HDEV 4 4Th Ed By Rathus – Test Bank A+

$35.00
HDEV 4 4Th Ed By Rathus – Test Bank A+

HDEV 4 4Th Ed By Rathus – Test Bank A+

$35.00
HDEV 4 4Th Ed By Rathus – Test Bank A+

ANSWER: True

2. An infant is born in the third stage of childbirth.​

a.True
b.False

ANSWER: False

3. The strongest predictor of whether a practitioner will choose to use episiotomy is the condition of the mother and baby.​

a.True
b.False

ANSWER: False

4. ​General anesthesia strengthens uterine contractions and increases the responsiveness of the neonate shortly after birth

a.True
b.False

ANSWER: False

5. With a pudenal block, anesthesia is injected into the spinal cord, temporarily numbing the body below the waist.​

a.True
b.False

ANSWER: False

6. The Lamaze method has been shown to reduce fear and pain during childbirth.​

a.True
b.False

ANSWER: True

7. Oxygen deprivation during delivery is associated with an increased incidence of childhood schizophrenia.​

a.True
b.False

ANSWER: True

8. Preterm infants who are cuddled, rocked, talked to, and sung to tend to do better than those preterm infants who are left alone.​

a.True
b.False

ANSWER: True

9. When a baby is low in birth weight, even though it is born at full term, it is referred to as being small for gestational age.​

a.True
b.False

ANSWER: True

10. Postpartum depression, a serious maternal depression following delivery, is characterized by sadness, apathy, and feelings of worthlessness.​

a.True
b.False

ANSWER: True

11. Women who experience postpartum depression can benefit from social support and counseling.​

a.True
b.False

ANSWER: True

12. It is critical that parents have contact with their infants in the first few hours after birth if attachment is to occur.​

a.True
b.False

ANSWER: False

13. ​The Apgar scale is a measure used to assess the health of the mother after she has given birth.

a.True
b.False

ANSWER: False

14. Newborns spend about half their sleep time in REM sleep.​

a.True
b.False

ANSWER: True

15. Sudden infant death syndrome refers to the death, while sleeping, of apparently healthy babies who stop breathing.​

a.True
b.False

ANSWER: True

Multiple Choice

16. Which of the following events occurs early in the last month of pregnancy?​

a.​The settling of the fetus’s head in the pelvis
b.​The appearance of blood in vaginal secretions
c.​The secretion of the hormone oxytocin
d.​The discharge of placenta through the birth canal

ANSWER: a

17. ​Which of the following statements is true of the Braxton-Hicks contractions?

a.They may be experienced as early as the sixth month of pregnancy.
b.​They decrease in frequency as pregnancy progresses.
c.​They stimulate the uterus and placenta to secrete prostaglandins.
d.​They dilate the cervix to allow the baby to pass during delivery.

ANSWER: a

18. Oxytocin, which stimulates contractions powerful enough to expel the baby, is released from the:​

a.​cervix.
b. pituitary gland.​
c.​ pineal gland.
d.​ medulla.

ANSWER: b

19. ​Which of the following events signals the beginning of childbirth?

a.​The emergence of baby from the birth canal
b.​The rush of warm liquid from the vagina
c.​The movement of the fetus into the vagina
d.​The occurrence of regular uterine contractions

ANSWER: d

20. ​Who among the following women is in the first stage of labor?

a.​Nita, whose baby has been delivered and taken away for vaccinations
b.​Agnes, whose uterine contractions occur every fifteen minutes
c.​Julia, whose baby has appeared at the opening of her vagina
d.​Miriam, whose umbilical cord has been clamped and severed

ANSWER: b

21. Which of the following events occurs in the second stage of labor?​

a.​The uterine contractions stretch the skin surrounding the birth canal and propel the baby along.
b.The placenta and uterus secrete prostaglandins which stimulate uterine contractions.​
c.​The placenta separates from the uterine wall and is expelled through the birth canal.
d.​The blood vessels in the birth canal rupture leading to the appearance of blood in vaginal secretions.

ANSWER: a

22. Which of the following is a disadvantage of performing an episiotomy?​

a.​It reduces the responsiveness of the baby shortly after birth.
b.​The incision may cause itching and discomfort as it heals.
c.​It leads to the transmission of viruses that cause genital herpes and AIDS.
d.​The incision may rupture during a subsequent vaginal delivery.

ANSWER: b

23. ​During labor, mucus is suctioned from the baby’s mouth in order to:

a.​resuscitate the baby back to consciousness.
b.​increase the baby’s heartbeat.
c.​prevent any infection that might affect the baby.
d.​clear the passageway for breathing from any obstructions.

ANSWER: d

24. _____ refers to the typical 9-month period from conception to childbirth.​

a.​Preterm
b.​Postpartum period
c.​Term
d.​Critical period

ANSWER: c

25. A newborn baby is given a Vitamin K injection to:​

a.​prevent bacterial infections.
b.​regulate its heart rate and pulse
c.​help its blood clot properly if it bleeds.
d.​prevent any involuntary bowel movement.

ANSWER: c

26. A(n) _____ refers to an infant from birth through the first four weeks of life.​

a.​embryo
b.​fetus
c.​neonate
d.​toddler

ANSWER: c

27. Maya is in labor and decides to use a local anesthetic to manage her labor pain. Her obstetrician injects an anesthetic into her vagina, and she loses the sensation around that area. Which of the following uses of local anesthesia is employed in this scenario?​

a.​An epidural block
b.​A pudendal block
c.​A spinal block
d.​A femoral nerve block

ANSWER: b

28. Which of the following is a similarity between an epidural block and a spinal block employed during delivery?​

a.​Both temporarily numb the mother’s body below the waist.
b.​Both produce depressing effects on infants that last for a long time.
c.​Both use general anesthetics to achieve the anesthetic effect.
d.​Both reduce the chances of infection during delivery.

ANSWER: a

29. The use of the Lamaze method during labor results in:​

a.​the rupturing of previous surgical incisions on the mother’s body.
b.​the reduced levels of labor pain and medication.
c.​the numbing of the mother’s body below the waist.
d.​the reduced responsiveness of the baby shortly after birth.

ANSWER: b

30. One of the reasons for performing a cesarean section for delivery is to:​

a.avoid the use of an anesthesia.
b.​reduce the use of medication during labor.
c.​enable women to control the time of the delivery.
d.​prevent any involuntary bowel movement.

ANSWER: c

31. Which of the following terms refers to the absence of oxygen?​

a.​Hypoxia
b.​Hypoxemia
c.​Toxemia
d.​Anoxia

ANSWER: d

32. ​Prolonged cutoff of the baby’s oxygen supply during delivery can cause:

a.​Turner syndrome
b.​autism
c.​Down syndrome
d.​cerebral palsy

ANSWER: d

33. Which of the following terms refers to buttocks-first childbirth?​

a.​Premature birth
b.​Breech presentation
c.​Prepared childbirth
d.​Normal delivery

ANSWER: b

34. During a breech presentation, the prolonged constriction of the umbilical cord may occur as:​

a.​the tiny air sacs in the baby’s lungs stick together without expanding.
b.​the umbilical cord dries and falls off on its own.
c.​the baby’s body presses the umbilical cord against the birth canal.
d.the baby does not receive enough oxygen in utero to develop properly.​

ANSWER: c

35. Which of the following statements is true of small-for-gestational-age babies?​

a.​They remain taller than their age-mates.
b.​They are more attentive as compared with their age-mates.
c.​They show slight delays in learning as compared with their age-mates.
d.​They tend to be heavier than their age-mates.

ANSWER: c

36. Which of the following disorders refers to the weak and irregular breathing that is typical of preterm babies?​

a.​Respiratory distress syndrome
b.​Down syndrome
c.​Turner syndrome
d.​Asperger’s syndrome

ANSWER: a

37. In the context of the relation between parents and preterm infants, which of the following statements is true?​

a.​The demands of preterm babies are lesser than those of full-term babies.
b.​Most mothers of preterm babies report feeling closer and attached to their babies.
c.​Fear of hurting preterm babies discourages parents from handling them.
d.​Parents often treat preterm babies better than they treat full-term babies.

ANSWER: c

38. Which of the following statements is true of the kangaroo care given to preterm infants?​

a.​It stimulates infants and improves their physical and mental health.
b.​It requires infants to be provided with a steady supply of oxygen.
c.​It intensifies mothers’ feelings of incompetence and guilt.
d.​It places infants in a temperature-controlled environment.

ANSWER: a

39. ​According to the American Psychiatric Association, which of the following refers to the periods of tearfulness, sadness, and irritability experienced by mothers following delivery?

a.​Baby blues
b.​Postpartum psychosis
c.​Generalized anxiety
d.Anorexia

ANSWER: a

40. Which of the following scenarios describes a mother suffering from postpartum depression?​

a.Kate feels that her room is full of poisonous snakes trying to kill her child.​
b.​Rebecca feels hopeless and insignificant after delivering twins.
c.​Angelina feels that a stranger is instructing her to kill her child.
d.​Meera feels that her infant daughter is possessed by the devil.

ANSWER: b

41. Which of the following is a similarity between postpartum depression and postpartum anxiety?​

a.​Both produce delusional thoughts about the infant in the mothers’ mind.
b.​Both are characterized by command hallucinations that are dangerous to mothers and infants.
c.​Both are caused by high levels of estrogen in the mother’s body.
d.​Both are characterized by an obsessive concern for the well-being of infants.

ANSWER: d

42. ​Postpartum depression is caused due to:

a.​a sudden drop in estrogen levels.
b.​a decrease in metabolism levels.
c.​the lack of bonding between parents and infants.
d.​the use of anesthetics during delivery.

ANSWER: a

43. Which of the following is a symptom of postpartum psychosis in women?​

a.​Delusional thoughts about the infant
b.​Reduced heart rate and blood pressure
c.​An increase in sexual arousal
d.​An obsessive concern with the well-being of babies

ANSWER: a

44. ​Mothers with _____ experience command hallucinations.

a.​postpartum anxiety
b.​postpartum psychosis
c.​postpartum depression
d.​postpartum blues

ANSWER: b

45. Which of the following statements is true of women who experience postpartum depression?​

a.​They profit from social support and counseling.
b.​They experience command hallucinations.
c.​They neglect their infant’s needs and requirements.
d.​They develop delusional thoughts about the infant.

ANSWER: a

46. Which of the following observations on parent-infant bonding was made in the controversial research led by Klaus and Kennell?​

a.​Extended parent–infant contact is required during the first hours postpartum in order to foster bonding.
b.​Parent-infant bonding is a simple process involving just the desire to have a child.
c.​Serious maternal depression can delay bonding with newborns.
d.​A history of rejection by parents can interfere with women’s bonding with their own children.

ANSWER: a

47. Which of the following statements is true about the bonding between parents and their newborn children?​

a.​The postpartum depression experienced by mothers delays the development of parent-infant bonding.
b.​The extended early contact between parents and infants is crucial in the development of parent-infant bonding.
c.​The parents of many adopted children fail to develop a deep bond with them.
d.​The parent-infant bonding is a simple process which involves just the desire to have a child.

ANSWER: a

48. ​Which of the following is a measure of a newborn’s health that assesses appearance, pulse, grimace, activity level, and respiratory effort?

a.​The Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment scale
b.​The Wechsler scale
c.​The Binet-Simon scale
d.​The Apgar scale

ANSWER: d

49. Which of the following features of an infant is assessed using the Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale?​

a.​Adaptive behavior
b.​Activity level
c.​Muscle tone
d.​Heart beat

ANSWER: a

50. A(n) _____ is defined as an unlearned, stereotypical response to a stimulus.​

a.​reflex
b.​emotion
c.​intuition
d.mnemonic

ANSWER: a

51. In the Apgar scale, the criteria of grimace evaluates the _____ of infants.​

a.​muscle tone
b.reflex irritability​
c.​heart beat
d.​color

ANSWER: b

52. Which of the following is true of infantile reflexes?

a.They provide information about infants’ neural functioning.
b.They disappear within hours after birth.
c.They are produced by infants’ complex thought processes.
d.They are replaced by corresponding involuntary actions.

ANSWER: a

53. Which of the following scenarios describes the rooting reflex?​

a.​Jane curls her fingers around her mother’s fingers placed on her palm.
b.Abdul takes steps when his uncle holds him under the arm.​
c.​Nia turns her head to the left when her cousin touches her left cheek.
d.​Ruby flings her arms and draws them back when she is startled by the sound of a car horn.

ANSWER: c

54. In which of the following reflexes does the baby arch the back, fling out the arms and legs, and draw them back to the chest in response to a sudden noise or change in position?​

a.​The rooting reflex
b.​The Moro reflex
c.​The grasping reflex
d.​The Babinski reflex

ANSWER: b

55. In the palmar reflex, the child:​

a.​turns the mouth and head toward a stimulus that stokes the cheek or the corner of the mouth.
b.​fans the toes when the soles of the feet are stroked.
c.​grasps objects that are kept on his or her palms.
d.​takes steps when held under the arms and leans forward so that the feet press the ground.

ANSWER: c

56. ​Which of the following statements is true of the palmar reflex observed in infants?

a.​It is replaced by voluntary grasping within five to six months of age.
b.​It facilitates finding the mother’s nipple in preparation for sucking.
c.​It begins three months after the birth of the baby.
d.​It can be elicited by loud noises and sudden movements.

ANSWER: a

57. Which of the following is a similarity between the rooting reflex and the grasping reflex observed in infants?​

a.​Both can be elicited by loud noises, bumping the baby’s crib or jerking the baby’s blanket.
b.​Both are replaced by corresponding voluntary actions as the infant grows up.
c.​Both facilitate finding the mother’s nipple in preparation for sucking.
d.​Both require infants to use only four fingers to respond to the stimuli.

ANSWER: b

58. ​Which of the following visual capabilities do neonates lack?

a.​The ability to track movement
b.​The ability to see objects that are about five inches from their eyes
c.​The ability to adjust the lens to focus on objects
d.​The ability to respond actively to visual stimuli

ANSWER: c

59. _____ solutions have a calming effect on neonates.​

a.​Sweet
b.​Bitter
c.​Salty
d.​Sour

ANSWER: a

60. In which of the following methods of learning are neonates’ involuntary responses conditioned to new stimuli?​

a.​Classical conditioning
b.​Social learning
c.​Observational learning
d.​Operant conditioning

ANSWER: a

61. Which of the following statements is true of infant sleep patterns?​

a.​They are characterized by stretches of sleep lasting up to seven hours.
b.They are similar to the sleep patterns in adults.​
c.​They are uniform in infants across the world.
d.​They are inconsistent and change as the child ages.

ANSWER: d

62. Daria, a three-week-old infant, is resting quietly in her crib. Her eyes are open and she breathes regularly. She also looks around but shows little body movement. In this scenario, Daria is in the state of _____.​

a.​quiet sleep
b.alert inactivity​
c.​drowsiness
d.​active sleep

ANSWER: b

63. ​Which of the following statements is true of infants’ cries?

a.​Their patterns are different from infant to infant.
b.​They usually take a long time to be understood by parents.
c.​Their pitch and duration are uniform across babies.
d.​They are mainly related to the experience of pain.

ANSWER: d

64. In the context of soothing infants, which of the following statements is true?​

a.One needs to hold infants continuously so that they do not get distressed.​
b.​Infants need to be left alone and will soothe themselves.
c.​Infants can be soothed by speaking to them in low voices or offering a pacifier.
d.​Soothing requirements are the same for every infant.

ANSWER: c

65. Which of the following parts of the brain has been found to be affected in children with sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?​

a.​The cerebellum
b.​The medulla
c.The thalamus​
d.​The hypothalamus

ANSWER: b

Completion

66. During labor, the placenta and uterus secrete _________, which excite the muscles of the uterus to have contractions.​

A. triglycerides

B. phospholipids

C. serotonins

D. prostaglandins

ANSWER: prostaglandins​

67. During labor, _________ is said to have taken place when the baby’s head emerges from the birth canal.

A. transition

B. anoxia

C. crowning

D. hypoxia

ANSWER: crowning​

68. With a(n) _________, anesthesia is injected into the mother’s spinal canal, temporarily numbing the body below the waist.

A. pineal block

B. epidural block

C. pudendal block

D. medullary block

ANSWER: epidural​

69. _________ is the method that provides the woman in labor with continuous information as to what is happening with various bodily functions.

A. Hypnosis

B. Prepared childbirth

C. Natural childbirth

D. Biofeedback

ANSWER: Biofeedback​

70. Babies who are born weighing under _________ pounds are considered to be of low birth weight.

A. 7.5

B. 5.5

C. 6.5

D. 8.5

ANSWER: 5.5​

71. A(n) _________ is a heated, protective container for premature infants.

A. crib

B. incubator

C. bedpan

D. ventilator

ANSWER: incubator​

72. In the context of postpartum psychological problems faced by mothers, _________ is characterized by delusional thoughts about the infant that place the infant at risk of injury or death.

A. postpartum depression

B. postpartum anxiety

C. postpartum psychosis

D. postpartum blues

ANSWER: postpartum psychosis​

73. _________ is the formation of parent-infant attachment.

A. Bonding

B. Transition

C. Episiotomy

D. Convergence

ANSWER: Bonding​

74. ​_________ refers to pain resulting from gas or other sources of distress in the digestive tract in babies.

A. Thush

B. Colic

C. Anoxia

D. Hypoxia

ANSWER: colic

75. _________ is the chemical in the body that has a role in the development of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS).

A. Serotonin

B. Adrenalin

C. Dopamine

D. Testosterone

ANSWER: Serotonin​

Essay

76. Briefly describe the three stages of childbirth.​

ANSWER: The first stage of childbirth is the longest stage. During this stage, uterine contractions efface and dilate the cervix, which needs to widen to about four inches (ten centimeters) to allow the baby to pass. The mother typically feels uterine contractions occurring more regularly throughout this stage. When the cervix is nearly fully dilated, the head of the fetus begins to move into the vagina, in a process called transition. The second stage of childbirth begins when the baby appears at the opening of the vagina. The baby’s head is said to have crowned when it begins to emerge from the birth canal. Once crowning has occurred, the baby normally emerges completely within minutes. The third stage of labor, also called the placental stage, lasts from minutes to an hour or more. During this stage, the placenta separates from the uterine wall and is expelled through the birth canal. Please see the section “The Stages of Childbirth” for more details.​

77. Describe the different methods of childbirth.​

ANSWER: Different methods of childbirth are:

a. Anesthesia – Two types of anesthetics are used to lessen the pain associated with childbirth. General anesthesia achieves its anesthetic effect by putting the woman to sleep by means of an injected barbiturate. Regional or local anesthetics deaden pain without putting the mother to sleep.

b. Hypnosis and Biofeedback – Hypnosis has been used with some success as an alternative to anesthesia during childbirth. Biofeedback is a method that provides the woman in labor with continuous information as to what is happening with various bodily functions. Muscle tension and blood pressure are among the functions that can be targeted.

c. Prepared childbirth – In the Lamaze method, or prepared childbirth, women engage in breathing and relaxation exercises that lessen fear and pain and distract them from discomfort. The mother-to-be attends Lamaze classes with a “coach”— most often, her partner—who will aid her in the delivery room by doing things such as massaging her, timing the contractions, offering social support, and coaching her in patterns of breathing and relaxation.

d. Cesarean sections – In a cesarean section (C-section), the physician delivers the baby by surgery. The physician cuts through the mother’s abdomen and uterus and physically removes the baby. Physicians prefer C-sections to vaginal delivery when they believe that normal delivery may threaten the mother or child or may be more difficult than desired.​

Please see the section “Methods of Childbirth” for more details.

78. Explain some of the risks faced by low-birth-weight babies.​

ANSWER: Low-birth-weight babies are those who weigh less than 5.5 pounds at birth. Neonates weighing between 3.25 and 5.5 pounds are seven times more likely to die than infants of normal birth weight, whereas those weighing less than 3.3 pounds are nearly 100 times as likely to die. By and large, the lower a child’s birth weight, the more poorly he or she fares on measures of neurological development and cognitive functioning throughout the school years. There are also risks for motor development. Please see the section “Birth Problems” for more details.​

79. Briefly describe how vision and hearing function at birth.​

ANSWER: Neonates can see, but they are nearsighted. They can best see objects that are about seven to nine inches from their eyes. They show little or no visual accommodation and lack the ability to converge their eyes on an object that is close to them. The degree to which neonates perceive color remains an open question. By four months, however, infants can see most, if not all, the colors of the visible spectrum.

Fetuses respond to sound months before they are born. Normal neonates hear well unless their middle ears are clogged with amniotic fluid. They have the capacity to respond to sounds of different amplitude and pitch. Please see the section “Characteristics of Neonates” for more details.

80. Do infant cries mean different things? Explain briefly.​

ANSWER: Infant cries mean many things. They may signal hunger, pain, anger, and the like. The pitch of an infant’s cries appears to provide information. Adults perceive high-pitched crying to be more urgent, distressing, and sick sounding than low-pitched crying. A sudden, loud, insistent cry associated with flexing and kicking of the legs may indicate colic, that is, pain resulting from gas or other sources of distress in the digestive tract. Certain high-pitched cries, when prolonged, may signify health problems. The cries of chronically distressed infants differ from those of nondistressed infants in both rhythm and pitch. Patterns of crying may be indicative of chromosomal abnormalities, infections, fetal malnutrition, and exposure to narcotics. Please see the section “Characteristics of Neonates” for more details.​
True / False

1. Piaget’s sensorimotor stage refers to the first four to six years of cognitive development in children.​

a.True
b.False

ANSWER: False

2. Secondary circular reactions focus on the infant’s own body rather than on the external environment.​

a.True
b.False

ANSWER: False

3. In secondary circular reactions, the focus shifts to objects and environmental events.​

a.True
b.False

ANSWER: True

4. Memory improves dramatically between five to ten years of age and then again by the age of 18.​

a.True
b.False

ANSWER: False

5. Infant memory can be improved if infants receive a reminder before their memory is tested.​

a.True
b.False

ANSWER: True

6. Mirror neurons are found only in humans.​

a.True
b.False

ANSWER: False

7. Mirror neurons in humans are connected with emotions.​

a.True
b.False

ANSWER: True

8. Mirror neurons are apparently connected with observational learning and, perhaps, with gender differences in empathy.​

a.True
b.False

ANSWER: True

9. Cognitive development proceeds in the same way and at the same pace for all infants.​

a.True
b.False

ANSWER: False

10. Screening infants does not detect early signs of sensory or neurological problems.​

a.True
b.False

ANSWER: False

11. The Bayley scales is the only test that has been developed to screen infants for sensory or neurological problems.​

a.True
b.False

ANSWER: False

12. By about eight months of age, cooing decreases markedly.​

a.True
b.False

ANSWER: True

13. The mean length of utterance (MLU) is the average number of morphemes that communicators use in their sentences.​

a.True
b.False

ANSWER: True

14. ​Syntax is the rules in a language for placing words in order to form sentences.

a.True
b.False

ANSWER: True

15. Extinction is the increase in frequency of a response due to absence of reinforcement.​

a.True
b.False

ANSWER: False

Multiple Choice

16. Which of the following is the focus of cognitive development?​

a.​How children perceive and mentally represent the world
b.​How children enter puberty and undergo physical changes
c.​How children deal with infectious diseases
d.​How children with developmental disorders behave

ANSWER: a

17. Lauren has learned what a fish looks like from a book. Her mother buys her a goldfish and a fishbowl. She then learns that fish swim in water. Lauren tries to incorporate this new event into her scheme of fish. In this context, Lauren is using _____.​

a.​accommodation
b.​assimilation
c.​differentiation
d.​augmentation

ANSWER: b

18. Latifa knows that kittens are animals. Her mother tells her that puppies are also animals. Latifa then modifies her existing scheme of animals to include puppies. In changing her scheme to incorporate the new information, Latifa is using _____.​

a.​assimilation
b.​augmentation
c.​differentiation
d.​accommodation

ANSWER: d

19. According to Piaget, children’s cognitive processes develop:​

a.​within a span of two months.
b.​in an orderly sequence of stages.
c.​only after the first year.
d.​in a haphazard manner.

ANSWER: b

20. Which of the following is an example of a simple reflex?​

a.​Reaching for an object
b.​Looking to see if one’s mother is near
c.​Searching for an object behind an obstacle
d.​Turning toward the source of a noise

ANSWER: d

21. According to the first substage of the sensorimotor stage, at birth, infants’ reflexes are:​

a.​absent.
b.​flexible.
c.​stereotypical.
d.​unique.

ANSWER: c

22. Which of the following represents a primary circular reaction?​

a.​Kala accidentally touches her nose with her thumb and then repeats it.
b.​Jose turns toward the sound of his mother’s voice.
c.​Lorenzo kicks his mobile over and over again because it makes it move.
d.​Megan pulls her blanket because it brings her teddy bear close enough to grab it.

ANSWER: a

23. Emma is a seven-month-old infant. She repeatedly shakes a rattle because it makes a noise she likes. This is an example of a _____.​

a.​simple reflex
b.​secondary circular reaction
c.​primary circular reaction
d.​tertiary circular reaction

ANSWER: b

24. Which of the following is a difference between primary and secondary circular reactions?​

a.​Primary circular reactions involve only reflexes, while secondary circular reactions involve only thoughts.
b.Primary circular reactions involve complex actions, while secondary circular reactions involve simple actions.​
c.​Primary circular reactions focus on an infant’s own body, while secondary circular reactions focus on the environment.
d.​Primary circular reactions are goal oriented, while secondary circular reactions are based on reflexes.

ANSWER: c

25. Which of the following substages of the sensorimotor stage involves infants showing goal-directed behavior?​

a.​Invention of new means through mental connections
b.​Coordination of secondary schemes
c.​Primary circular reactions
d.​Tertiary circular reactions

ANSWER: b
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