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Description

Describe how research on unconscious priming might be used to indicate that our responses to stimulation below the absolute threshold may sometimes involve top-down processing.

2.

You are the president of a corporation that owns several large department stores. A board member has a plan for preventing shoplifting: In each store, play musical soundtracks containing subliminal verbal messages such as “don’t steal” and “shoplifting is a crime.” Carefully discuss your reasons for supporting or rejecting this proposal to engage in subliminal persuasion.

3.	You have been asked to paint a picture that includes buildings, fields, a river, and a mountain. Describe how you would use at least four monocular cues to give your painting a sense of depth.

4.	Explain how research on size constancy, restored vision, and perceptual adaptation serves to support and/or refute John Locke’s emphasis on the importance of learning in perception.

5.	Explain why both top-down and bottom-up processing are emphasized by those who take a biopsychosocial approach to understanding pain and pain control.

6.	A friend believes that the five human senses—seeing, hearing, tasting, smelling, and feeling—are independent of one another and of our judgments of people and the world around us. Explain what is wrong with your friend’s belief.

7.	Last night one of your mother’s best friends had a car accident. Your mother feels guilty because three days ago she dreamt of such an accident but failed to warn her friend. How would you explain your mother’s experience? What advice would you give her?

Answer Key

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TB1 Chapter 06- Multiple Choice

1.	Normal visual sensation in the absence of complete visual perception is best illustrated by
	A)	prosopagnosia.
	B)	priming.
	C)	the difference threshold.
	D)	sensory adaptation.

2.	The process of detecting and encoding stimulus energies by the sensory receptors and the nervous system is called
	A)	priming.
	B)	sensory adaptation.
	C)	top-down processing.
	D)	sensation.

3.	Jake’s excellent peripheral vision enabled him to detect a brief flash of light far to his left, even though he couldn’t recognize what he had seen. His experience best illustrates
	A)	top-down processing.
	B)	prosopagnosia.
	C)	sensation.
	D)	priming.

4.	Perception is the process by which
	A)	stimulus energies are detected.
	B)	stimulus energies are transformed into neural activity.
	C)	sensory input is organized and interpreted.
	D)	nerve cells respond to specific features of a stimulus.

5.	Recognizing an odor as the familiar smell of apple blossoms is an example of
	A)	perception.
	B)	prosopagnosia.
	C)	sensory adaptation.
	D)	subliminal stimulation.

6.	Sensation is to ________ as perception is to ________.
	A)	encoding; detection
	B)	detection; interpretation
	C)	interpretation; organization
	D)	organization; accommodation

7.	Hearing a sequence of sounds of different pitches is to ________ as recognizing the sound sequence as a familiar melody is to ________.
	A)	absolute threshold; difference threshold
	B)	sensory adaptation; signal detection
	C)	signal detection; sensory adaptation
	D)	sensation; perception

8.	Bottom-up processing involves analysis that begins with the
	A)	hypothalamus.
	B)	sensory receptors.
	C)	cerebral cortex.
	D)	absolute threshold.

9.	Berdine has developed cataracts in both eyes, preventing her from being able to identify even her mother’s face. Berdine most clearly is deficient in
	A)	priming.
	B)	perceptual set.
	C)	bottom-up processing.
	D)	sensory adaptation.

10.	Information processing guided by higher-level mental processes is called
	A)	prosopagnosia.
	B)	signal detection.
	C)	top-down processing.
	D)	transduction.

11.	Patients who have negative expectations about the outcome of a surgical procedure may experience increased postoperative pain. This best illustrates the importance of
	A)	subliminal stimulation.
	B)	sensory adaptation.
	C)	difference thresholds.
	D)	top-down processing.

12.	Three steps that are basic to all sensory systems include the ________ of information to the brain.
	A)	adaptation, stimulation, and detection
	B)	receiving, transforming, and delivering
	C)	priming, tracking, and masking
	D)	signal detection, transduction, and sensory adaptation

13.	Which of the following represents the first of three steps basic to all sensory systems?
	A)	forming perceptual sets
	B)	delivering neural information to the brain
	C)	receiving sensory stimulation
	D)	transforming stimulus energies into neural impulses

14.	The process by which our sensory systems transform stimulus energies into neural impulses is called
	A)	priming.
	B)	sensory adaptation.
	C)	transduction.
	D)	signal detection.

15.	The conversion of a fresh coffee aroma into neural impulses by sensory receptor cells best illustrates
	A)	top-down processing.
	B)	transduction.
	C)	sensory adaptation.
	D)	priming.

16.	Pain receptors trigger neural impulses in response to a sprain or a burn. This illustrates
	A)	priming.
	B)	transduction.
	C)	subliminal stimulation.
	D)	sensory adaptation.

17.	The minimum amount of stimulation a person needs to detect a stimulus 50 percent of the time is called the
	A)	masking stimulus.
	B)	just noticeable difference.
	C)	perceptual set.
	D)	absolute threshold.

18.	Which early scientist and philosopher was the first to refer to our awareness of very faint stimuli as an indication of our absolute thresholds?
	A)	Anthony Greenwald
	B)	Gustav Fechner
	C)	Dennis Proffitt
	D)	Ernst Weber

19.	During a hearing test, many sounds were presented at such a low level of intensity that Mr. Antall could hardly detect them. These sounds were below Mr. Antall’s
	A)	perceptual set.
	B)	absolute threshold.
	C)	prosopagnosia.
	D)	difference threshold.

20.	If a partially deaf person’s hearing ability ________, his or her absolute threshold for sound ________.
	A)	improves; remains unchanged
	B)	worsens; decreases
	C)	worsens; remains unchanged
	D)	improves; decreases

21.	Which theory predicts when we will first notice a faint stimulus presented amid competing background stimulation?
	A)	place theory
	B)	frequency theory
	C)	signal detection theory
	D)	opponent-process theory

22.	Which theory emphasizes that personal expectations and motivations influence the level of that person’s absolute thresholds?
	A)	signal detection theory
	B)	frequency theory
	C)	opponent-process theory
	D)	place theory

23.	Which theory would suggest that watching a horror movie late at night could lower your absolute threshold for sound as you subsequently tried to fall asleep?
	A)	place theory
	B)	opponent-process theory
	C)	frequency theory
	D)	signal detection theory

24.	Lonely, anxious people at speed-dating events respond with a ________ threshold, and thus tend to be ________ in reaching out to potential dates.
	A)	low; unselective
	B)	high; unselective
	C)	low; overly selective
	D)	high; overly selective

25.	A subliminal message is one that is presented
	A)	below one’s absolute threshold for conscious awareness.
	B)	in a manner that is unconsciously persuasive.
	C)	with very soft background music.
	D)	repetitiously.

26.	Priming refers to the activation of certain
	A)	conscious motives.
	B)	difference thresholds.
	C)	nerve cells.
	D)	associations.

27.	In experiments, an image is quickly flashed and then replaced by a masking stimulus that inhibits conscious perception of the original image. In these experiments, the researchers are studying the effects of
	A)	sensory adaptation.
	B)	the just noticeable difference.
	C)	priming.
	D)	prosopagnosia.

28.	After a photo of a nude man or woman was flashed and immediately masked before being perceived, people’s attention was unconsciously drawn to images in a way that reflected their
	A)	perceptual set.
	B)	absolute threshold.
	C)	sexual orientation.
	D)	difference threshold.

29.	Tyler formed a positive first impression of a new teacher because her facial expressions triggered memories of his favorite aunt. This best illustrates the impact of
	A)	priming.
	B)	prosopagnosia.
	C)	sensory adaptation.
	D)	Weber’s law.

30.	People’s response to subliminal priming indicates that
	A)	they are capable of processing information without any conscious awareness of doing so.
	B)	their unconscious mind is incapable of resisting subliminally presented suggestions.
	C)	they are more sensitive to subliminal sounds than to subliminal sights.
	D)	they experience a sense of discomfort whenever they are exposed to subliminal stimuli.

31.	Subliminally presented stimuli
	A)	can sometimes be consciously perceived.
	B)	effectively influence purchases of consumer goods.
	C)	increase our absolute thresholds for visual images.
	D)	are usually mentally processed as completely as any other stimuli.

32.	Which of the following strategies best illustrates the use of subliminal stimulation?
	A)	A store plays a musical soundtrack in which a faint and imperceptible verbal warning against shoplifting is repeated frequently.
	B)	The laughter of a studio audience is dubbed into the soundtrack of a televised situation comedy.
	C)	A radio advertiser repeatedly smacks her lips before biting into a candy bar.
	D)	An unseen television narrator repeatedly suggests that you are thirsty while a cold drink is visually displayed on the screen.

33.	Experiments evaluating the impact of subliminal messages for improving memory indicated that they
	A)	interfere with people’s capacity for sensory adaptation.
	B)	did not help more than a placebo.
	C)	improve people’s capacity for transduction.
	D)	have a positive long-lasting impact on people’s health.

34.	The minimum difference between two stimuli required for detection 50 percent of the time is called
	A)	signal detection.
	B)	the absolute threshold.
	C)	perceptual set.
	D)	the just noticeable difference.

35.	Jennifer can tune her guitar more effectively than Maria because Jennifer is better at detecting whether specific strings are playing too sharp or too flat. With respect to tone sensitivity, Maria apparently has a ________ threshold than does Jennifer.
	A)	lower absolute
	B)	higher absolute
	C)	smaller difference
	D)	larger difference

36.	The principle that two stimuli must differ by a constant minimum proportion for their difference to be perceived is known as
	A)	prosopagnosia.
	B)	Weber’s law.
	C)	signal detection.
	D)	sensory adaptation.

37.	Giulio’s bag of marbles is twice as heavy as Jim’s. If it takes 5 extra marbles to make Jim’s bag feel heavier, it will take 10 extra marbles to make Giulio’s bag feel heavier. This best illustrates
	A)	bottom-up processing.
	B)	perceptual set.
	C)	sensory adaptation.
	D)	Weber’s law.

38.	Sensory adaptation refers to
	A)	the process by which stimulus energies are changed into neural impulses.
	B)	diminished sensitivity to an unchanging stimulus.
	C)	the process of organizing and interpreting sensory information.
	D)	the effect of our expectations on perception.

39.	After listening to your high-volume car stereo for 15 minutes, you fail to realize how loudly the music is blasting. This best illustrates
	A)	Weber’s law.
	B)	subliminal stimulation.
	C)	sensory adaptation.
	D)	prosopagnosia.

40.	The constant quivering movements of our eyes enable us to
	A)	focus the light on the back of our eyes.
	B)	adjust the amount of light entering our eyes.
	C)	minimize sensory adaptation.
	D)	do all of these things.

41.	After gazing at an angry face, you immediately turn to look at a morphed blend of an angry and a scared face. The face appears scared to you. This best illustrates the impact of
	A)	Weber’s law.
	B)	sensory adaptation.
	C)	subliminal sensation.
	D)	prosopagnosia.

42.	A perceptual set refers to
	A)	an unnoticed image that activates certain associated memories.
	B)	an inability to recognize familiar faces or voices.
	C)	a diminished sensitivity to an unchanging stimulus.
	D)	a mental predisposition that influences what we perceive.

43.	After learning that her new college roommate had experienced several depressive episodes during her high school years, Erin incorrectly perceived her roommate’s laughter as artificial and phony. This best illustrates the impact of
	A)	difference thresholds.
	B)	perceptual set.
	C)	subliminal persuasion.
	D)	prosopagnosia.

44.	When researchers added a few drops of vinegar to a brand-name beer, the beer tasters disliked it only if they had been told they were drinking vinegar-laced beer. This best illustrates the impact of
	A)	sensory adaptation.
	B)	prosopagnosia.
	C)	perceptual set.
	D)	subliminal stimulation.

45.	After hearing rumors about the outbreak of an infectious disease, Alyosha began to perceive his normal aches and pains as disease-related symptoms. His reaction best illustrates the impact of
	A)	difference thresholds.
	B)	sensory adaptation.
	C)	subliminal stimulation.
	D)	perceptual set.

46.	The tendency to perceive a moving light in the night sky as belonging to an airplane rather than a meteor best illustrates the impact of
	A)	signal detection.
	B)	sensory adaptation.
	C)	perceptual set.
	D)	bottom-up processing.

47.	A concept that helps us to interpret ambiguous sensations is called a
	A)	sensory adaptation.
	B)	schema.
	C)	signal detector.
	D)	masking stimulus.

48.	The influence of schemas on our interpretations of unfamiliar information best illustrates
	A)	context effects.
	B)	top-down processing.
	C)	bottom-up processing.
	D)	sensory adaptation.

49.	Stereotypes are mental conceptions that can strongly influence the way we interpret the behaviors of individuals belonging to specific racial or ethnic groups. A stereotype is most similar to a
	A)	signal detector.
	B)	sensory adaptation.
	C)	perceptual set.
	D)	difference threshold.

50.	Visual perceptions of objects often change when the objects are viewed in different surroundings. This best illustrates
	A)	prosopagnosia.
	B)	Weber’s law.
	C)	context effects.
	D)	subliminal stimulation.

51.	In one study, a pictured woman was perceived by some as balancing a box on her head and by others as sitting under a window. The study best illustrated that perceptions are influenced by
	A)	sensory adaptation.
	B)	masking stimuli.
	C)	context effects.
	D)	subliminal sensation.

52.	Although Sue Yen sees her chemistry professor several times a week, she didn’t recognize the professor when she saw her in the grocery store. This best illustrates the importance of
	A)	bottom-up processing.
	B)	context effects.
	C)	priming.
	D)	sensory adaptation.

53.	When Rick learned that many students had received a failing grade on the midterm exam, he was no longer disappointed by his C grade. His experience best illustrates the importance of
	A)	sensory adaptation.
	B)	subliminal sensation.
	C)	context effects.
	D)	masking stimuli.

54.	While listening to sad rather than happy music, people are more likely to perceive a spoken word as mourning rather than morning. This best illustrates that perception is influenced by
	A)	sensory adaptation.
	B)	subliminal stimuli.
	C)	Weber’s law.
	D)	top-down processing.

55.	Scary-sounding music accompanied a movie scene in which mountain climbers scaled a steep slope. The fact that the music made the climbing appear more dangerous to viewers illustrates that perceptions are influenced by
	A)	emotion.
	B)	sensory adaptation.
	C)	prosopagnosia.
	D)	subliminal stimulation.

56.	A softball may appear smaller to batters who are discouraged by their poor performance than to batters who are hitting well. This best illustrates that perceptions are influenced by
	A)	Weber’s law.
	B)	emotion.
	C)	sensory adaptation.
	D)	absolute thresholds.

57.	To those throwing a very heavy rather than a light object at a target, the target is likely to be perceived as
	A)	softer.
	B)	slower moving.
	C)	larger.
	D)	farther away.

58.	We may perceive a bottle of fruit juice as less expensive when we are most thirsty. This best illustrates that perceptions are influenced by
	A)	subliminal stimulation.
	B)	masking stimuli.
	C)	sensory adaptation.
	D)	motivation.

59.	Humans experience the longest visible electromagnetic waves as the color ________ and the shortest visible waves as ________.
	A)	blue-violet; red
	B)	red; green
	C)	red; blue-violet
	D)	black; white

60.	The wavelength of visible light determines its
	A)	relative luminance.
	B)	amplitude.
	C)	difference threshold.
	D)	hue.

61.	The perceived brightness of visible light waves is determined by their
	A)	relative motion.
	B)	difference threshold.
	C)	amplitude.
	D)	frequency.

62.	Brightness is to intensity as hue is to
	A)	amplitude.
	B)	color.
	C)	pitch.
	D)	wavelength.

63.	For her birthday, Amy received flowers that had a dull red appearance. Compared with the entire range of visible light waves, the flowers reflected relatively ________ frequency and ________ amplitude light waves.
	A)	high; small
	B)	high; great
	C)	low; small
	D)	low; great

64.	Light first enters the eye through the front surface structure known as the
	A)	fovea.
	B)	pupil.
	C)	cornea.
	D)	retina.

65.	The pupil is the
	A)	adjustable opening in the center of the eye through which light enters.
	B)	transparent structure that focuses light rays in a process called accommodation.
	C)	light-sensitive inner surface of the eye, containing both rods and cones.
	D)	central focal point in the retina, around which the eye’s cones cluster.

66.	The amount of light entering the eye is regulated by the
	A)	iris.
	B)	retina.
	C)	optic nerve.
	D)	feature detectors.

67.	Which process allows more light to reach the retina?
	A)	accommodation of the lens
	B)	transduction of the blind spot
	C)	dilation of the pupil
	D)	perceptual adaptation of feature detectors

68.	The colored muscle that constricts when you feel disgust or enter a dark room is the
	A)	cornea.
	B)	iris.
	C)	retina.
	D)	fovea.

69.	Paul is feeling romantic toward his wife. She is most likely to detect his interest in her by changes in the appearance of his eyes caused by
	A)	accommodation of the lens.
	B)	dilation of the pupils.
	C)	increased retinal disparity.
	D)	disappearance of the blind spot.

70.	Objects are brought into focus on the retina by changes in the curve and thickness of the
	A)	rods and cones.
	B)	lens.
	C)	bipolar cells.
	D)	optic nerve.

71.	Accommodation refers to the
	A)	diminishing sensitivity to an unchanging stimulus.
	B)	quivering eye movements that enable the retina to detect continuous stimulation.
	C)	process by which stimulus energies are changed into neural messages.
	D)	process by which the lens changes shape to focus images on the retina.

72.	Which of the following is the correct order in which the retina’s neural layers process visual stimulation?
	A)	ganglion cells, rods and cones, bipolar cells
	B)	rods and cones, ganglion cells, bipolar cells
	C)	bipolar cells, ganglion cells, rods and cones
	D)	rods and cones, bipolar cells, ganglion cells

73.	Which cells for visual processing are located closest to the back of the retina?
	A)	ganglion cells
	B)	bipolar cells
	C)	rods and cones
	D)	feature detectors

74.	Neural impulses are transmitted to bipolar cells when light energy enters the eye and triggers ________ in the rods and cones.
	A)	top-down processing
	B)	constriction
	C)	accommodation
	D)	chemical changes

75.	The axons of ganglion cells converge to form
	A)	the lens.
	B)	bipolar cells.
	C)	the cornea.
	D)	the optic nerve.

76.	The blind spot is located in the area of the retina
	A)	called the fovea.
	B)	that contains rods but no cones.
	C)	where the optic nerve leaves the eye.
	D)	where bipolar cells connect with ganglion cells.

77.	The fovea refers to
	A)	the outer protective surface of the eye.
	B)	a colored muscle that adjusts light intake.
	C)	an area of the thalamus that receives information from the optic nerve.
	D)	the central focal point in the retina.

78.	Objects to your ________ would be most likely to fall into your right eye’s blind spot because the blind spot is located on the side of each retina that is ________ to the nose.
	A)	right; closest
	B)	left; closest
	C)	right; farthest
	D)	left; farthest

79.	The direct link between a single cone and a single ________ preserves the fine details in the cone’s message.
	A)	rod
	B)	ganglion cell
	C)	blind spot
	D)	bipolar cell

80.	Which receptor cells most directly enable us to distinguish different wavelengths of light?
	A)	rods
	B)	cones
	C)	bipolar cells
	D)	feature detectors

81.	Rods are
	A)	more light-sensitive and more color-sensitive than are cones.
	B)	less light-sensitive and less color-sensitive than are cones.
	C)	more light-sensitive and less color-sensitive than are cones.
	D)	less light-sensitive and more color-sensitive than are cones.

82.	Damage to the fovea would probably have the LEAST effect on visual sensitivity to ________ stimuli.
	A)	brilliantly colored
	B)	finely detailed
	C)	dimly illuminated
	D)	highly familiar

83.	When a power outage shut off the lights in her house late one night, Shelly could see very little. But within 20 minutes she could see quite well in the dark due to
	A)	visual afterimages.
	B)	retinal disparity.
	C)	pupil dilation.
	D)	color constancy.

84.	The encoding and analysis of visual information begin within the neural layers of the
	A)	lens.
	B)	optic nerve.
	C)	retina.
	D)	thalamus.

85.	When we are exposed to the narrow band of wavelengths visible to the human eye, we see a red object as red because it rejects waves of
	A)	blue-violet light.
	B)	red light.
	C)	green light.
	D)	yellow light.

86.	A genetically sex-linked characteristic accounts for the greater incidence of
	A)	retinal disparity among females than among males.
	B)	visual afterimages among males than among females.
	C)	accommodation among females than among males.
	D)	color-deficient vision among males than among females.

87.	Who first hypothesized that the eye must have three different types of color receptors, with each especially sensitive to one of the three primary colors?
	A)	Eleanor Gibson and Richard Walk
	B)	David Hubel and Torsten Weisel
	C)	Thomas Young and Hermann von Helmholtz
	D)	John Locke and William Molyneux

88.	Evidence that some cones are especially sensitive to red light, others to green light, and still others to blue light is most directly supportive of
	A)	place theory.
	B)	the Young-Helmholtz theory.
	C)	Kant’s theory.
	D)	the opponent-process theory.

89.	According to the Young-Helmholtz theory, when both red-sensitive and green-sensitive cones are stimulated simultaneously, a person should see
	A)	red.
	B)	yellow.
	C)	blue.
	D)	green.

90.	Who first proposed the opponent-process theory of color vision?
	A)	Isaac Newton
	B)	Ewald Hering
	C)	Adelbert Ames
	D)	Herman von Helmholtz

91.	Ewald Hering found a clue to the mystery of color vision in
	A)	blindsight.
	B)	afterimages.
	C)	retinal disparity.
	D)	the Moon illusion.

92.	When most people stare first at a blue circle and then shift their eyes to a white surface, the afterimage of the circle appears
	A)	yellow.
	B)	red.
	C)	green.
	D)	blue.

93.	People with color-deficient vision for red and green may still see yellow. This is most easily explained by
	A)	the Young-Helmholtz theory.
	B)	Locke’s theory.
	C)	frequency theory.
	D)	the opponent-process theory.

94.	Opponent-process cells have been located in the
	A)	retina and the thalamus.
	B)	cornea and the lens.
	C)	lens and the retina.
	D)	thalamus and the hypothalamus.

95.	According to the opponent-process theory, cells that are turned “on” by
	A)	green light are turned “off” by blue light.
	B)	yellow light are turned “off” by red light.
	C)	green light are turned “off” by red light.
	D)	red light are turned “off” by blue light.

96.	The processing of color begins with the activation of ________, followed by the activation of ________.
	A)	opponent-process cells; cells sensitive to one of the three colors red, yellow, or blue
	B)	cells sensitive to one of the three colors red, yellow, or blue; opponent-process cells
	C)	opponent-process cells; cells sensitive to one of the three colors red, green, or blue
	D)	cells sensitive to one of the three colors red, green, or blue; opponent-process cells

97.	Visual information is processed by
	A)	feature detectors before it is processed by rods and cones.
	B)	ganglion cells before it is processed by feature detectors.
	C)	bipolar cells before it is processed by rods and cones.
	D)	feature detectors before it is processed by bipolar cells.

98.	The feature detectors identified by Hubel and Wiesel consist of
	A)	nerve cells in the brain.
	B)	rods and cones.
	C)	bipolar cells.
	D)	ganglion cells.

99.	The feature detectors identified by Hubel and Wiesel respond to specific aspects of
	A)	a visual scene.
	B)	a musical recording.
	C)	pain sensations.
	D)	familiar odors.

100.	When we look at a clock showing 8 A.M., certain brain cells in our visual cortex are more responsive than when the hands show 10 A.M. This is most indicative of
	A)	retinal disparity.
	B)	feature detection.
	C)	perceptual adaptation.
	D)	accommodation.

101.	Teams of neurons in the temporal lobe enable us to identify a familiar chair by recognizing its unique visual patterns. These neural teams have been called
	A)	optic nerves.
	B)	ganglion cells.
	C)	supercell clusters.
	D)	bipolar cells.

102.	An area of the brain dedicated to the specialized task of recognizing faces is located in the right ________ lobe.
	A)	frontal
	B)	parietal
	C)	occipital
	D)	temporal

103.	Simultaneously analyzing distinct subunits of information received by different areas of the brain is known as
	A)	interposition.
	B)	perceptual adaptation.
	C)	parallel processing.
	D)	feature detection.

104.	The ability to simultaneously process the pitch, loudness, melody, and meaning of a song best illustrates
	A)	relative luminance.
	B)	accommodation.
	C)	perceptual adaptation.
	D)	parallel processing.

105.	The human ability to speedily recognize familiar objects best illustrates the value of
	A)	closure.
	B)	afterimages.
	C)	retinal disparity.
	D)	parallel processing.

106.	Certain stroke victims report seeing nothing when shown a series of sticks, yet they are able to correctly report whether the sticks are vertical or horizontal. This best illustrates
	A)	relative luminance.
	B)	retinal disparity.
	C)	accommodation.
	D)	blindsight.

107.	People who demonstrate blindsight have most likely suffered damage to their
	A)	cornea.
	B)	lens.
	C)	fovea.
	D)	visual cortex.

108.	Early in the twentieth century, a group of German psychologists noticed that people tend to organize a cluster of sensations into a(n)
	A)	parallel process.
	B)	monocular cue.
	C)	afterimage.
	D)	gestalt.

109.	A gestalt is best described as a(n)
	A)	binocular cue.
	B)	illusion.
	C)	organized whole.
	D)	linear perspective.

110.	Our shifting perceptions of a Necker cube best illustrate the importance of
	A)	blindsight.
	B)	retinal disparity.
	C)	perceptual adaptation.
	D)	top-down processing.

111.	The organizational rules identified by Gestalt psychologists illustrate that
	A)	perception is the same as sensation.
	B)	we learn to perceive the world through experience.
	C)	the perceived whole may exceed the sum of its parts.
	D)	sensation has no effect on perception.

112.	The perception of an object as distinct from its surroundings is called
	A)	linear perspective.
	B)	perceptual constancy.
	C)	figure-ground perception.
	D)	interposition.

113.	Visually perceiving words as distinct from the surrounding white paper on which they are printed best illustrates
	A)	retinal disparity.
	B)	figure-ground perception.
	C)	visual afterimage.
	D)	perceptual adaptation.

114.	As the airplane descended for a landing, the pilot saw several beautiful islands that appeared to float in a vast expanse of blue ocean water. In this instance, the ocean is a
	A)	figure.
	B)	binocular cue.
	C)	ground.
	D)	perceptual adaptation.

115.	Figure is to ground as ________ is to ________.
	A)	form; substance
	B)	looking up; looking down
	C)	sensation; perception
	D)	a white cloud; blue sky

116.	The perceptual tendency to group together stimuli that are near each other is called
	A)	interposition.
	B)	perceptual constancy.
	C)	proximity.
	D)	closure.

117.	Carmella, Jorge, and Gail were all sitting behind the same bowling lane, so Ruth perceived that they were all members of the same bowling team. This best illustrates the organizational principle of
	A)	proximity.
	B)	interposition.
	C)	closure.
	D)	continuity.

118.	The principles of continuity and closure best illustrate that
	A)	sensations are organized into meaningful patterns.
	B)	perception is the direct product of sensation.
	C)	cultural experiences shape perception.
	D)	visual information is especially likely to capture our attention.

119.	The perception of the letter “t” as two intersecting lines rather than as four nonintersecting lines illustrates the principle of
	A)	linear perspective.
	B)	proximity.
	C)	closure.
	D)	continuity.

120.	The perceptual tendency to fill in gaps in order to perceive disconnected parts as a whole object is called
	A)	interposition.
	B)	closure.
	C)	continuity.
	D)	proximity.

121.	Although a few keys on the piano were broken, Shana mentally filled in the missing notes of the familiar melodies. This best illustrates the principle of
	A)	proximity.
	B)	closure.
	C)	blindsight.
	D)	interposition.

122.	When hearing the words “eel is on the wagon,” you would likely perceive the first word as “wheel.” Given “eel is on the orange,” you would likely perceive the first word as “peel.” This context effect best illustrates the organizational principle of
	A)	proximity.
	B)	interposition.
	C)	closure.
	D)	accommodation.

123.	The ability to see objects in three dimensions is most essential for making judgments of
	A)	continuity.
	B)	distance.
	C)	relative luminance.
	D)	color constancy.

124.	When Kristy saw her mother and sister running toward her, she quickly recognized that her sister was running ahead of her mother. This best illustrates Kristy’s capacity for
	A)	retinal disparity.
	B)	closure.
	C)	depth perception.
	D)	relative luminance.

125.	The visual cliff is a laboratory device for testing ________ in infants.
	A)	size constancy
	B)	accommodation
	C)	depth perception
	D)	perceptual adaptation

126.	Caroline wonders whether her 10-month-old daughter can perceive depth well enough to avoid crawling over the edge of a tall platform in her church auditorium. Researchers could safely assess her daughter’s perceptual ability using
	A)	a visual afterimage.
	B)	a Necker cube.
	C)	a visual cliff.
	D)	the Moon illusion.

127.	Infants who were exposed to the visual cliff
	A)	tried to climb up the cliff if their mother was at the top.
	B)	gave no evidence that they could perceive depth.
	C)	refused to cross the glass over the cliff to their mothers.
	D)	eagerly crossed to their mothers by means of the “bridge” provided.

128.	Retinal disparity is an important cue for
	A)	perceiving color.
	B)	shape constancy.
	C)	perceiving distance.
	D)	brightness constancy.

129.	Retinal disparity refers to the
	A)	tendency to see parallel lines as coming together in the distance.
	B)	tendency to see stimuli that are near each other as parts of a unified object.
	C)	somewhat different images our two eyes receive of the same object.
	D)	inability to distinguish figure from ground.

130.	Holding two index fingers in front of the eyes can create the perception of a floating finger sausage. This best illustrates the effect of
	A)	relative height.
	B)	retinal disparity.
	C)	interposition.
	D)	relative luminance.

131.	John has more difficulty hitting baseballs that are pitched to him than his classmates do because he was born blind in his right eye. His difficulty can best be attributed to his lack of the depth cue known as
	A)	proximity.
	B)	interposition.
	C)	retinal disparity.
	D)	linear perspective.

132.	Indicators of distance such as interposition and linear perspective are
	A)	visual cliffs.
	B)	feature detectors.
	C)	monocular cues.
	D)	cataracts.

133.	Relative height is a cue involving our perception of objects higher in our field of vision as
	A)	brighter.
	B)	farther away.
	C)	hazier.
	D)	smaller.

134.	If you stared at a house to you walked down a street, the trees in front of the house would appear to be moving
	A)	in the opposite direction to you, and the trees behind the house would appear to be moving in the opposite direction as you.
	B)	in the same direction as you, and the trees behind the house would appear to be moving in the opposite direction to you.
	C)	in the same direction as you, and the trees behind the house would appear to be moving in the same direction as you.
	D)	in the opposite direction to you, and the trees behind the house would appear to be moving in the same direction as you.

135.	If two objects are assumed to be the same size, the object that casts the smaller retinal image is perceived to be
	A)	moving faster.
	B)	less hazy.
	C)	more distant.
	D)	closer.

136.	As the farmer looked across her field, the parallel rows of young corn plants appeared to converge in the distance. This provided her with a distance cue known as
	A)	proximity.
	B)	linear perspective.
	C)	closure.
	D)	continuity.

137.	The monocular depth cue in which an object blocking another object is perceived as closer is
	A)	interposition.
	B)	relative height.
	C)	continuity.
	D)	linear perspective.

138.	Which of the following is a cue used by artists to convey depth on a flat canvas?
	A)	proximity
	B)	continuity
	C)	interposition
	D)	closure

139.	Our assumption that light typically comes from above us contributes most directly to the importance of ________ as a monocular cue for depth perception.
	A)	interposition
	B)	retinal disparity
	C)	light and shadow
	D)	linear perspective

140.	Perceiving objects as unchanging even as illumination and retinal images change is known as
	A)	interposition.
	B)	blindsight.
	C)	perceptual constancy.
	D)	parallel processing.

141.	Our capacity for perceptual constancy even as illumination and retinal image change illustrates the importance of
	A)	difference thresholds.
	B)	proximity.
	C)	top-down processing.
	D)	blindsight.

142.	Color constancy refers to the fact that
	A)	light waves reflected by an object remain constant despite changes in lighting.
	B)	objects are perceived to be the same color even if the light they reflect changes.
	C)	the perceived color of an object has a constant relation to its brightness.
	D)	the frequency of light waves is directly proportional to the light’s wavelength.

143.	To experience color constancy, we should view things
	A)	from very short distances.
	B)	for long periods of time.
	C)	under low levels of illumination.
	D)	in relation to surrounding objects.

144.	Jody’s horse looks just as black in the brilliant sunlight as it does in the dim light of the stable. This illustrates what is known as
	A)	interposition.
	B)	accommodation.
	C)	brightness constancy.
	D)	continuity.

145.	Brightness constancy is most clearly facilitated by
	A)	proximity.
	B)	interposition.
	C)	relative luminance.
	D)	retinal disparity.

146.	The amount of light reflected by an object relative to the amount reflected by surrounding objects is called
	A)	continuity.
	B)	interposition.
	C)	retinal disparity.
	D)	relative luminance.

147.	Although college textbooks frequently cast a trapezoidal image on the retina, students typically perceive the books as rectangular objects. This illustrates the importance of
	A)	size constancy.
	B)	linear perspective.
	C)	shape constancy.
	D)	binocular cues.

148.	As the retinal image of a horse galloping toward you becomes larger, it is unlikely that the horse will appear to grow larger. This best illustrates the importance of
	A)	relative luminance.
	B)	size constancy.
	C)	closure.
	D)	relative motion.

149.	The perceived size of an object is most strongly influenced by that object’s perceived
	A)	shape.
	B)	color.
	C)	distance.
	D)	motion.

150.	If two objects cast retinal images of the same size, the object that appears to be closer is perceived as ________ the object that appears to be more distant.
	A)	overlapping
	B)	smaller than
	C)	larger than
	D)	the same size as

151.	Because she mistakenly thought she was much closer to the mountain than she actually was, Fiona perceived the mountain to be ________ than it actually was.
	A)	higher
	B)	smaller
	C)	more richly colorful
	D)	larger

152.	When the Moon is near the horizon, it appears larger than when it is high in the sky. This effect is primarily a result of
	A)	the slightly dimmer appearance of the horizon Moon.
	B)	the scattering of the horizon Moon’s light waves, which penetrate the atmosphere at an angle.
	C)	monocular distance cues, which make the horizon Moon seem farther away.
	D)	the brighter appearance of the horizon Moon.

153.	Knowing about the effects of the perceived distance of objects on their perceived size helps us to understand
	A)	the Moon illusion.
	B)	blindsight.
	C)	shape constancy.
	D)	relative luminance.

154.	The tendency to hear the steady drip of a leaky sink faucet as if it were a repeating rhythm of two or more beats best illustrates
	A)	interposition.
	B)	perceptual organization.
	C)	relative luminance.
	D)	perceptual adaptation.

155.	Who emphasized that perceptual understanding comes from inborn ways of organizing sensory experience?
	A)	Immanuel Kant
	B)	Aristotle
	C)	John Locke
	D)	Sigmund Freud

156.	The ability of newborn infants to perceive depth best serves to support the views of
	A)	John Locke.
	B)	Immanuel Kant.
	C)	Sigmund Freud.
	D)	Aristotle.

157.	The philosopher John Locke believed that people
	A)	learn to perceive the world through experience.
	B)	are endowed at birth with perceptual skills.
	C)	perceive whole figures as greater than the sum of their parts.
	D)	are unable to adapt to an inverted visual world.

158.	John Locke is to Immanuel Kant as ________ is to ________.
	A)	figure; ground
	B)	perception; sensation
	C)	nurture; nature
	D)	experience; learning

159.	Lenore had been blind from birth. Immediately after corrective eye surgery, she could visually perceive figure-ground relationships. This fact would serve to support the position advanced by
	A)	Immanuel Kant.
	B)	Thomas Young.
	C)	Ewald Hering.
	D)	John Locke.

160.	If an adult who was blind from birth gains the ability to see, that person would have the greatest difficulty visually distinguishing
	A)	ice cubes from golf balls.
	B)	the Sun from the Moon.
	C)	red from green.
	D)	a white cloud from the blue sky.

161.	A clouding of the lens of the eye is called a
	A)	blind spot.
	B)	cataract.
	C)	visual cliff.
	D)	gestalt.

162.	Rebecca was born with cataracts that were not surgically removed until she was 3 years old. As a result, Rebecca is most likely to
	A)	have lost visual receptor cells in her eyes.
	B)	be unable to perceive figure-ground relationships.
	C)	have inadequate neural connections in her visual cortex.
	D)	be unable to sense colors.

163.	Sensory restriction is much more likely to hinder visual development in early infancy than during other times of life. This suggests that there is a(n) ________ for normal visual development.
	A)	difference threshold
	B)	accommodation
	C)	critical period
	D)	blind spot

164.	The ability to adjust to changed sensory input is called
	A)	retinal disparity.
	B)	accommodation.
	C)	perceptual adaptation.
	D)	shape constancy.

165.	Research with distorting goggles best supports the view of human perception advanced by
	A)	John Locke.
	B)	Hermann von Helmholtz.
	C)	Immanuel Kant.
	D)	Ewald Hering.

166.	Although he was wearing a pair of glasses that shifted the apparent location of objects 20 degrees to his right, after a short practice time Lars was still able to play tennis very effectively. This best illustrates the value of
	A)	relative luminance.
	B)	shape constancy.
	C)	retinal disparity.
	D)	perceptual adaptation.

167.	Our sense of hearing is known as
	A)	the vestibular sense.
	B)	kinesthesia.
	C)	audition.
	D)	tinnitus.

168.	The process of transforming air pressure waves into neural messages that the brain interprets as meaningful sound is known as
	A)	sensory interaction.
	B)	the vestibular sense.
	C)	kinesthesia.
	D)	audition.

169.	The loudness of sounds is determined by the ________ of sound waves.
	A)	length
	B)	telepathy
	C)	amplitude
	D)	frequency

170.	The high notes on a piano always produce ________ sound waves than the low notes.
	A)	greater-amplitude
	B)	smaller-amplitude
	C)	higher-frequency
	D)	lower-frequency

171.	High-frequency sound waves are to ________ as low-frequency sound waves are to ________.
	A)	a loud voice; a soft voice
	B)	a high-pitched voice; a low-pitched voice
	C)	a soft voice; a loud voice
	D)	a low-pitched voice; a high-pitched voice

172.	The absolute threshold for hearing is defined as zero
	A)	decibels.
	B)	amps.
	C)	ESPs.
	D)	hertz.

173.	An 80-decibel sound is ________ times more intense than a 60-decibel sound.
	A)	2
	B)	10
	C)	20
	D)	100

174.	Eardrum vibrations are transmitted by three tiny bones located in the
	A)	vestibular sacs.
	B)	inner ear.
	C)	cochlea.
	D)	middle ear.

175.	The bones of the middle ear relay vibrations received from the
	A)	cochlea.
	B)	eardrum.
	C)	vestibular sacs.
	D)	semicircular canals.

176.	Eardrum vibrations are transmitted to the cochlea by a piston consisting of
	A)	protruding hair cells.
	B)	the basilar membrane.
	C)	the hammer, anvil, and stirrup.
	D)	vestibular sacs.

177.	The surface of the basilar membrane is lined with
	A)	hair cells.
	B)	olfactory receptors.
	C)	nociceptors.
	D)	decibels.

178.	The cochlea consists of
	A)	interconnected nerve fibers in the spinal cord.
	B)	a fluid-filled tube in the inner ear.
	C)	olfactory receptor cells at the top of each nasal cavity.
	D)	neural networks located within each temporal lobe.

179.	On the way to the temporal lobe’s auditory cortex, neural impulses from the auditory nerve are first relayed to the
	A)	thalamus.
	B)	amygdala.
	C)	hippocampus.
	D)	hypothalamus.

180.	Damage to the hair cells lining the basilar membrane is most likely to result in
	A)	phantom limb sensations.
	B)	conduction hearing loss.
	C)	loss of the sense of balance.
	D)	sensorineural hearing loss.

181.	As a rock musician who has experienced prolonged exposure to high-amplitude sounds, Rodney is beginning to lose his hearing. It is most likely that this hearing loss involves problems in the
	A)	auditory canal.
	B)	eardrum.
	C)	tiny bones of the middle ear.
	D)	cochlea.

182.	Joe Wilson, age 55, has been told by experts that he has conduction hearing loss. It is likely that Joe’s hearing loss involves problems in the
	A)	inner ear.
	B)	middle ear.
	C)	auditory nerve.
	D)	basilar membrane.

183.	Damage to the hammer, anvil, and stirrup is most likely to cause
	A)	dissociation.
	B)	sensorineural hearing loss.
	C)	phantom limb sensations.
	D)	conduction hearing loss.

184.	Ringing of the ears after exposure to loud music is most likely to be caused by damage to
	A)	nociceptors.
	B)	hair cells.
	C)	cochlear implants.
	D)	bipolar cells.

185.	A cochlear implant converts sounds into
	A)	decibels.
	B)	electrical signals.
	C)	air pressure changes.
	D)	fluid vibrations.

186.	The greatest number of hair cells lining the basilar membrane are activated in response to ________ sound waves.
	A)	great-amplitude
	B)	small-amplitude
	C)	high-frequency
	D)	low-frequency

187.	Place theory suggests that
	A)	structures in the inner ear provide us with a sense of the position of our body in space.
	B)	we have a system for sensing the position and movement of the various parts of our body.
	C)	we can locate the place from which a sound is emitted because of the distance between our ears.
	D)	the pitch we hear is related to the place where the cochlea’s basilar membrane is stimulated.

188.	Place theory was first proposed by
	A)	Ronald Melzack.
	B)	Hermann von Helmholtz.
	C)	Ernst Hilgard.
	D)	Harry McGurk.

189.	After a small section of his basilar membrane was damaged, Jason experienced a noticeable loss of hearing for high-pitched sounds only. Jason’s hearing loss is best explained by the ________ theory.
	A)	gate-control
	B)	frequency
	C)	dissociation
	D)	place

190.	According to place theory, the perception of
	A)	low-pitched sounds is associated with large vibrations of the eardrum closest to the oval window.
	B)	high-pitched sounds is associated with large vibrations of the eardrum closest to the oval window.
	C)	low-pitched sounds is associated with large vibrations of the basilar membrane closest to the oval window.
	D)	high-pitched sounds is associated with large vibrations of the basilar membrane closest to the oval window.

191.	Which of the following best explains how we perceive very low-pitched sounds?
	A)	place theory
	B)	volley principle
	C)	frequency theory
	D)	dissociation theory

192.	Individual nerve cells increase the frequency of neural impulses in the auditory nerve by firing in rapid succession. This is said to illustrate
	A)	gate-control theory.
	B)	the McGurk effect.
	C)	the volley principle.
	D)	top-down processing.

193.	The volley principle is most directly relevant to our perception of
	A)	touch.
	B)	taste.
	C)	pain.
	D)	pitch.

194.	Some combination of place theory and frequency theory appears to be most necessary in accounting for how we sense
	A)	high-frequency sound waves.
	B)	intermediate-frequency sound waves.
	C)	low-frequency sound waves.
	D)	low-amplitude sound waves.

195.	A time lag between left and right auditory stimulation is important for accurately
	A)	locating sounds.
	B)	detecting pitch.
	C)	recognizing rhythms.
	D)	judging amplitude.

196.	Cocking your head would be most useful for detecting the ________ of a sound.
	A)	pitch
	B)	loudness
	C)	location
	D)	amplitude

197.	The barn owl’s right ear opens slightly upward, while its left ear opens slightly downward. This difference enables the owl to detect the ________ of a sound.
	A)	pitch
	B)	location
	C)	loudness
	D)	amplitude

198.	Infant rats deprived of their mothers’ grooming touch produce
	A)	less growth hormone and have a higher metabolic rate.
	B)	more growth hormone and have a lower metabolic rate.
	C)	less growth hormone and have a lower metabolic rate.
	D)	more growth hormone and have a higher metabolic rate.

199.	Premature human babies gain weight faster if they are stimulated by
	A)	blinking lights.
	B)	rhythmic sounds.
	C)	hand massage.
	D)	phantom limb sensations.

200.	The sense of touch includes the four basic sensations of
	A)	pleasure, pain, warmth, and cold.
	B)	pain, pressure, hot, and cold.
	C)	wetness, pain, hot, and cold.
	D)	pressure, pain, warmth, and cold.

201.	Stroking adjacent pressure spots is most likely to trigger a sense of
	A)	being tickled.
	B)	itchiness.
	C)	tinnitus.
	D)	synesthesia.

202.	A sensual leg caress evokes a different somatosensory cortex response when a heterosexual man believes it comes from an attractive woman rather than a man. This best illustrates the impact of ________ on our brain’s sensory response.
	A)	kinesthesia
	B)	nociceptors
	C)	psychokinesis
	D)	cognition

203.	Men’s sense of hearing tends to be ________ sensitive than women’s, and women are ________ pain sensitive than men.
	A)	more; more
	B)	less; less
	C)	more; less
	D)	less; more

204.	Sensory receptors in our skin that detect hurtful temperatures, pressure, or chemicals are called
	A)	vestibular sacs.
	B)	hair cells.
	C)	nociceptors.
	D)	olfactory nerves.

205.	In response to a harmful stimulus, ________ initiate neural impulses leading to the sensation of pain.
	A)	endorphins
	B)	nociceptors
	C)	olfactory bulbs
	D)	the semicircular canals

206.	Which theory suggests that large-fiber activity in the spinal cord can prevent pain signals from reaching the brain?
	A)	place theory
	B)	dissociation theory
	C)	gate-control theory
	D)	frequency theory

207.	The classic gate-control theory suggests that pain is experienced when small nerve fibers activate and open a neural gate in the
	A)	basilar membrane.
	B)	semicircular canals.
	C)	olfactory bulb.
	D)	spinal cord.

208.	According to the gate-control theory, a back massage would most likely reduce your physical aches and pains by causing the
	A)	release of painkilling endorphins in your muscles.
	B)	activation of large nerve fibers in your spinal cord.
	C)	the release of adrenaline into your bloodstream.
	D)	deactivation of the pain receptors on the surface of your skin.

209.	After losing his left hand in an accident, Jack continued to experience pain in his nonexistent hand. His experience illustrates
	A)	dissociation.
	B)	sensory adaptation.
	C)	phantom limb sensations.
	D)	the McGurk effect.

210.	The brain, responding to the absence of auditory stimulation, may amplify irrelevant neural activity to produce
	A)	tinnitus.
	B)	kinesthesia.
	C)	sensory interaction.
	D)	psychokinesis.

211.	After painful medical procedures, people’s memory snapshots tend to overlook
	A)	the final moments of pain associated with the procedure.
	B)	the peak moments of pain associated with the procedure.
	C)	the total duration of the pain associated with the procedure.
	D)	all of these periods of pain.

212.	Before eating their fifth and final piece of chocolate, experimental participants were told that it was their “next” piece or that it was their “last” piece. Those told that it was their “last” piece liked it ________ and rated the whole experiment as ________ enjoyable than those told it was their “next” piece.
	A)	less; less
	B)	better; less
	C)	less; more
	D)	better; more

213.	During the mid-1980s, pockets of Australian keyboard operators suffered outbreaks of severe pain while typing. Their pain could not be attributed to any discernible physical abnormalities. This best illustrates the role of ________ in the perception of pain.
	A)	phantom limb sensations
	B)	psychokinesis
	C)	social-cultural influences
	D)	dissociation

214.	An integrated understanding of pain control in terms of mental distraction, the release of endorphins, and the presence of empathic caregivers is most clearly provided by
	A)	parapsychology.
	B)	dissociation theory.
	C)	a biopsychosocial approach.
	D)	the volley principle.

215.	The biopsychosocial approach to pain is likely to emphasize the importance of both
	A)	top-down and bottom-up processing.
	B)	frequency and place theories.
	C)	kinesthesia and psychokinesis.
	D)	telepathy and clairvoyance.

216.	The brain’s release of endorphins reduces
	A)	pain.
	B)	tinnitus.
	C)	kinesthesia.
	D)	sensory interaction.

217.	After receiving a placebo said to reduce the pain of her sprained ankle, Suzie is most likely to respond with a(n) ________ in her brain’s release of ________,
	A)	decrease; nociceptors
	B)	decrease; endorphins
	C)	increase; nociceptors
	D)	increase; endorphins

218.	Stan continued playing with minimal pain during the closing quarter of an exciting collegiate football game even though he had suffered a severe ankle sprain when he was tackled. It is likely that Stan’s pain was psychologically minimized by ________ and physically minimized by the brain’s release of ________.
	A)	synesthesia; nociceptors
	B)	distraction; endorphins
	C)	synesthesia; endorphins
	D)	distraction; nociceptors

219.	For burn victims, a computer-generated virtual reality can help to control pain by means of
	A)	synesthesia.
	B)	thought distraction.
	C)	phantom limb sensations.
	D)	kinesthesia.

220.	Hypnosis involves a state of
	A)	increased physical stamina.
	B)	heightened openness to suggestion.
	C)	improved perceptual skills.
	D)	elevated physical arousal.

221.	Research on susceptibility to hypnosis indicates that
	A)	very few people can actually be hypnotized.
	B)	people who are most easily hypnotized usually have difficulty paying attention to their own personal thoughts and feelings.
	C)	how well a person responds to hypnotic suggestion depends primarily on the skill and experience of the hypnotist.
	D)	people who are highly responsive to hypnotic induction are especially imaginative.

222.	In surgical experiments, hypnotized patients have required ________ medication and they have recovered ________ than patients in unhypnotized control groups.
	A)	less; sooner
	B)	more; later
	C)	less; no sooner
	D)	more; no sooner

223.	One theory suggests that hypnosis simply involves getting caught up in role-playing the feelings and behaviors appropriate for “good hypnotic subjects.” This theory emphasizes that hypnosis is a form of
	A)	dissociation.
	B)	synesthesia.
	C)	social influence.
	D)	phantom limb sensation.

224.	Suppose that unhypnotized adults who are encouraged to behave like children act just as genuinely childlike as hypnotized adults who are encouraged to act in a childlike manner. This fact would most clearly support the view that hypnosis involves
	A)	precognition.
	B)	social influence.
	C)	psychokinesis.
	D)	dissociation.

225.	A split in consciousness in which some thoughts occur simultaneously with and yet separately from other thoughts is called
	A)	embodied cognition.
	B)	dissociation.
	C)	extrasensory perception.
	D)	posthypnotic suggestion.

226.	The claim that hypnotic phenomena occur outside our normal awareness is associated with the theory that hypnosis involves
	A)	phantom limb sensations.
	B)	dissociation.
	C)	synesthesia.
	D)	role playing.

227.	People hypnotized for pain relief may show brain activity in areas that receive sensory information but not in areas that normally process pain-related information. This fact most clearly supports
	A)	place theory.
	B)	the McGurk effect.
	C)	the volley principle.
	D)	dissociation theory.

228.	A posthypnotic suggestion is made ________ a hypnosis session and intended to be carried out in the future when the subject is ________.
	A)	after; once again hypnotized
	B)	during; once again hypnotized
	C)	after; no longer hypnotized
	D)	during; no longer hypnotized

229.	One plausible theory suggests that hypnotic pain relief may result from
	A)	selective attention.
	B)	stereophonic hearing.
	C)	extrasensory perception.
	D)	phantom limb sensations.

230.	Just prior to awakening Chinua from a hypnotic state, the therapist told him that during the next few days he would feel nauseated whenever he reached for a cigarette. Chinua’s therapist was attempting to make use of
	A)	the volley principle.
	B)	posthypnotic suggestion.
	C)	the McGurk effect.
	D)	phantom limb sensations.

231.	Our sense of taste was once thought to involve only the four sensations of
	A)	sweet, salty, starch, and bitter.
	B)	salty, fatty, bitter, and sweet.
	C)	sour, bitter, sweet, and starchy.
	D)	bitter, sweet, sour, and salty.

232.	The taste sensation umami is most likely to attract us to foods that are
	A)	sweet.
	B)	bitter.
	C)	starchy.
	D)	rich in protein.

233.	The sense of ________ is a chemical sense.
	A)	taste
	B)	kinesthesia
	C)	equilibrium
	D)	pain

234.	Sensory receptor cells that project antenna-like hairs are located within
	A)	the eardrum.
	B)	phantom limbs.
	C)	taste buds.
	D)	nociceptors.

235.	Receptor cells for our sense of ________ reproduce themselves every week or two.
	A)	body position
	B)	hearing
	C)	taste
	D)	equilibrium

236.	The same brand of chocolate truffles tasted better to Julia when she thought they cost $20 a pound than when she thought they cost half that much. This best illustrates the impact of
	A)	the volley principle.
	B)	top-down processing.
	C)	synesthesia.
	D)	precognition.

237.	The sense of smell is known as
	A)	telepathy.
	B)	the vestibular sense.
	C)	transduction.
	D)	olfaction.

238.	Which of the following senses is best described as a chemical sense?
	A)	kinesthesia
	B)	audition
	C)	equilibrium
	D)	smell

239.	Which of the following would play a role in quickly alerting you to a gas leak in your home?
	A)	nociceptors
	B)	olfactory receptors
	C)	vestibular sacs
	D)	the basilar membrane

240.	Messages from olfactory receptor cells are NOT relayed to the
	A)	limbic system.
	B)	thalamus.
	C)	temporal lobes.
	D)	olfactory bulb.

241.	The olfactory receptors are activated by
	A)	nociceptors.
	B)	phantom limb sensations.
	C)	airborne molecules.
	D)	the basilar membrane.

242.	Information from the taste buds travels to an area of the
	A)	frontal lobe.
	B)	parietal lobe.
	C)	occipital lobe.
	D)	temporal lobe.

243.	Pleasant memories are most likely to be evoked by exposure to
	A)	bright colors.
	B)	soft touches.
	C)	fragrant odors.
	D)	loud sounds.

244.	Our sense of the position and movement of individual body parts is called
	A)	the vestibular sense.
	B)	olfaction.
	C)	kinesthesia.
	D)	sensory interaction.

245.	Receptor cells for kinesthesia are located in the
	A)	temporal lobe.
	B)	tendons, joints, and muscles.
	C)	olfactory bulb.
	D)	auditory nerve.

246.	Sensing the position and movement of your pitching arm while throwing a fastball best illustrates
	A)	synesthesia.
	B)	kinesthesia.
	C)	psychokinesis.
	D)	the volley principle.

247.	The semicircular canals are most directly relevant to
	A)	hearing.
	B)	kinesthesia.
	C)	the vestibular sense.
	D)	dissociation.

248.	Which of the following play the biggest role in our feeling dizzy and unbalanced after a thrilling roller coaster ride?
	A)	olfactory receptors
	B)	nociceptors
	C)	basilar membranes
	D)	semicircular canals

249.	Tiny hair-like receptors that monitor the tilting of your head are located in the
	A)	temporal lobe.
	B)	tendons, joints, and muscles.
	C)	olfactory bulb.
	D)	vestibular sacs.

250.	During the months when there is a large amount of pollen in the air, your hay fever severely affects your sense of smell. At the same time, your food all seems to taste the same. This illustrates the importance of
	A)	sensory interaction.
	B)	kinesthesia.
	C)	tinnitus.
	D)	dissociation.

251.	The McGurk effect best illustrates
	A)	phantom limb sensations.
	B)	anosmia.
	C)	tinnitus.
	D)	sensory interaction.

252.	When sounds were accompanied by a puff of air on people’s neck or hands, they more often misheard airless sounds such as ba or da as pa or ta. This best illustrates
	A)	synesthesia.
	B)	psychokinesis.
	C)	sensory interaction.
	D)	kinesthesia.

253.	The influence of our physical gestures on our psychological preferences is said to be an indication of
	A)	embodied cognition.
	B)	dissociation.
	C)	psychokinesis.
	D)	phantom limb sensations.

254.	The interconnection of brain circuits that process sensory experiences with brain circuits responsible for abstract thinking contributes to what psychologists call
	A)	parapsychology.
	B)	embodied cognition.
	C)	precognition.
	D)	kinesthesia.

255.	After holding a warm drink rather than a cold one, people are more likely to rate others more warmly. This best illustrates
	A)	the McGurk effect.
	B)	psychokinesis.
	C)	synesthesia.
	D)	embodied cognition.

256.	When holding a soft ball, American students become more likely to categorize a face as a Democrat than as a Republican. This best illustrates
	A)	the McGurk effect.
	B)	embodied cognition.
	C)	synesthesia.
	D)	dissociation.

257.	If hikers perceive a hill as steeper when carrying heavy backpacks rather than light backpacks, this would best illustrate
	A)	embodied cognition.
	B)	synesthesia.
	C)	phantom limb sensations.
	D)	psychokinesis.

258.	When put in a foul-smelling rather than a pleasant-smelling room, members of a jury perceived immoral acts such as stealing as more disgusting. This best illustrates the importance of
	A)	dissociation.
	B)	the McGurk effect.
	C)	embodied cognition.
	D)	synesthesia.

259.	For some people, hearing certain sounds may activate color-sensitive regions of the cortex so as to trigger a sensation of color. This phenomenon is called
	A)	tinnitus.
	B)	telepathy.
	C)	synesthesia.
	D)	kinesthesia.

260.	Psychics’ suggestions that perception can occur apart from sensory input involve claims for the existence of
	A)	phantom limb sensations.
	B)	posthypnotic suggestion.
	C)	synesthesia.
	D)	ESP.

261.	Telepathy refers to the
	A)	extrasensory transmission of thoughts from one mind to another.
	B)	extrasensory perception of events that occur at places remote to the perceiver.
	C)	perception of future events, such as a person’s fate.
	D)	ability to understand and share the emotions of another person.

262.	Jamal claims that his special psychic powers enable him to perceive exactly where the body of a recent murder victim is secretly buried. Jamal is claiming to possess the power of
	A)	psychokinesis.
	B)	precognition.
	C)	telepathy.
	D)	clairvoyance.

263.	The extrasensory ability to perceive an automobile accident taking place in a distant location is to ________ as the extrasensory ability to know at any moment exactly what your best friend is thinking is to ________.
	A)	telepathy; precognition
	B)	precognition; psychokinesis
	C)	psychokinesis; clairvoyance
	D)	clairvoyance; telepathy

264.	Margo insists that her dreams frequently enable her to perceive and predict future events. Margo is claiming to possess the power of
	A)	telepathy.
	B)	clairvoyance.
	C)	precognition.
	D)	psychokinesis.

265.	Andre claims that he can make a broken watch begin to run again simply by entering a state of intense mental concentration. Andre is claiming to possess the power of
	A)	precognition.
	B)	telepathy.
	C)	clairvoyance.
	D)	psychokinesis.

266.	Parapsychology refers to the
	A)	study of phenomena such as ESP and psychokinesis.
	B)	study of perceptual illusions.
	C)	study of synesthesia.
	D)	direct transmission of thoughts from one mind to another.

267.	Psychics who have worked with police departments in an effort to solve difficult crimes have demonstrated the value of
	A)	clairvoyance.
	B)	telepathy.
	C)	precognition.
	D)	none of these things.

268.	The existence of convincing scientific evidence that ESP is possible would pose the greatest challenge to the
	A)	contemporary scientific understanding of human nature.
	B)	continued existence of parapsychology.
	C)	continuation of research on the processes that underlie ordinary forms of sensation and perception.
	D)	ordinary belief systems of most Americans.

269.	The greatest difficulty facing contemporary parapsychology is the
	A)	inability to subject claims of ESP to scientific testing.
	B)	lack of a reproducible ESP phenomenon.
	C)	willingness of many experts to accept fraudulent evidence.
	D)	difficulty of persuading many ordinary people that there really is such a thing as ESP.

Answer Key

1.	A
2.	D
3.	C
4.	C
5.	A
6.	B
7.	D
8.	B
9.	C
10.	C
11.	D
12.	B
13.	C
14.	C
15.	B
16.	B
17.	D
18.	B
19.	B
20.	D
21.	C
22.	A
23.	D
24.	A
25.	A
26.	D
27.	C
28.	C
29.	A
30.	A
31.	A
32.	A
33.	B
34.	D
35.	D
36.	B
37.	D
38.	B
39.	C
40.	C
41.	B
42.	D
43.	B
44.	C
45.	D
46.	C
47.	B
48.	B
49.	C
50.	C
51.	C
52.	B
53.	C
54.	D
55.	A
56.	B
57.	D
58.	D
59.	C
60.	D
61.	C
62.	D
63.	C
64.	C
65.	A
66.	A
67.	C
68.	B
69.	B
70.	B
71.	D
72.	D
73.	C
74.	D
75.	D
76.	C
77.	D
78.	A
79.	D
80.	B
81.	C
82.	C
83.	C
84.	C
85.	B
86.	D
87.	C
88.	B
89.	B
90.	B
91.	B
92.	A
93.	D
94.	A
95.	C
96.	D
97.	B
98.	A
99.	A
100.	B
101.	C
102.	D
103.	C
104.	D
105.	D
106.	D
107.	D
108.	D
109.	C
110.	D
111.	C
112.	C
113.	B
114.	C
115.	D
116.	C
117.	A
118.	A
119.	D
120.	B
121.	B
122.	C
123.	B
124.	C
125.	C
126.	C
127.	C
128.	C
129.	C
130.	B
131.	C
132.	C
133.	B
134.	D
135.	C
136.	B
137.	A
138.	C
139.	C
140.	C
141.	C
142.	B
143.	D
144.	C
145.	C
146.	D
147.	C
148.	B
149.	C
150.	B
151.	B
152.	C
153.	A
154.	B
155.	A
156.	B
157.	A
158.	C
159.	A
160.	A
161.	B
162.	C
163.	C
164.	C
165.	A
166.	D
167.	C
168.	D
169.	C
170.	C
171.	B
172.	A
173.	D
174.	D
175.	B
176.	C
177.	A
178.	B
179.	A
180.	D
181.	D
182.	B
183.	D
184.	B
185.	B
186.	A
187.	D
188.	B
189.	D
190.	D
191.	C
192.	C
193.	D
194.	B
195.	A
196.	C
197.	B
198.	C
199.	C
200.	D
201.	A
202.	D
203.	D
204.	C
205.	B
206.	C
207.	D
208.	B
209.	C
210.	A
211.	C
212.	D
213.	C
214.	C
215.	A
216.	A
217.	D
218.	B
219.	B
220.	B
221.	D
222.	A
223.	C
224.	B
225.	B
226.	B
227.	D
228.	D
229.	A
230.	B
231.	D
232.	D
233.	A
234.	C
235.	C
236.	B
237.	D
238.	D
239.	B
240.	B
241.	C
242.	D
243.	C
244.	C
245.	B
246.	B
247.	C
248.	D
249.	D
250.	A
251.	D
252.	C
253.	A
254.	B
255.	D
256.	D
257.	A
258.	C
259.	C
260.	D
261.	A
262.	D
263.	D
264.	C
265.	D
266.	A
267.	D
268.	A
269.	B

TB1 Chapter 06- Web Quiz 1

1.	Normal vision accompanied by prosopagnosia best illustrates the distinction between
	A)	absolute thresholds and difference thresholds.
	B)	subliminal sensation and subliminal persuasion.
	C)	sensory adaptation and perceptual set.
	D)	sensation and perception.

2.	The local fire department sounds the 12 o’clock whistle. The process by which your ears transform the sound waves from the siren into neural impulses is an example of
	A)	a threshold.
	B)	signal detection.
	C)	transduction.
	D)	sensory adaptation.

3.	A subliminal message is one that is presented
	A)	below one’s absolute threshold for awareness.
	B)	in a manner that is unconsciously persuasive.
	C)	with very soft background music.
	D)	repetitiously.

4.	Weber’s law is relevant to an understanding of
	A)	absolute thresholds.
	B)	difference thresholds.
	C)	sensory adaptation.
	D)	subliminal persuasion.

5.	If you move your watchband up your wrist an inch or so, you will feel it for only a few moments. This best illustrates
	A)	a perceptual set.
	B)	priming.
	C)	sensory adaptation.
	D)	Weber’s law.

6.	Compared with the entire range of visible light waves, those that are highest in frequency are most likely to be experienced as
	A)	blue.
	B)	yellow.
	C)	red.
	D)	green

7.	Receptor cells in the human eye that are the most sensitive to fine detail are called
	A)	feature detectors.
	B)	supercell clusters.
	C)	cones.
	D)	rods.

8.	Multiple ________ send combined messages to a bipolar cell, whereas a single ________ may link directly to a single bipolar cell.
	A)	rods; cone
	B)	cones; rod
	C)	feature detectors; supercell cluster
	D)	supercell clusters; feature detector

9.	The opponent-process theory is most useful for explaining a characteristic of
	A)	perceptual adaptation.
	B)	retinal disparity.
	C)	accommodation.
	D)	afterimages.

10.	Some stroke victims lose the capacity to perceive motion but retain the capacity to perceive shapes and colors. Others lose the capacity to perceive colors but retain the capacity to perceive movement and form. These peculiar visual disabilities best illustrate our normal capacity for
	A)	perceptual adaptation.
	B)	parallel processing.
	C)	feature detection.
	D)	accommodation.

11.	The way in which you quickly group the individual letters in this test item into separate words best illustrates the principle of
	A)	closure.
	B)	proximity.
	C)	interposition.
	D)	perceptual constancy.

12.	The fact that we recognize objects as having a consistent form regardless of changing viewing angles illustrates
	A)	interposition.
	B)	closure.
	C)	perceptual constancy.
	D)	linear perspective.

13.	The Moon illusion refers to our tendency to perceive the Moon as unusually
	A)	large when it is near the horizon.
	B)	large when it is high in the sky.
	C)	bright when it is near the horizon.
	D)	bright when it is high in the sky.

14.	Immanuel Kant and John Locke would have been most likely to disagree about the extent to which perception is influenced by
	A)	cultural experience.
	B)	retinal disparity.
	C)	accommodation.
	D)	relative luminance.

15.	Damage to the basilar membrane is most likely to affect one’s
	A)	olfaction.
	B)	audition.
	C)	sense of smell.
	D)	vestibular sense.

16.	Dissociation has been used as an explanation for
	A)	the McGurk effect.
	B)	synesthesia.
	C)	hypnotic pain relief.
	D)	stereophonic hearing.

17.	Receptor cells for the vestibular sense send messages to the
	A)	temporal lobes.
	B)	cerebellum.
	C)	olfactory cortex.
	D)	frontal lobes.

18.	Holding a heavy rather than a light clipboard leads people to perceive job candidates as more important. This best illustrates
	A)	the volley principle.
	B)	psychokinesis.
	C)	embodied cognition.
	D)	the McGurk effect.

19.	Psychics are unable to make millions of dollars betting on horse races. This undermines their claims to possess the power of
	A)	clairvoyance.
	B)	synesthesia.
	C)	precognition.
	D)	telepathy.

Answer Key

1.	D
2.	C
3.	A
4.	B
5.	C
6.	C
7.	C
8.	A
9.	D
10.	B
11.	B
12.	C
13.	A
14.	A
15.	B
16.	C
17.	B
18.	C
19.	C

TB1 Chapter 06- Web Quiz 2

1.	Interpreting new sensory information within the framework of a past memory illustrates
	A)	a just noticeable difference.
	B)	top-down processing.
	C)	Weber’s law.
	D)	sensory adaptation.

2.	The size of the difference threshold is greater for heavier objects than for lighter ones. This best illustrates
	A)	sensory adaptation.
	B)	transduction.
	C)	Weber’s law.
	D)	subliminal stimulation.

3.	A soldier who fearfully serves sentry duty in a dangerous war zone is more likely to hear very faint sounds than he or she ordinarily would. This best illustrates that one’s psychological state has an impact on
	A)	sensory adaptation.
	B)	absolute thresholds.
	C)	subliminal persuasion.
	D)	prosopagnosia.

4.	After hearing that Bryce had served a prison sentence, Janet began to perceive his friendly behavior as insincere and manipulative. This best illustrates the impact of
	A)	subliminal persuasion.
	B)	prosopagnosia.
	C)	sensory adaptation.
	D)	perceptual set.

5.	When holding a gun themselves, people become more likely to perceive another person as gun-toting rather than as simply holding a phone or wallet. This best illustrates the impact of
	A)	subliminal sensation.
	B)	sensory adaptation.
	C)	masking stimuli.
	D)	context effects.

6.	The central focal point in the retina where cones are heavily concentrated is known as the
	A)	lens.
	B)	optic nerve.
	C)	cornea.
	D)	fovea.

7.	Which of the following types of cells are located in the brain’s visual cortex?
	A)	rods and cones
	B)	bipolar cells
	C)	cataracts
	D)	feature detectors

8.	Rules for organizing stimuli into coherent groups were first identified by
	A)	evolutionary psychologists.
	B)	behaviorists.
	C)	Gestalt psychologists.
	D)	John Locke.

9.	The distance between our right and left eyes functions to provide us with a cue for depth perception known as
	A)	proximity.
	B)	interposition.
	C)	retinal disparity.
	D)	linear perspective.

10.	Railroad tracks appear to converge in the distance. This provides a cue for depth perception known as
	A)	linear perspective.
	B)	interposition.
	C)	proximity.
	D)	continuity.

11.	Pedro recognized that his son was closer to him than his daughter because his son partially blocked his view of his daughter. Pedro’s perception was most clearly influenced by a distance cue known as
	A)	closure.
	B)	interposition.
	C)	relative height.
	D)	linear perspective.

12.	Grass seen through sunglasses appears as green as it does without glasses. This best illustrates
	A)	blindsight.
	B)	interposition.
	C)	accommodation.
	D)	color constancy.

13.	A door casts an increasingly trapezoidal image on our retinas as it opens, yet we still perceive it as rectangular. This illustrates
	A)	retinal disparity.
	B)	interposition.
	C)	shape constancy.
	D)	linear perspective.

14.	After some practice, Carol was able to read books while holding them upside down. This best illustrates
	A)	perceptual adaptation.
	B)	perceptual constancy.
	C)	interposition.
	D)	retinal disparity.

15.	The cochlea is a
	A)	fluid-filled tube in which sound waves trigger nerve impulses.
	B)	fluid-filled tube that provides a sense of upright body position.
	C)	fluid-filled tube that provides a sense of body movement.
	D)	set of three tiny bones that amplify the vibrations of the eardrum.

16.	Nociceptors initiate the sensation of
	A)	color.
	B)	pitch.
	C)	taste.
	D)	pain.

17.	The taste of umami is a ________ taste.
	A)	meaty
	B)	salty
	C)	bitter
	D)	sour

18.	The sensory experience of bending one’s knees or raising one’s arms exemplifies
	A)	the vestibular sense.
	B)	top-down processing.
	C)	sensory interaction.
	D)	kinesthesia.

19.	A drink’s strawberry odor enhances our perception of its sweetness. This best illustrates
	A)	synesthesia.
	B)	the volley principle.
	C)	the McGurk effect.
	D)	sensory interaction.

Answer Key

1.	B
2.	C
3.	B
4.	D
5.	D
6.	D
7.	D
8.	C
9.	C
10.	A
11.	B
12.	D
13.	C
14.	A
15.	A
16.	D
17.	A
18.	D
19.	D

TB1 Chapter 07- Essays

1.	Explain why a biopsychosocial approach to understanding the process of learning has led contemporary psychologists to reject some of the early behaviorists’ beliefs.

2.

(a) How would you classically condition an adventuresome 2-year-old to be more fearful of running across a busy street near her house? (b) How would you classically condition a preschool child who is afraid of dogs to enjoy playing with a neighbor’s friendly dog? Be sure to identify the US, NS, CS, UR, and CR in both answers.

3.

Mr. Byrne can’t understand why scolding his seventh-grade students for disruptive classroom behaviors makes them more unruly. Explain Mr. Byrne’s predicament in terms of operant conditioning principles. Show how he could use operant conditioning techniques to (a) reduce disruptive behaviors and (b) increase cooperative behaviors.

4.

For Vina, cigarettes reduce feelings of tension and anxiety. Because of her heavy smoking, however, she has a bad morning cough and breathing difficulties. How can the principles of operant conditioning help to explain the development and continuation of Vina’s self-defeating smoking habit? Explain the extent to which the reinforcement for Vina’s habit is positive or negative, primary or conditioned, immediate or delayed, partial or continuous.

5.

(a) Several days after drinking an excessive amount of alcohol, Kendra becomes nauseated simply by the smell of liquor. The sight of the half-empty liquor bottle from which she drank does not, however, upset her. What does Kendra’s pattern of response indicate about the limits of associative learning? (b) If George is spanked immediately after his baby sister cries, he is likely to become fearful every time she cries. If Ken is spanked immediately before his baby sister cries, he is not likely to become fearful when she cries. What do the different reactions of George and Ken suggest about the role of cognitive processes in associative learning?

6.

Mr. Angelou believes that movies and televised news reports should portray only justifiable acts of violence and should never focus on the physical injury and suffering caused by these acts. Use your understanding of observational learning to indicate the extent to which you agree or disagree with Mr. Angelou.

Answer Key

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.

TB1 Chapter 07- Multiple Choice

1.	Psychologists define learning as the process of:
	A)	adapting to the environment.
	B)	responding to external stimuli.
	C)	rewarding behavioral responses.
	D)	acquiring through experience new information or relatively enduring behaviors.

2.	Acquiring new habits best illustrates the process of:
	A)	discrimination.
	B)	generalization.
	C)	learning.
	D)	spontaneous recovery.

3.	Carl so strongly associates watching baseball games with eating hot dogs that he habitually eats them while at the ballpark even when he’s not hungry. His eating habit best illustrates the impact of:
	A)	unconditioned responses.
	B)	spontaneous recovery.
	C)	introspection.
	D)	learning.

4.	If a sea slug on repeated occasions receives an electric shock just after being squirted with water, its protective withdrawal response to a squirt of water grows stronger. This best illustrates:
	A)	spontaneous recovery.
	B)	associative learning.
	C)	observational learning.
	D)	operant conditioning.

5.	Conditioning is the process of:
	A)	discrimination.
	B)	spontaneous recovery.
	C)	learning associations.
	D)	observational learning.

6.	In classical conditioning a stimulus is any event or situation that:
	A)	triggers imitation.
	B)	signals a reward.
	C)	elicits operant behavior.
	D)	evokes a response.

7.	Jordan is frightened by the sound of a train whistle. The sound is a(n):
	A)	unconditioned response.
	B)	generalization.
	C)	acquisition.
	D)	stimulus.

8.	Pets who learn that the sound of an electric can opener signals the arrival of their food illustrate:
	A)	operant conditioning.
	B)	spontaneous recovery.
	C)	classical conditioning.
	D)	observational learning.

9.	Respondent behavior is defined as a(n) ________ response to some stimulus.
	A)	novel
	B)	operant
	C)	automatic
	D)	generalized

10.	Classically conditioned habits are said to involve:
	A)	observational learning.
	B)	respondent behavior.
	C)	spontaneous recovery.
	D)	operant behavior.

11.	Which of the following is an example of a respondent behavior?
	A)	studying for a test
	B)	blushing when embarrassed
	C)	thanking someone for their help
	D)	sniffing to locate the source of a strange odor

12.	Children often learn to associate their pushing a vending machine button with the delivery of a candy bar. This best illustrates the process underlying:
	A)	observational learning.
	B)	respondent behavior.
	C)	spontaneous recovery.
	D)	operant conditioning.

13.	Voluntary behaviors that produce rewarding or punishing outcomes are called:
	A)	respondent behaviors.
	B)	associative behaviors.
	C)	operant behaviors.
	D)	conditioned responses.

14.	When Henry’s little brother accidentally locked himself inside his mother’s car, Henry used his mother’s car key to unlock the door. Henry’s action could best be described as a(n):
	A)	unconditioned response.
	B)	respondent behavior.
	C)	spontaneous recovery.
	D)	operant behavior.