Exam
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) As outlined in the text, sources of nonpermanent staff are: 1)
A) temporary help agencies.
B) younger workers.
C) contract workers and temporary help agencies.
D) older workers.
E) temporary help agencies, contract workers, and employee leasing.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
2) Determining the job requirements involves: 2)
A) perusing the human resources plan.
B) reviewing the employment equity plan.
C) relying on the human resources requisition form.
D) relying on the supervisor’s judgment.
E) reviewing the job description and job specification and updating them, if necessary.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
3) Yield ratio is: 3)
A) the percentage of applicants that will not proceed to the next stage of the process.
B) applicants who perform poorly in the hiring process.
C) the percentage of applicants that proceed to the next stage of the process.
D) applicants who perform well in the hiring process.
E) applicants that do not continue in the hiring process.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
1
4) Online recruiting must be consistent with the company’s overall: 4)
A) marketing strategy.
B) sales strategy.
C) finance strategy.
D) operations strategy.
E) business development strategy.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
5) To seek out middle- to senior-level professional and managerial employees, firms often retain: 5)
A) a professional or trade association.
B) a professional agency.
C) an executive search firm.
D) a talent scout.
E) an employment agency.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
6) Constraints affecting the recruitment process arise from: 6)
A) there are no constraints.
B) inducements offered by competitors.
C) employment equity plans and emerging labour shortages.
D) emerging labour shortages, inducements offered by competitors, and employment equity
plans.
E) emerging labour shortages and inducements offered by competitors.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
7) A potential pitfall to using Executive Search Firms includes all of the following EXCEPT: 7)
A) the time that must be spent explaining in detail the type of candidate required.
B) they may present unpromising candidates to a client.
C) they can be more interested in persuading the employer to hire any candidate.
D) they tend to be more salespeople than they are professionals.
E) they tend to focus only on persons currently looking for new positions.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
2
8) Which of the following statements about recruitment is true? 8)
A) The recruitment process begins with the identification of a position that requires staffing, and
is completed when a short list of candidates has been compiled.
B) Recruitment is the process of searching for and selecting the most appropriate individual to
staff job requirements.
C) The HR department staff members have line authority for recruitment.
D) The recruitment process begins with the identification of a position that requires staffing, and
is completed when resumes and/or completed application forms are received from an
adequate number of applicants.
E) In large organizations, in which recruiting is done on an almost continuous basis, there are
specialists, known as employment managers, whose job it is to find and attract capable
applicants.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
9) Nepotism is a problem most closely associated with: 9)
A) walk-ins.
B) write-ins.
C) employee referrals.
D) human resource centres.
E) educational institutions.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
10) Which of the following is true of employer branding? 10)
A) It is important only for persons who are eventually hired by the organization.
B) It is the image of the organization as an employer held by applicants for a position with the
organization only.
C) It is the image of the organization as an employer held by persons external to the organization
only.
D) It is the image of the organization as an employer held by persons external to the organization
as well as current employees.
E) It is the image of the organization as an employer held by current employees only.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
3
11) The CFLC is responsible for: 11)
A) developing a database of job postings for skilled personnel at no charge.
B) requiring civilian employers to give reservists time off for training.
C) allowing employers to interview for personnel at more than 300 military units.
D) conducting reserve force training that develops military skills.
E) promoting the hiring of reservists by civilian employers.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
12) Employers may use time-lapse data for each recruitment method to determine the: 12)
A) number of applicants that must be attracted to hire the required number of new employees.
B) number of applicants failing the recruiting and selecting process.
C) projected turnover rate.
D) amount of lead time needed to hire the required number of new employees.
E) number of applicants rejected.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
13) ________ influence the attractiveness of the job to potential applicants. 13)
A) Compensation policies
B) Employment status policies
C) Recruitment budgets
D) Promote-from-within policies
E) Human resources plans
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
14) The first step in employer branding includes: 14)
A) defining the target audience in terms of where to find them and what they would want from
an employer.
B) developing the employee value proposition.
C) defining the target audience in terms of where to find them.
D) HR planning.
E) building a pool of candidates.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
4
15) Situations in which an employer may use an employment agency for candidate recruitment include
all of the following EXCEPT:
15)
A) lack of an internal HR department.
B) a perceived need to attract a more homogeneous pool of applicants.
C) the organization does not have an HR department.
D) difficulty in generating a pool of qualified job candidates for this type of position in the past.
E) the need to fill an open position quickly.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
16) You are a recruiter in a telecommunications company and are hiring for the position of Human
Resources Clerk. The position requires some formal training but little work experience. Which of
the following recruitment methods is likely to be most effective in generating a pool of qualified
candidates at low cost?
16)
A) educational institutions
B) professional journal advertisements
C) newspaper advertisements
D) human resource centres
E) employment agencies
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
17) Firms use application service providers to power their career Web sites so that the company: 17)
A) can worry about administering recruiting software only.
B) can reduce recruitment costs.
C) does not have to worry about maintaining or updating the recruiting software.
D) can reduce recruitment costs.
E) can allow the HR department to focus on tactical recruitment efforts.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
5
18) ASP firms provide: 18)
A) a long list of candidates for interviews.
B) sample resumes.
C) standardized application forms.
D) a short list of candidates for interviews.
E) resume writing workshops.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
19) All of the following statements about temporary help agencies are true EXCEPT: 19)
A) Temps cost much less than permanent employees.
B) Firms may use temporary employees to handle special projects for which there are no current
employees with time and/or expertise.
C) Temps are generally well paid.
D) Temporary agencies provide supplemental workers.
E) If a temp performs unsatisfactorily, a substitute can generally be sent within one business
day.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
20) When job openings arise unexpectedly these openings are identified by: 20)
A) choosing the appropriate recruitment source(s) and method(s).
B) human resources planning.
C) manager request.
D) determining the job requirements.
E) building a pool of candidates.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
6
21) Blind ads: 21)
A) do not allow a job seeker to unknowingly send a resume to the firm at which they are
currently employed.
B) allow for confidentiality for the hiring firm.
C) are always used if the position is still staffed.
D) are favoured by job seekers.
E) are the same as want ads.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
22) Advantages associated with the use of headhunters include all of the following EXCEPT: 22)
A) their skill in reaching individuals who are employed.
B) their skill in recruiting employees of all levels.
C) their wide number of business contacts.
D) they typically know the marketplace.
E) their skill in reaching individuals who are not actively looking to change jobs.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
23) The biggest constraint on recruiting activity at this time is the: 23)
A) organizational plans.
B) environmental factors.
C) emerging labour shortage.
D) the recruitment budget.
E) recruiter preferences.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
7
24) Which of the following is true about recruiting members from Generation Y according to recent
research?
24)
A) They value job security and diversity.
B) They value creativity, diversity, and social responsibility.
C) They value creativity and social responsibility.
D) Work/life balance is their greatest priority in choosing an employer.
E) They value job security.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
25) Human resource centres are used primarily to help: 25)
A) unemployed individuals.
B) supervisory employees.
C) skilled tradespersons.
D) technical employees.
E) union employees.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
26) Open houses are: 26)
A) not used today.
B) the most popular recruitment method.
C) the choice when there are many jobs for candidates.
D) common in government organizations.
E) none of the above
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
27) Skills inventories are: 27)
A) always used instead of job postings.
B) only computerized.
C) used for employee training.
D) often used as a supplement to job postings.
E) not useful unless there is a unique job being applied for.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
8
28) Which of the following is an advantage of using advertising as a recruitment method? 28)
A) advertising allows employers to reach a diverse group of job applicants
B) advertising allows job seekers to respond very quickly
C) advertising saves time in the process
D) there is no advantage
E) advertising reduces costs associated with recruitment
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
29) Nepotism: 29)
A) can cause morale problems associated with hiring for executive positions.
B) is a disadvantage as associated with hiring on an on-line job board.
C) is a preference for hiring relatives of current employees.
D) is associated with recruiting at schools.
E) is a preference for hiring past colleagues of current employees; this is associated with
employee referrals.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
30) One problem with Internet job boards is: 30)
A) there are no problems.
B) it is difficult to post resumes online.
C) they are vulnerable to privacy breaches.
D) job seekers cannot search multiple job boards with one query.
E) fake job postings lead to resumes copied onto competing job boards.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
9
31) Benefits associated with internship, co-op, and field placement programs include all of the
following EXCEPT:
31)
A) experienced talent
B) less likelihood of leaving shortly after hire if employed by the firm.
C) low recruitment costs.
D) current knowledge and enthusiasm.
E) the ability of employers to assess the skills and abilities of potential employees.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
32) You are a recruiter for a telecommunications company. When recruiting for the position of Director
of Customer Service which of the following is most helpful as a supplement to job postings to
ensure that qualified internal candidates are identified and considered when vacancies arise?
32)
A) a succession plan
B) replacement summaries
C) skills inventories
D) a replacement chart
E) a telephone hot-line
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
33) Information typically found in a job posting includes all of the following EXCEPT: 33)
A) job title.
B) the name of the previous incumbent.
C) pay range.
D) posting date.
E) qualifications required.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
10
34) Best practices for career Web sites include: 34)
A) using an ASP.
B) using print along with the Web site.
C) embellishing business prospects.
D) having a direct link from the homepage to the career page.
E) including a unique application for each functional area.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
35) Best practices for career Web sites include: 35)
A) presenting material in large blocks of text.
B) trying to personalize each job seeker’s experience.
C) focusing on easy navigation but not allowing fast download times.
D) allowing no third-party sources of information.
E) flashy design.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
36) Perhaps the biggest drawback associated with employee referrals is the: 36)
A) potential for systemic discrimination.
B) dissatisfaction of employees whose referral is not hired.
C) costs involved in providing cash awards.
D) potential for morale problems.
E) unrealistic expectations newly-hired employees have about the firm.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
37) Significant benefits to hiring and retaining older employees include: 37)
A) the opportunity to invest in retraining.
B) their knowledge of history-how things were done.
C) their strong work ethic.
D) the opportunity to develop flexible work options.
E) none of the above.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
11
38) Corporate Web sites can help the company create a pool of candidates who have: 38)
A) already expressed interest in the organization.
B) already filled out an application form.
C) already worked with the company.
D) already been prescreened.
E) replied to a specific ad in print.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
39) Online recruitment: 39)
A) reduces hiring speed but does reduce the costs of vacant positions.
B) reduces the use of the Intranet and Internet technology.
C) reduces hiring speed because of technological complexities.
D) does increase hiring speed, and therefore reduces the costs of vacant positions.
E) increases hiring speed, and therefore increases the costs of vacant positions.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
40) Recruiters must try to meet the prevailing standards while dealing with: 40)
A) the job specifications.
B) organizational policies.
C) recruiter preferences.
D) environmental factors.
E) inducements of competitors.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
41) Advantages of job posting include all of the following EXCEPT: 41)
A) the organization’s commitment to career growth and development is demonstrated.
B) the organization’s policies and guidelines regarding promotions and transfers are
communicated.
C) employment equity goals are more likely to be met.
D) every qualified employee is provided with a chance for a transfer or promotion.
E) the likelihood of special deals and favouritism is reduced.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
12
42) For executive-level positions, firms normally rely on: 42)
A) professional search firms.
B) employee referrals.
C) newspaper ads.
D) online recruitment.
E) employment agencies.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
43) The second step in employer branding includes: 43)
A) defining the reasons why the organization is a unique place to work and would be an
attractive employer to the desired audience.
B) defining the target audience in terms of where to find them.
C) building a pool of candidates.
D) defining the reasons why the organization is a unique place to work.
E) defining the target audience in terms of where to find them and what they would want from
an employer.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
44) Corporate career Web sites: 44)
A) educate the applicant about the industry.
B) provide details about the human resource planning.
C) provide links to company advertisements.
D) provide a platform that promotes the corporate brand.
E) capture data about the organization.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
13
45) Corporate Web sites: 45)
A) create different types of applications and help recruiters manage relationships with
candidates.
B) are using career Web sites to advertise products or services sold.
C) are using career Web sites to position corporate brands to advertise career opportunities.
D) are allowing streamlining of data to use in the application.
E) improve recruitment through online screening tools for communicating with candidates,
thereby saving time.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
46) Online job boards are: 46)
A) secure and confidential.
B) fast, convenient and easy.
C) slow but easy to use.
D) fast, convenient and easy, when the job boards used are large.
E) fast, but not easy.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
47) You are a recruiter in a telecommunication company. In recruiting for the position of Business
Division Sales Manager which of the following would be the advantage of the employee referral
method?
47)
A) It generally attracts a greater pool of applicants than other methods.
B) It would assist in managing diversity in the firm.
C) It usually leads to higher quality candidates.
D) It represents a low recruiting cost.
E) It does not allow inbreeding.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
14
48) You are a recruiter for a public relations agency and must fill the position of Director of Business
Development. The disadvantages of filling the position with inside candidates includes all of the
following EXCEPT:
48)
A) difficulty for a newly-chosen leader to gain acceptance.
B) a waste of time if all internal candidates must be interviewed.
C) inbreeding.
D) less innovative approaches to decision-making
E) less orientation is required
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
49) The four-point guide should be used to construct an ad. The guide is called: 49)
A) AIDA.
B) IDA.
C) DA.
D) PA.
E) none of the above.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
50) An engineering consulting company operating across Canada has launched an initiative to recruit
engineers from England. Which of the constraints on the recruitment process is this most likely
primarily designed to address?
50)
A) the labour shortage for certain occupations in Canada
B) compensation policies
C) inducements offered by competitors
D) employment status policies
E) employment equity plans
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
15
51) The types of positions commonly filled through union hiring halls include all of the following
EXCEPT:
51)
A) security guards.
B) carpenters.
C) pipe fitters.
D) plumbers.
E) welders.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
52) Renu, a recruiter at a sportswear retailer, has developed a job application form on which applicant
responses have been weighted, based on their statistical relationship to measures of job success. The
form she developed is known as a:
52)
A) weighted application blank.
B) biographical information blank.
C) selection test.
D) weighted application form.
E) statistical application form.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
53) Active job seekers: 53)
A) are not the only type of individuals to visit the career Web site.
B) are known as “passive” job seekers.
C) must have an accessible, prominently positioned link on the homepage leading directly to the
career section to make it easier for them to pursue job opportunities.
D) have the best access to the career Web sites.
E) are the individuals that visit the career Web sites.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
16
54) An examination of human resources records may reveal all of the following EXCEPT: 54)
A) persons with the potential to move into the vacant position if given some additional training.
B) people who already have the requisite KSAs.
C) occupational segregation.
D) underemployment.
E) employees who are working in jobs below their education or skill levels.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
55) Passive job seekers are: 55)
A) managerial employees.
B) happily employed in their present job.
C) professional employees.
D) manufacturing employees.
E) looking for a new job.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
56) Employee leasing typically is: 56)
A) an arrangement that involves a company transferring specific employees to the payroll of an
agency.
B) an arrangement that involves a company transferring specific employees to the payroll of a
subsidiary of the organization.
C) an arrangement to hire that involves an organization hiring individuals from designated
groups.
D) an contract that involves an organization hiring individuals permanently.
E) an arrangement that involves a company transferring specific employees to the payroll of a
professional employer organization (PEO) in an explicit joint-employment relationship.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
17
57) You are a recruiter for a telecommunications company. When recruiting for the position of Director
of Customer Service which of the following would not account for why you would recruit
externally?
57)
A) Employment equity goals and timetables may be met.
B) Qualified employees have a chance for promotion.
C) Creative problem-solving techniques may be acquired.
D) Rivalry and competition between employees may be eliminated.
E) The quality of the selection decision may be better.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
58) Identifying which job requirements should be filled internally and which externally is most closely
associated with:
58)
A) choosing the appropriate recruitment method(s).
B) HR planning.
C) building a pool of candidates.
D) determining the job requirements.
E) a human resources requisition form.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
59) With the overabundance of applicants now found on most online job boards, employers now use: 59)
A) Monster.ca.
B) print advertising.
C) workopolis.ca.
D) application service providers.
E) their own corporate websites to recruit.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
18
60) To be effective, promotion from within requires using each of the following tools EXCEPT: 60)
A) job posting.
B) newspaper advertisements.
C) skills inventories.
D) interviewing.
E) human resources records.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
61) You are a recruiter for a public relations agency and must fill the position of Director of Business
Development. The disadvantages of an internal job posting include:
61)
A) the decision about which candidate to select may be more difficult if there are two or more
equally qualified candidates.
B) it is rare that it is a difficult decision about which candidate to select; even if there are two or
more equally qualified candidates.
C) it does not reduce the likelihood of special deals and favouritism.
D) unsuccessful job candidates are rarely demotivated, understanding feedback may not be
communicated in a timely manner.
E) every qualified employee does not have a chance for transfer or promotion.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
62) Which of the following statements about headhunters is true? 62)
A) The percentage of positions filled by such firms is generally quite large.
B) They are paid a fee by the job seeker.
C) They are used for jobs in the $30,000 plus pay range.
D) They often specialize in a particular type of talent.
E) Their code of ethics prohibits them from contacting individuals who are currently employed.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
19
63) Popularity of Internet job boards among job seekers is high due to: 63)
A) the features of the job boards.
B) the technological requirements of the Internet.
C) the types of job postings available.
D) the number of job postings available on one site.
E) they are not popular.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
64) To achieve optimum results from an advertisement, the four-point guide known as AIDA should
be used. This stands for:
64)
A) attention, interest, desire, action.
B) approach, introspection, desire, activity.
C) attention, interest, development, action.
D) attention, illumination, development, assessment.
E) alert, interest, desire, appraisal.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
65) Which of the following is considered an inexpensive recruitment method? 65)
A) employee referrals
B) write-ins
C) walk-ins
D) walk-ins and write-ins
E) educational institutions
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
66) Job fair events would not allow: 66)
A) recruiters to share job opportunities in an informal, relaxed setting.
B) computer technology can be used; some job fairs are held on-line.
C) top prospects to be invited to visit the firm at a later date.
D) recruiters to share information about the organization.
E) in-depth assessment of candidates.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
20
67) You are a recruiter with a software development firm and are seeking to fill positions requiring
specific computer programming knowledge and work experience. Which of the following
recruitment sources or methods would be particularly useful to you?
67)
A) write-ins
B) a labour organization
C) educational institutions
D) newspaper advertising
E) professional and trade associations
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
68) You are a recruiter for a public relations agency and must fill the position of Director of Business
Development. The advantages of filling the position with inside candidates includes:
68)
A) managers are provided with a longer-term perspective when making business decisions.
B) insiders are less likely to require training and are more likely to have an innovative approach.
C) managers are provided with a longer-term perspective when making business decisions and
insiders may be more committed to company goals and less likely to leave.
D) there would be no advantages.
E) insiders are likely to have an innovative approach.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
69) All of the following statements about contract workers are true EXCEPT: 69)
A) Some contractors are individuals who have been unable to obtain full-time work.
B) Some have found themselves out of a full-time job due to cutbacks.
C) Some have consciously made a decision to work for themselves.
D) Many professionals with specialized skills become contract workers.
E) Contract workers tend to have high employer commitment.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
21
70) External recruitment often results in: 70)
A) rivalry and competition among employees.
B) the generation of a homogeneous pool of applicants.
C) cost savings due to less extensive training.
D) problems in meeting employment equity goals.
E) higher costs due to extensive training.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
71) Which of the following is a limitation of recruiting from within the organization? 71)
A) In firms with a promote-from-within policy, positions are rarely filled externally.
B) If positions are vacated unexpectedly, there may be no qualified internal candidates.
C) If there is a job posting policy, external candidates can only be considered if there are no
qualified internal candidates.
D) Most entry-level jobs are filled with current employees.
E) All of the above are limitations of recruiting from within.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
72) An effective way of spreading the word about job opportunities to current employees is: 72)
A) placing a classified advertisement in the newspaper.
B) job posting.
C) preparing a job specification.
D) preparing a job description.
E) radio advertising.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
73) Employers may use a recruiting yield pyramid for each recruitment method to determine the: 73)
A) number of applicants rejected.
B) projected turnover rate.
C) amount of lead time needed to hire the required number of new employees.
D) number of applicants failing the recruiting and selecting process.
E) number of applicants that must be attracted to hire the required number of new employees.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
22
74) Time-lapse data: 74)
A) can not be used for every recruitment method.
B) does not take into account the amount of lead time available.
C) is the average number of days from when the company initiates a recruitment method to
when the successful candidate begins to work and has completed the orientation process.
D) is the average number of days from when the company initiates a recruitment method to
when the successful candidate begins to work.
E) is not a useful tool in the recruitment process.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
75) In a recent survey, local newspaper advertising was rated as “very useful” by 54 percent of
respondents for which of the following categories of employees?
75)
A) executives
B) technical employees
C) managers/supervisors
D) professional employees
E) other salaried employees
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
76) To achieve optimum results from an ad, the ad should: 76)
A) create desire for the job.
B) tell people where to apply.
C) name whom to call.
D) appear in the classified ads.
E) none of the above.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
23
77) Summer internship programs: 77)
A) are expensive to assess students.
B) hire college and/or university students to complete summer projects before they graduate.
C) have one objective only: to allow students to obtain business experience.
D) produce win-win results, but students benefit more.
E) frequently offer permanent positions following graduation if interns have excellent
performance.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
TRUE/FALSE. Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
78) A detailed application form requesting biographical data found to be predictive of success on the
job is known as a weighted application blank.
78)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
79) For most employers, completion of an application form is the last step in the recruitment process. 79)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
80) If there are illegal questions on an application form, an unsuccessful candidate may challenge the
legality of the entire process. The burden of proof is on the job candidate.
80)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
81) Most of the recruitment methods outlined in the text can be used to attract designated group
members even though the employer’s commitment to equity and diversity is unclear.
81)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
82) Recruitment is the process of searching out and hiring qualified job applicants. 82)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
83) Individuals working as temps who are seeking full-time employment are often highly motivated,
knowing that many employers choose full-time employees from the ranks of their top-performing
temps.
83)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
84) A disadvantage of using social networking sites as a recruitment method is the cost involved. 84)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
24
85) HRDC helps individuals find jobs at no cost to the candidate but the employer must pay a fee. 85)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
86) One advantage of employee referrals is that, because there are no advertising fees involved, paying
bonuses represents a low recruiting cost.
86)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
87) Application forms can legally ask for information pertaining to citizenship. 87)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
88) In many firms with a policy of promoting from within, potential external candidates are also
considered.
88)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
89) Having a recruit-from-within policy may mean that no external candidates can be considered until
the posting period is over, even if it is well known that there are no qualified internal candidates.
89)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
90) Trends of particular significance today include a decrease in the availability of younger workers. 90)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
91) Recent research has found a strong correlation between successful recruiting and shareholder
value.
91)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
92) External recruitment is generally the major source of candidates. 92)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
93) Relying on employee referrals can result in systemic discrimination. 93)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
94) A risk of using social networking sites as a recruitment method is that disgruntled former
employees or customers may post negative comments on the site.
94)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
95) Many firms, recognizing the benefits of a multigenerational work force, are taking steps to recruit
both older and younger workers.
95)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
25
96) Recruits can be hired through union hiring halls, particularly in construction. The roster of
members only work for one organization at a time.
96)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
97) What are the advantages and disadvantages of filling open positions with internal candidates?
Answer: There are at least five advantages of recruiting within the organization:
· Employees see that competence is rewarded, thus enhancing commitment, morale and performance.
· Having already been with the firm for some time, inside candidates may be more committed to
company goals and less likely to leave.
· Managers are provided with a longer-term perspective when making business decisions.
· It is generally safer to promote employees from within, since the firm is likely to have a more accurate
assessment of the person’s skills and performance level than would otherwise be the case.
· Inside candidates require less orientation than outsiders.
Hiring from within also has a number of disadvantages:
· Employees who apply for jobs and don’t get them may become discontented.
· Managers may be required to post all job openings and interview all inside candidates, even when they
already know whom they wish to hire, thus wasting considerable time and creating false hope on the
part of those employees not genuinely being considered.
· Employees may be less satisfied with and accepting of a new boss appointed from within their own
ranks than they would a newcomer.
· It is sometimes difficult for a newly-chosen leader to adjust to no longer being “one of the gang.”
· There is a possibility of “inbreeding.” When an entire management team has been brought up through
the ranks, there may be a tendency to make decisions by the book and to maintain the status quo, when a
new and innovative direction is needed.
98) Recruiting a diverse workforce is a necessity. Compare and contrast the benefits of attracting older workers
versus younger employees.
Answer: Benefits of recruiting older workers: high job satisfaction; a strong sense of loyalty and organizational
commitment; a strong work ethic; good people skills; and willingness to work in a variety of roles,
including part-time
Benefits of recruiting younger workers: they bring energy, enthusiasm, and physical strength to their
positions
99) List and explain the steps an employer should take to brand itself as an “employer of choice.”
Answer: There are 3 steps in employer branding.
The employer should first define the target audience, where to find them, and what they want from an
employer.
The second step is to develop the employee value proposition. In this step the employer should identify
the specific reasons that make the organization a unique place to work and a more attractive employer
for the target audience.
The third step is to communicate the brand by incorporating the value proposition in to all recruitment
efforts.
26
100) Describe the steps in the recruitment process.
Answer: Job openings are identified through HR planning or manager request. HR plans play a vital role in the
identification process, because they indicate present and future openings and specify which should be
filled internally and which externally. When openings arise unexpectedly, the immediate supervisor may
have to complete a human resources requisition form or a business plan to obtain authorization to
proceed with recruitment and selection.
The job requirements are determined. This involves reviewing the job description and the job
specification and updating them, if necessary. Manager comments may also prove helpful in identifying
requirements, particularly pertaining to personality and fit.
Appropriate recruiting source(s) and method(s) are chosen. There is no single best recruiting technique,
and the most appropriate for any given position depend(s) on a number of factors, including type of
position, recruitment budget, and compensation policies.
A pool of qualified recruits is generated.
101) What are the advantages of external recruitment?
Answer: External recruitment may result in:
· generation of a larger pool of qualified candidates, which may have a positive impact on the quality of
the selection decision
· availability of a more diverse pool of applicants, which can assist in meeting employment equity goals
and timetables
· acquisition of skills or knowledge not currently available within the organization and/or new ideas and
creative problem-solving techniques
· elimination of rivalry and competition caused by employees jockeying for transfers and promotions,
which can hinder interpersonal and interdepartmental cooperation
· potential cost savings resulting from hiring individuals who already have the skills, rather than
providing extensive training.
102) Even when detailed resumes have been submitted, most firms also request that a standardized company
application form be completed by every job applicant. Why?
Answer: · Candidate comparison is facilitated because information is collected in a uniform manner.
· The information that the company requires is requested; it is not simply left to the candidate to include
that which he or she wishes to reveal. By asking for work history in reverse chronological order and
insisting that dates be provided, for example, gaps in work history may be revealed that are concealed on
the candidate’s resume.
· Candidates are typically asked to complete an application form while on the company premises, which
means that the application form is more likely to be a sample of the candidate’s own work.
· Application forms typically ask the candidate to provide written authorization for reference checking. A
photocopy of this section of the application form can be faxed or mailed to individuals being asked for
references, if so requested.
Candidates are asked to acknowledge that the information provided is true and accurate, which protects
the company from applicants who falsify their credentials.
· Many application forms today have an optional section regarding designated group member status.
This information is used for employment equity tracking purposes.
27
103) You are a human resources Consultant hired by a client to advise on developing a career Web site. What are the
best practices of career website development that you would discuss with the client?
Answer: · Include candid information about the culture, career paths, and business prospects. Some online
applicants also want to view virtual tours of the workplace.
· Design separate sections for different types of job seekers, such as students.
· Have a direct link from the home page to the career page.
· Have a job search tool that allows applicants to search open job position by location and job category.
· Have a standardized application or resume builder to allow for easy applicant screening.
· Utilize “e-mail to a friend” options for visitor referrals.
104) A well established advertising firm wishes to employ more younger workers in order to bring new perspectives
and creativity to the firm. What benefits should the firm put in place for existing workers in order to entice this
target group to join the firm.
Answer: Recent research indicates that the top 3 benefits for enticing generation Y members are salary, casual wok
environment and growth development opportunities. Other enticements include:
• Opportunities to volunteer in the community
• Regular feedback
• Tuition reimbursement programs
• Strong reward and recognition programs
• A connection to the vision and mission of the organization.
28
chapter 7
Exam
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Suggested guidelines to avoid negative legal consequences include all of the following EXCEPT: 1)
A) rejecting applicants who make false statements on their application forms.
B) There are no exceptions listed above.
C) keeping careful records documenting each stage of the selection process.
D) adequately assessing each applicant’s ability to meet performance standards.
E) checking references very carefully.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
2) Intelligence tests measure all of the following traits EXCEPT: 2)
A) memory.
B) numerical ability.
C) vocabulary.
D) extrasensory perception.
E) verbal fluency.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
3) Girish is the owner of a software development firm with 60 employees. He wishes to implement a
formal testing program which measures work related traits and behaviours. Which of the following
do you recommend he implement?
3)
A) panel interviews
B) a computerized testing program
C) There is no such tool.
D) the Wonderlic Personnel Text
E) The Predictive Index
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
1
4) Which of the following statements is true? 4)
A) The HR department staff members generally screen and test applicants, perform reference
checking, and make the final selection decision.
B) Selection strategies should be continually refined, regardless of cost.
C) The organization’s strategic plan places major constraints on selection decisions.
D) The types of selection instruments and screening devices used are fairly standardized.
E) Selection plays a relatively minor role in the achievement of employment equity goals.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
5) The interview format that may seem quite mechanical to all concerned is known as: 5)
A) nondirective.
B) unstructured.
C) mixed.
D) structured.
E) stress-producing.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
6) Asking an applicant how he or she would handle a situation where his/her manager assigned work
with competing deadlines would be an example of which interview technique?
6)
A) stress
B) situational
C) nondirective
D) behavioural
E) structured
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
2
7) The immediate supervisor is generally responsible for making the final selection decision. Reasons
for this include all of the following EXCEPT:
7)
A) He or she is generally best qualified to assess job knowledge and skills.
B) If he or she is not committed to the selected individual, that person can easily be set up for
failure.
C) He or she must provide guidance and assistance to the new hire.
D) He or she is often highly skilled in the selection process.
E) It is important that the individual selected fits in with current department members.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
8) Most interviews are administered: 8)
A) by computers.
B) one on one.
C) on a standard evaluation form.
D) simultaneously by a group.
E) simultaneously by several candidates.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
9) Which of the following statements is true? 9)
A) The organization’s right to know outweighs an individual’s right to privacy.
B) Accepting gifts from a private employment agency wanting the firm’s business is an
acceptable practice.
C) A small selection ratio, such as 25:1, means that there are very few applicants from which to
select.
D) By basing selection criteria on bona fide occupational requirements, defined through job
analysis, firms can create a legally defensible hiring system.
E) The selection ratio is generally unrelated to the quality of recruits.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
3
10) Which interview format involves a series of preset questions asked of all candidates and a series of
preset candidate-specific questions?
10)
A) nondirective
B) behavioural
C) situational
D) structured
E) mixed
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
11) The halo effect related to selection is a: 11)
A) negative impression made at the end of the interview that will distort an interviewer’s rating.
B) positive impression made at the end of the interview that will distort an interviewer’s rating.
C) negative initial impression that distorts an interviewer’s rating.
D) positive initial impression that distorts an interviewer’s rating.
E) None of the above.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
12) Work samples focus on measuring: 12)
A) job performance directly.
B) expert appraisers’ evaluations.
C) physical abilities only.
D) the “Big Five” personality dimensions.
E) hypothetical situations.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
13) Advantages of a panel interview include all of the following EXCEPT: 13)
A) they require less time, overall.
B) they include varied questions pertaining to each interviewer’s area of expertise.
C) there is less likelihood of interviewer error.
D) the likelihood of human rights/employment equity violations is greatly reduced.
E) there are no exceptions listed above.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
4
14) A serialized interview occurs when: 14)
A) a panel simultaneously interviews several candidates.
B) each interviewer evaluates the applicant from his or her own point of view.
C) a candidate’s oral and/or computerized responses are obtained in response to computerized
oral and written questions.
D) each interviewee only attends one interview.
E) each interviewer rates the candidate on a standard evaluation form, and the ratings are
compared before the hiring decision is made.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
15) Behavioural questions describe: 15)
A) future behaviour.
B) hypothetical situations.
C) preset candidate reactions.
D) candidate personality
E) various situations experienced in the past.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
16) The multiple hurdle strategy is an approach to selection involving a(n): 16)
A) selection of instruments for selection purposes.
B) reliability and validity analysis.
C) series of successive steps or hurdles.
D) series of interviews.
E) none of the above.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
5
17) The interviewing method in which the applicant is interviewed by a number of people at once is
known as:
17)
A) sequential.
B) behavioural.
C) mass.
D) serialized.
E) panel.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
18) Sandeep Gill is the manager of a busy local branch of a provincial credit union, Envirobank. The
branch recently had to hire 5 new tellers to meet the rise in demand for branch services. The branch
relied mainly on candidate interviews as a selection “tool.” Although Sandeep thought he had
planned the candidate interviewing process well and had designed effective questions for assessing
the candidates, the 3 candidates who were rated the highest in the interview did not meet basic
performance expectations following their hire. The primary problem with the selection “tool”
chosen and designed by Sandeep is one of:
18)
A) validity.
B) There is no problem with this selection “tool.”
C) reliability.
D) impression management.
E) integrity.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
19) A hiring manager asks the following question in an interview “This position requires someone
skilled in dispute resolution. This is skill you possess isn’t it?” This is an example of the
interviewing mistake known as:
19)
A) snap judgments.
B) halo effect.
C) similar to me bias.
D) contrast error.
E) telegraphing.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
6
20) The purpose of pre-employment substance abuse testing is to: 20)
A) test mental abilities.
B) avoid hiring employees who would pose unnecessary risks to themselves or others.
C) reduce accidents.
D) address absenteeism.
E) determine that the applicant qualifies for the physical requirements of the position.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
21) A test in which an ambiguous stimulus is presented and the person taking the test is expected to
interpret or react to it is a common type of:
21)
A) personality test.
B) intelligence test.
C) aptitude test.
D) interest inventory.
E) achievement test.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
22) Interviewers who don’t know precisely what the job entails and what sort of candidate is best
suited for it usually make their decisions based on:
22)
A) letters of reference.
B) candidate responses.
C) incorrect stereotypes.
D) applicant screening.
E) employment test results.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
7
23) Answering the question, “Does this predictor measure what it’s supposed to measure?” is an
assessment of:
23)
A) differential validity.
B) personality and behaviour.
C) aptitude and achievement.
D) reliability.
E) validity.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
24) The consistency of scores obtained by a person when he or she is retested on the identical test or an
equivalent version is an example of:
24)
A) criterion-related reliability.
B) validity.
C) construct validity.
D) content validity.
E) reliability.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
25) Differential validity is: 25)
A) the extent to which a selection tool measures a theoretical construct or trait deemed necessary
to perform the job well.
B) the accuracy with which a predictor measures what it is supposed to measure.
C) the extent to which a selection tool predicts or significantly correlates with important
elements of work behaviour.
D) confirmation that the selection tool accurately predicts the performance of all possible
employee subgroups, including white males.
E) none of the above.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
8
26) Which of the following are considered to be “hidden” costs of a poor selection process? 26)
A) Strategic objectives will not be met.
B) Customer alienation and internal disorganization when an unsuccessful employee is
terminated.
C) customer alienation
D) The cost of orienting a newly selected employee to replace the unsuccessful employee who
was terminated.
E) The cost of beginning the selection process over again when an unsuccessful employee is
terminated.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
27) Yung is the manager of human resources at a credit union. Following an incident where a former
employee was convicted for theft of customer account information she has become increasingly
concerned about negligent hiring lawsuits. Which of the following steps would be the most helpful
in addressing her concern?
27)
A) ensuring selection criteria are based on job descriptions
B) adequately assessing the applicant’s ability to meet performance standards
C) ensuring selection criteria are based on job specifications
D) carefully scrutinizing application forms and checking references
E) obtaining consent to check references
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
28) The following are physical abilities that an employer might want to measure EXCEPT: 28)
A) lifting strength.
B) stamina.
C) verbal abilities.
D) pulling/pushing strength.
E) climbing.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
9
29) Tests that measure an individual’s potential to perform a job, provided he or she is given proper
training, are known as:
29)
A) aptitude tests.
B) interest inventories.
C) personality tests.
D) intelligence tests.
E) achievement tests.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
30) While ________ interviews ask interviewees to describe how they would react in a given situation,
________ interviews ask candidates to describe how they did react in that situation in the past.
30)
A) behavioural,;situational
B) structured; situational
C) situational; behavioural
D) nondirective; behavioural
E) stress; situational
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
31) A number of tests commonly used in selection can conveniently be classified according to whether
they measure each of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
31)
A) memory.
B) personal attractiveness and suitability.
C) motor and physical abilities.
D) monitoring one’s own emotions.
E) general intellectual abilities.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
10
32) Employers are increasingly being held liable for damages stemming from their: 32)
A) use of unreliable selection tests.
B) use of invalid selection tests.
C) failure to abide by employment equity legislative requirements.
D) discriminatory practices in the selection process.
E) “negligent hiring” of workers who subsequently commit criminal acts on the job.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
33) Interest inventories are tests that: 33)
A) apply to extroversion and emotional stability.
B) compare a candidate’s interests with those of people in various occupations.
C) measure job performance directly.
D) measure basic elements of personality.
E) measure knowledge and/or proficiency.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
34) All of the following statements are true EXCEPT: 34)
A) The selection process is a one-way street.
B) Completing an application form is often part of the online application process.
C) Initial applicant screening is generally performed by the HR Dept.
D) Selection testing is a common screening device to assess specific job-related skills.
E) Initial applicant screening involves eliminating candidates lacking the “must have” selection
criteria.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
11
35) Renu is the human resources professional at a telecommunications company who is tasked with
ensuring that the firm’s selection process adheres with the firm’s employment equity plan
mandated by legislation. Which of the following must she ensure?
35)
A) The process does not have an adverse effect on women or persons with disabilities.
B) The process does not have an adverse effect on women, persons with disabilities, aboriginal’s
persons or visible minorities.
C) The process does not have an adverse effect on women or members of certain religious
groups.
D) Written authorization is obtained for reference checking.
E) No employees with unsuitable backgrounds are hired.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
36) Motor abilities a firm might want to measure include all of the following EXCEPT: 36)
A) finger dexterity.
B) spacial visualization.
C) speed of arm movement.
D) reaction time.
E) manual dexterity.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
37) Which error is of particular concern from a human rights law perspective? 37)
A) influence of nonverbal behaviour
B) contrast (candidate-order) error
C) too little talking
D) playing attorney
E) telegraphing
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
12
38) The two- to three-day strategy used to assess candidates’ management potential is known as: 38)
A) a leaderless group discussion.
B) a management assessment centre.
C) a managerial aptitude test.
D) a supervisory interest inventory.
E) an in-basket exercise.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
39) Which of the following statements about reference checking is true? 39)
A) Firms are increasingly using reference-checking services to thoroughly check references.
B) Letters of reference from former employers are viewed very positively.
C) Reference checking is generally not worthwhile.
D) Only about 10 percent of resumes contain inaccurate information that will be discovered
when checking references.
E) Women are more likely to lie on resumes than men.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
40) All of the following are common interviewing mistakes EXCEPT: 40)
A) asking discriminatory questions.
B) poor planning.
C) making snap judgments.
D) poor knowledge of job.
E) too little talking.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
13
41) An example of a situational question is: 41)
A) Tell me about a time when you had to discipline an employee arriving late for work three
days in a row.
B) Tell me about a time when you managed numerous priorities in a short period of time.
C) How would you handle an irate boss who was just told that the output in the department was
below standard?
D) What type of computer skills are you proficient in?
E) None of the above.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
42) Which is true of the interview question: “How would you handle an angry customer?” 42)
A) It is a situational question which tests knowledge and experience.
B) It tests intellectual capacity.
C) It tests knowledge and experience.
D) It is an example of behavioural interviewing.
E) It is a situational question.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
43) Assessment centres are: 43)
A) an inexpensive selection strategy.
B) a better predictor of performance than any other selection tool.
C) a tool that assesses management potential using a special room with a one-way mirror.
D) useful for predicting success in jobs of all levels.
E) characterized by all of the above.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
14
44) Hints for making reference checking more productive include all of the following EXCEPT: 44)
A) Persist in order to obtain information from the references who are difficult to reach.
B) Obtain consent for reference checks.
C) Use references provided by the applicant as a source for other references.
D) Use an assessment centre.
E) Use a structured form.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
45) Which of the following statements about selection testing is true? 45)
A) Studies have shown that approximately two-thirds of Canadian organizations use tests for
hiring.
B) Testing is more prevalent in small organizations.
C) The use of tests has been declining in recent years.
D) Selection testing generally involves a demonstration of skills.
E) Personality and aptitude tests are not commonly used for selection purposes.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
46) Hints for conducting an effective panel interview include all of the following EXCEPT: 46)
A) Evaluate the candidate.
B) Listen carefully rather than taking notes.
C) Build rapport.
D) Plan the interview.
E) Ask questions.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
47) A selection ratio of 1:3 generally means the following: 47)
A) there are many applicants from which to select.
B) there are a limited number of applicants from which to select and likely low quality recruits.
C) there are low quality recruits but many applicants from which to select.
D) there are a limited number of applicants from which to select.
E) there are high quality recruits and many applicants from which to select.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
15
48) A recent study of 92 real employment interviews found that the interviewers using ________ of
structure in the interview process evaluated applicant’s ________ than those who used
unstructured interviews.
48)
A) low levels; less favourably
B) mixed levels; more favourably
C) high levels; more favourably
D) high levels; less favourably
E) mixed levels; less favourably
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
49) Nonverbal behaviours often account for more than ________ percent of the applicant’s rating. 49)
A) 70 B) 80 C) 40 D) 50 E) 60
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
50) The selection decision-making technique which involves identifying the most valid predictors and
weighting them through statistical methods such as multiple regression is called:
50)
A) statistical strategy.
B) benchmark approach.
C) multiple-hurdle strategy.
D) multiple-evaluation approach.
E) clinical strategy.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
51) Strategic selection is important for the following reasons: 51)
A) the employment equity plan.
B) the costs involved, impact on performance, and legal implications.
C) the budget required and legal implications.
D) ethical reasons.
E) the time and costs involved.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
16
52) Suggestions to ensure that questioning is effective include all of the following EXCEPT: 52)
A) Listen to the candidate and encourage the full expression of his or her thoughts.
B) Ask questions in order.
C) Interrogate the applicant.
D) Prepare questions in advance.
E) Record the candidate’s answers briefly but thoroughly.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
53) Micro-assessment focuses on: 53)
A) individual performance.
B) paper-based questions.
C) verbal questions.
D) computer-based questions.
E) group performance.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
54) To comply with human rights laws an interviewer should not ask questions about any of the
following EXCEPT:
54)
A) ethnic background.
B) marital status.
C) educational qualifications.
D) childcare arrangements.
E) workers’ compensation history.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
17
55) The extent to which a selection tool predicts or significantly correlates with important elements of
work behaviour is known as:
55)
A) reliability.
B) content validity.
C) predictive validity.
D) differential validity.
E) criterion-related validity.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
56) Which of the following is true of preliminary applicant screening? 56)
A) It involves eliminating candidates lacking the “nice to have” selection criteria.
B) It may involve candidate interviews.
C) It may involve selection testing.
D) The use of technology is becoming increasingly popular at this stage of the selection process.
E) Initial applicant screening is generally performed by the line managers.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
57) Research findings claim that the interviewer makes up his/her mind about the candidate: 57)
A) immediately after the interview.
B) during the last few minutes of the interview.
C) about half-way through the interview.
D) within the first few minutes of the interview.
E) before the interview even begins.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
58) The best strategy for creating appropriate expectations about the job is: 58)
A) using simulations.
B) using realistic testing.
C) providing a realistic job preview.
D) providing an in-depth interview.
E) giving each applicant a copy of the job description.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
18
59) When several candidates are interviewed simultaneously by a panel, this is referred to as a
________ interview.
59)
A) mass B) sequential C) stress D) patterned E) panel
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
60) Which of the following statements about personality testing is true? 60)
A) Personality tests are not very useful for hiring purposes.
B) The “Big Five” personality dimensions include extroversion, emotional stability,
agreeableness, conscientiousness, and openness to experience.
C) The predictive power of personality tests is generally quite low.
D) Attainment of the full potential of personality testing relates primarily to the careful analysis
of test results.
E) Extroversion is a valid predictor of performance for all occupations.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
61) An example of a behavioural question is: 61)
A) What type of work do you want to be doing in five years?
B) What are the skill areas you must develop?
C) If a co-worker hurt her back, what would you do?
D) Tell me about a time when you managed a situation requiring negotiation.
E) None of the above.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
62) All of the following statements pertaining to the final steps in the selection process are true
EXCEPT:
62)
A) The immediate supervisor generally handles the offer of employment.
B) Candidates should be given a reasonable length of time to think over the job offer.
C) A written offer of employment should always be extended.
D) The initial offer is made by telephone.
E) The offer specifies the starting salary.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
19
63) The screening tool which is most often used by employers in the selection process is: 63)
A) working sampling.
B) interview and personality test.
C) personality test.
D) assessment centre.
E) interview.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
64) All of the following are common interviewer objectives EXCEPT: 64)
A) assessing applicants’ qualifications.
B) promoting the organization.
C) selling their skills.
D) providing candidates with information about the job.
E) observing interpersonal skills.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
65) Personality tests can measure basic aspects of an applicant’s personality, which include all of the
following EXCEPT:
65)
A) introversion.
B) stability.
C) dexterity.
D) neurotic tendency.
E) motivation.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
66) A common interviewing mistake is to make the interview itself mostly a search for: 66)
A) negative information.
B) the ideal candidate.
C) positive information.
D) information about medical history.
E) personal information.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
20
67) According to the 30/70 rule: 67)
A) interviewers should speak 30 percent of the time and interviewees should speak 70 percent of
the time.
B) interviewers should speak 70 percent of the time and interviewees should speak 30 percent of
the time.
C) interviewers should remain silent 30 percent of the time.
D) the interview should be structured to begin with 30 minutes of questions from the interviewer
followed by 70 minutes of questions from the interviewee.
E) interviewees should remain silent 30 percent of the time.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
68) Each of the following is a potential source of unreliability EXCEPT: 68)
A) tiredness of the applicant.
B) changes within the applicant.
C) chance response tendencies.
D) the conditions under which the instrument is administered.
E) There are no exceptions listed above.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
69) All of the following are reasons that employers may include a medical examination as a step in the
selection process EXCEPT:
69)
A) to provide documentation to justify not hiring a qualified individual with a physical disability
that would prevent him or her from performing the essential job duties.
B) to establish a baseline for future insurance or compensation claims.
C) to reduce absenteeism and accidents.
D) to determine that the applicant qualifies for the physical requirements of the position.
E) There are no exceptions listed above.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
21
70) All of the following statements about selection interviews are true EXCEPT: 70)
A) Interviews significantly affect job applicants’ views of the job and firm.
B) Interview objectives include providing job applicants with information about expected duties
of the position.
C) The interview is used by virtually all organizations for selection purposes.
D) Interviews enable the employer to fill in information gaps.
E) Interviews are conducted following testing in a majority of firms.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
71) Toward the end of the interview, time should be allotted to do all of the following EXCEPT: 71)
A) Answer any questions the candidate may have.
B) Advocate for the firm, if appropriate.
C) Thank the interviewee.
D) Advocate for the position, if appropriate.
E) Politely advise a candidate if it has been determined that he or she will not be given further
consideration.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
72) The interview technique that involves questions being asked as they come to mind is known as: 72)
A) mixed.
B) sequential.
C) unstructured.
D) directive.
E) structured.
Answer: C
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
22
73) Examples of strategies used in a typical assessment centre include all of the following EXCEPT: 73)
A) an in-basket exercise.
B) on-the-job training.
C) a leaderless group discussion.
D) individual presentations.
E) objective tests.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
74) Each of the following statements about the legal issues involved in obtaining and providing
reference information is true EXCEPT:
74)
A) As long as reference information is honest, fair, and candid, reference givers are legally
protected.
B) Many companies are adopting a “no reference” policy.
C) Even if negative information is given, if it is imparted in a fair and honest manner, the
reference giver is legally protected.
D) The defence of “qualified privilege” protects reference givers, regardless of the circumstances.
E) Failure to check references can lead to negligent or wrongful hiring suits.
Answer: D
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
75) Selection is a strategic activity in that the ideal individual will possess the: 75)
A) required KSAs, with the right experience.
B) required KSAs, perform well, and fit the organizational culture.
C) required skills, and fit the organizational culture.
D) required skills, technical ability and knowledge.
E) ability to fit with the strategic direction of the organization.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
23
76) Research has shown that those rated as more physically attractive than other candidates are also
rated as:
76)
A) more suitable for employment.
B) unsuitable for employment.
C) less suitable for employment.
D) suitable for temporary employment.
E) equally suitable for employment.
Answer: A
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
77) Tests used to measure knowledge and/or proficiency acquired through education, training and
experience are known as:
77)
A) personality tests.
B) intelligence tests.
C) interest inventories.
D) aptitude tests.
E) achievement tests.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
78) A selection ratio is: 78)
A) the ratio of the total number of applicants to the number of applicants hired.
B) the ratio of the total number of applicants hired to the total number of applicants.
C) the ratio of the number of interviews successfully completed to the total number of
applicants.
D) the ratio of the number of offers extended to the total number of applicants.
E) the cost per hire.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
24
79) Initial applicant screening is typically performed by: 79)
A) line managers.
B) an external recruitment agency.
C) voice-response technology.
D) computer technology.
E) HR professionals.
Answer: E
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
80) The interview format that yields comparable answers and in-depth insights is known as: 80)
A) patterned.
B) mixed.
C) situational.
D) behavioural.
E) stress-producing.
Answer: B
Explanation: A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
TRUE/FALSE. Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
81) Selection is one of the major HR activities by which employment equity goals and timetables are
reached.
81)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
82) Companies have no right to request information regarding the nature of a candidate’s disability,
either from the applicant or the physician performing the medical exam.
82)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
83) Complicating the entire issue of drug testing are employers’ responsibilities under health and
safety legislation.
83)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
84) Criterion-related validity is the extent to which a selection instrument, such as a test, samples the
knowledge and skills needed to perform the job.
84)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
85) IQ tests are tests that measure a single “intelligence” trait. 85)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
25
86) A final selection decision should not be reached until all assessments, including reference checking,
have been completed.
86)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
87) A hiring manager at a law firm asked the law student applying for an articling position with the
firm to demonstrate how he would use on-line resources to locate the latest version of a statute.
This is an example of high content validity.
87)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
88) In many instances, a small selection ratio also means a low quality of recruits. 88)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
89) The hiring manager asked a candidate how he would conduct a performance appraisal interview
for an underperforming report. This is an example of a behavioural interview question.
89)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
90) Management assessment centres include activities and exercises that involve interviews and
individual presentations.
90)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
91) It is common for interviewers to turn interviews into a search for negative information. 91)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
92) Intelligence, verbal skills, analytical ability, and leadership skills are examples of constructs. 92)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
93) Reliability is the accuracy with which a predictor measures what it purports to measure. 93)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
94) Most organizations use the statistical strategy to arrive at a selection decision, since this strategy is
generally more reliable and valid.
94)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
95) There are legal implications associated with ineffective or incompetent selection. 95)
Answer: True False
Explanation:
26
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
96) Differentiate between structured, semi-structured/mixed, and unstructured interviews.
Answer: An unstructured interview is an unstructured, conversational-style interview, where the interviewer
pursues points of interest as they come up in response to questions. A structured interview is an
interview following a set sequence of questions. A mixed, or semi-structured, interview is an interview
format that combines the structured and unstructured techniques.
97) Discuss the legal implications associated with ineffective or incompetent selection.
Answer: Human rights legislation in every Canadian jurisdiction prohibits discrimination in all aspects and terms
and conditions of employment on such grounds as race, religion or creed, colour, marital status, gender,
age, and disability. Firms must ensure that all of their selection procedures are free of both intentional
and systemic discrimination. Failure to do so may result in human rights complaints.
Those organizations required by law to implement an employment equity plan must ensure that all of
their employment systems, including selection, are bias-free and do not have an adverse impact on
members of four designated groups: women, visible minorities, Aboriginal Peoples, and persons with
disabilities.
Another legal implication is employer liability for negligent or wrongful hiring. Courts are increasingly
finding employers liable when employees with unsuitable backgrounds are hired and subsequently
engage in criminal activities falling within the scope of their employment.
98) Selection tools must be both reliable and valid. Explain these terms.
Answer: Reliability refers to the degree to which interviews, tests, and other selection procedures yield
comparable data over a period of time; in other words, the degree of dependability, consistency, or
stability of the measures used.
Validity refers to the accuracy with which a predictor measures what it is supposed to measure. In the
context of selection, validity is an indicator of the extent to which data from a selection technique, such as
a test or interview, are related to or predictive of subsequent performance on the job.
99) List and discuss five common interviewing mistakes:
Answer: Poor planning – conducted without planning and without prepared written questions in advance.
Snap judgments – jump to conclusions during the first few minutes of the interview or before it begins,
based on candidate’s test scores or resume.
Negative emphasis – interviewers may be more influenced by unfavourable than favourable information
Poor knowledge of job – interviewers may not know what the job entails, and what type of candidate is
best suited for job
Contrast error – order in which applicants are seen can affect how they are rated
27
100) You are the Director of Human Resources in an accounting firm and are preparing to advise the hiring manager
in interviewing candidates for articling positions with the firm. You’ve already identified key selection criteria
for the position, which include: excellent analytical skills, ability to work under pressure and the ability to
interact well with clients and coworkers. Generate one situational interview question and one behavioural
interview question for the positions. Be sure to explain how each of the questions is relevant to any of the
selection criteria identified.
Answer: Situational interview question:
· The question must ask a hypothetical situation. It should also ask one or more of the competencies listed
(i.e., have analytical skills, work under pressure, interact well).
· Example: “Assume you got a call from one of your clients at 1 a.m. Sunday. The client said he had
something he needed to discuss immediately. You were in bed when you received the call. How would
you handle the client’s request? The question should set up a specific hypothetical situation.
· For the relevance of the question, the there must be justification that the question examines one or more
of the competencies. (In the case of the example, the question tests knowledge of best practices in
handling client interactions and, to a certain extent, ability to work under pressure.)
Behavioural interview question:
· The question must ask about the candidate’s past experience.
· Example: “Tell me about a time when you had a dispute or disagreement with a coworker. How did you
resolve the issue?”
· For the relevance of the question, the there must be justification that the question examines one or more
of the competencies. (In the case of the example, the question tests ability to interact well with coworkers
and resolve differences.
101) Describe the legal issues involved in obtaining and providing reference information.
Answer: Failure to check references can lead to negligent or wrongful hiring suits that may involve significant
damages. In providing reference information, the concept of qualified privilege is important. Generally
speaking, if comments are made in confidence for a public purpose, without malice, and are honestly
believed, the defence of “qualified privilege” exists. Thus, if honest, fair and candid references are given,
then this doctrine generally protects the reference giver, even if negative information is imparted about
the candidate. Nevertheless, with the fear of civil litigation increasing, more Canadian companies are
adopting a “no reference” policy regarding previous employees or are only willing to confirm the
position held and dates of employment especially in the case of discharged employees.
28
