethritis is
Chlamydia trachomatis.
A) True
B) False
23.
The yeast Candida albicans is one of the
three most common causes of vaginitis in the
United States.
A) True
B) False
24. Streptococcus pneumoniae is one of the three
major causes of bacterial meningitis.
A) True
B) False
25. Meningitis could be caused by a virus, a
bacterium, a fungus, or a protozoan.
A) True
B) False
Answer Key

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