Learning And Memory From Brain To Behavior 2nd Edition by Mark A. Gluc -Test Bank A+

Description

Suppose a dog is trained to salivate in response to a bell that lasts for three seconds. Draw a generalization gradient that the dog might experience in response to bells of other durations.

2.	Describe an example of generalization in everyday life.

3.	Describe an example of discrimination (as it relates to the study of learning) in everyday life.

4.	Explain why a distributed representation provides a better account of the generalization gradient than a discrete component representation does.

5.

Suppose researchers train a dog to salivate in response to a 1000 Hz tone. They then test for generalization by presenting the 1000 Hz tone as well as tones of other pitches (e.g., 600 Hz, 800 Hz, 1200 Hz, and 1400 Hz). Draw a diagram showing the response of (1) a discrete-component representation and (2) a distributed representation to the original tone and at least one of the other tones.

6.	Describe how one could use discrimination training to teach a rat to distinguish between a red light and a green light.

7.	Draw a generalization gradient that would occur for a yellow light before discrimination training. On the same graph, draw a generalization gradient that would occur for a yellow light after discrimination training.

8.

Suppose researchers train a rat to press a bar when a 1000 Hz tone sounds and a person trains the same rat NOT to press the bar when a 1200 Hz tone sounds. Finally, they test for generalization using the following sounds: (a) 900 Hz, (b) 1000 Hz, (c) 1100 Hz, and (d) 1200 Hz. Draw a graph showing the excitatory and inhibitory gradients and the summation curve showing the peak shift.

9.	Describe a network model that can account for the phenomenon of negative patterning.

10.	What is combinatorial explosion? Why is it a problem in categorization learning?

11.	Describe the procedure used to study sensory preconditioning. Why is sensory preconditioning an important aspect of learning?

12.	Give an example from everyday life that demonstrates acquired equivalence.

13.	Explain how stereotyping is related to the concept of generalization.

14.	Discuss the evidence demonstrating cortical plasticity in A1. Explain what the results imply about the relationship between the stimulus and the consequences.

15.	Describe the role of the nucleus basalis in generalization.

16.	Discuss the evidence suggesting that the hippocampus is important for generalization.

17.	Describe the specific ways that generalization is affected in people with schizophrenia.

Answer Key

1.	Grading criteria: The plot should show the bell duration on the x-axis (e.g., 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 seconds) and the amount of salivation on the y-axis; the curve should show the shape of a typical generalization gradient, such as that in Figure 6.1 in the textbook.
2.	Grading criteria: Example must show that the same (or similar) response is made to different stimuli.
3.	Grading criteria: Example must show that a different response is made to different stimuli.
4.	Grading criteria: Describe the problem with discrete component representations, (i.e., the lack of generalization and how it arises); describe how distributed representations can produce the generalization gradients one can see.
5.	Grading criteria: Diagrams should be similar to Figures 6.2 and 6.4. The discrete-component representation should show a single layer with a response to 1000 Hz and no response to the other tones; the distributed representation should show multiple layers with overlapping components activated by different tones; there should be a strong response to 1000 Hz and a weaker response to other tones.
6.	Grading criteria: Describe a procedure that involves reinforcing a bar press (or other response) in the presence of one of the lights and not reinforcing a bar press in the presence of the other light.
7.	Grading criteria: The gradient for the yellow light before training should be broader than the gradient for the yellow light after training. See Figure 6.6. All axes should be appropriately labeled.
8.	Grading criteria: There should be a positive gradient centered on 1000 Hz and a negative gradient centered on 1200 Hz. The peak shift curve should be centered on 900 Hz. See Figure 6.8.
9.	Grading criteria: Discuss the need for configural nodes. Describe and/or draw a model like that in Figure 6.14 in the textbook.
10.	Grading criteria: Describe the problem of excessive nodes needed to code all possible configurations of features.
11.	Grading criteria: Describe the three-phase procedure as outlined in Table 6.2. Discuss the importance of learning a meaning-based equivalency of stimuli and generalizing in order to be able to predict consequences.
12.	Grading criteria: Example from the textbook—if one learns that two girls both love hamsters and later learns that one of them also loves guppies, one will infer that the other also loves guppies. Any real-life example that demonstrates this idea is sufficient.
13.	Grading criteria: Draw parallels between the two concepts in terms of making the same response (e.g., having the same attitude, same assumptions) to different stimuli (different people in the same racial/ethnic/age/etc. category).
14.	Grading criteria: Discuss A1 neurons changing their best frequency after training, reduced neural responding to a tone presented in isolation, and presenting but not pairing two stimuli, which leads to no change in neural responding. The implication is that cortical change occurs when the stimulus is meaningfully related to the consequences, and not just to the general presentation of a stimulus.
15.	Grading criteria: Discuss ACH projection to the cortex, promoting neural plasticity that includes enlarging the area representing a stimulus. Include a discussion of the input from the amygdala as an indication of the importance of a stimulus.
16.	Grading criteria: Discuss disruption of sensory preconditioning, acquired equivalence, and latent inhibition.
17.	Grading criteria: Discuss acquired-equivalence effects and transitive interference effects; explain what each of these involves and what type of deficit is seen.

Chapter 6 Generalization and Discrimination

1.	The transfer of past learning to new situations and problems is known as:
	A)	negative patterning.
	B)	acquired equivalence.
	C)	generalization.
	D)	discrimination.

2.	Lucy was bitten by a small white dog and now she has a fear of all dogs, regardless of their size or color. This is an example of:
	A)	negative patterning.
	B)	acquired equivalence.
	C)	generalization.
	D)	discrimination.

3.	Martha studied hard for her math test and found that she learned some study habits that helped her study for her physics test. This is an example of:
	A)	generalization.
	B)	discrimination.
	C)	sensory preconditioning.
	D)	negative patterning.

4.	Larry is visiting his grandmother and cooking dinner for her. Since his grandmother has a different model of microwave oven than his, he has learned that he needs to push a different sequence of buttons on his grandmother’s microwave oven when he wants to use it for cooking. This is an example of:
	A)	generalization.
	B)	discrimination.
	C)	sensory preconditioning.
	D)	negative patterning.

5.	Howard can tell from the way his baby cries whether she is hungry, needs changing, is sick, or is tired. This is an example of:
	A)	generalization.
	B)	discrimination.
	C)	sensory preconditioning.
	D)	negative patterning.

6.	The process by which one learns about new categories usually based on common features is known as:
	A)	negative patterning.
	B)	acquired equivalence.
	C)	generalization.
	D)	concept formation.

7.	Freda once became sick after eating pepperoni pizza. Based on the idea of a generalization gradient, which food would she be MOST likely to avoid in the future?
	A)	spaghetti
	B)	broccoli
	C)	ice cream
	D)	sausage pizza

8.	If a generalization gradient were a flat horizontal line, it would mean that:
	A)	very little generalization has occurred.
	B)	a lot of discrimination has occurred.
	C)	a lot of generalization has occurred.
	D)	both generalization and discrimination have occurred.

9.	Suppose a person reinforces a rat for responding to an 800-Hz tone and then observes that its response to a novel 750-Hz tone is about 50 percent of its response to the 800-Hz tone. The lower response to the 750-Hz tone occurs because the rat:
	A)	cannot tell the difference between the two tones, so it responds by guessing.
	B)	expects a 50-percent probability that its response will lead to a reward.
	C)	can hear the 750-Hz tone about half as well as the 800-Hz tone.
	D)	has learned to discriminate between the tones; therefore, it makes different responses to them.

10.	The set of all stimuli that have the same consequence as the training stimulus is called the:
	A)	configural node.
	B)	topographic representation.
	C)	receptive field.
	D)	consequential region.

11.	A set of stimuli in the world that share the same consequence as the stimulus whose consequence is already known is referred to as:
	A)	negative patterning.
	B)	consequential region.
	C)	the generalization gradient.
	D)	learned discrimination.

12.	The shape of generalization gradients shows that two very similar stimuli are _____, while two very different stimuli are _____.
	A)	expected to produce similar consequences; expected to produce different consequences
	B)	expected to produce different consequences; expected to produce similar consequences
	C)	difficult to tell apart; easy to tell apart
	D)	easy to tell apart; difficult to tell apart

13.	_____ representations use a unique node to represent each individual stimulus.
	A)	Discrete-component
	B)	Distributed
	C)	Topographic
	D)	Consequential

14.	The form in which information about stimuli is encoded within a model or brain is:
	A)	discrete-component representation.
	B)	stimulus representation.
	C)	the generalization gradient.
	D)	the configural node.

15.	When a discrete-component representation is used, there is:
	A)	a lot of generalization.
	B)	no generalization.
	C)	no discrimination.
	D)	no discrimination or generalization.

16.	If one trains a discrete-component model to respond to a blue light, how will it respond to a blue-green light?
	A)	It will respond as strongly as it does to the blue light.
	B)	It will respond less strongly than it does to the blue light.
	C)	It will respond more strongly than it does to the blue light.
	D)	It will not respond at all to the blue-green light.

17.	In a _____ representation, stimuli are represented by overlapping sets of nodes or stimulus elements.
	A)	discrete-component
	B)	distributed
	C)	topographic
	D)	consequential

18.	The theory that states that the probability of a response will increase or decrease depending on the outcome that follows is:
	A)	stimulus sampling theory.
	B)	the law of effects.
	C)	the connectionist model.
	D)	distributed representation.

19.	An automatic filtering based on information from a large number of other people’s past behaviors is called:
	A)	distributed representations.
	B)	collaborative filtering.
	C)	the generalization gradient.
	D)	stimulus sampling theory.

20.	The process by which websites use a form of generalization to predict what one would buy is called:
	A)	discrete-component representation.
	B)	distributed representations.
	C)	the generalization gradient.
	D)	collaborative filtering.

21.	In a _____ representation, nodes or neurons responding to physically similar stimuli are near each other.
	A)	discrete-component
	B)	distributed
	C)	topographic
	D)	consequential

22.	The discrete-component model and the distributed model differ in that only the:
	A)	discrete-component model includes input nodes.
	B)	distributed model includes input nodes.
	C)	discrete-component model includes an internal representation layer.
	D)	distributed model includes an internal representation layer.

23.	If one trains a distributed model to respond to a blue light and then presents it with a blue-green light, it responds to the blue-green light because:
	A)	both lights activate the same input nodes.
	B)	the weights from the input nodes to the internal representation layer are fixed.
	C)	both lights activate some of the same nodes in the internal representation layer.
	D)	the blue-green input node activates the blue input node.

24.	Which model(s) can account for generalization?
	A)	only discrete-component models
	B)	only distributed models
	C)	both discrete-component and distributed models
	D)	neither discrete-component nor distributed models

25.	In the network model, each stimulus activates an input node that is connected by a layer of fixed weights to several nodes. This is known as:
	A)	stimulus sampling theory.
	B)	internal representation.
	C)	the connectionist model.
	D)	distributed representation.

26.	The mediation of behavior through responses to cues in the world is known as:
	A)	stimulus sampling theory.
	B)	distributed representation.
	C)	discrimination learning.
	D)	stimulus control.

27.	Sleep experts routinely advise good sleep hygiene that consist of:
	A)	soothing auditory stimulation.
	B)	promoting wakeful behavior.
	C)	limiting one’s bedroom stimulus.
	D)	reading a book to promote relaxation.

28.	If two stimuli differ within a single dimension—for example, tone frequency—the paradigm is referred to as:
	A)	extradimensional discrimination.
	B)	intradimensional discrimination.
	C)	the discrete-component model.
	D)	the generalization gradient.

29.	Stimuli that differ across multiple dimensions for example tones and lights are known as:
	A)	extradimensional discrimination.
	B)	intradimensional discrimination.
	C)	the discrete-component model.
	D)	the generalization gradient.

30.	Compared with the generalization gradient that is observed when no discrimination training is given, the generalization gradient that is observed after discrimination training is:
	A)	shallower.
	B)	steeper.
	C)	the same.
	D)	shallower or steeper, depending on the stimulus.

31.	In the peak-shift effect, the maximum response during generalization is:
	A)	to the nonreinforced stimulus.
	B)	to the reinforced stimulus.
	C)	shifted toward the nonreinforced stimulus.
	D)	shifted away from the nonreinforced stimulus.

32.	Suppose one trains a dog to come running for food when one whistles a 60 dB whistle and also trains the same dog to NOT come running when one whistles a 70 dB whistle. According to the peak-shift effect, which whistle would then lead to the dog’s fastest running?
	A)	50 dB
	B)	60 dB
	C)	70 dB
	D)	80 dB

33.	According to Spence, the peak-shift effect occurs because the:
	A)	observed response is given by the difference between the excitatory and inhibitory generalization gradients.
	B)	organism ignores the excitatory generalization gradient.
	C)	organism ignores both the excitatory and the inhibitory generalization gradients.
	D)	observed response is given by the inhibitory generalization gradient.

34.	A training procedure in which difficult discrimination is learned by starting with an easy version of the task and proceeding to incrementally harder versions as the easier ones are mastered is referred to as _____ learning.
	A)	consequential
	B)	discrimination
	C)	errorless discrimination
	D)	integral

35.	If parents use training wheels to aid their child in learning to ride a two-wheeler, they have adopted a variation of _____ learning.
	A)	consequential
	B)	discrimination
	C)	errorless discrimination
	D)	integral

36.	Errorless discrimination learning does have some significant drawbacks. While it produces _____ and _____ learning of discriminations, later studies have shown that it is rigid and inflexible.
	A)	frustration; weak
	B)	lasting; essential
	C)	rapid; strong
	D)	slow; tedious

37.	Training in which presentation of two stimuli together as a compound results in a later tendency to generalize what is known about one of these stimuli to the other is known as:
	A)	consequential learning.
	B)	sensory preconditioning.
	C)	error discrimination learning.
	D)	integral learning.

38.	What is the name of the phenomenon in which prior presentation of a compound stimulus results in a later tendency for learning about one stimulus of the compound to generalize to the other stimulus?
	A)	acquired equivalence
	B)	sensory preconditioning
	C)	discrimination training
	D)	negative patterning

39.	Chloe learned that babies who cry a lot also have trouble sleeping. When she later learned that babies who have trouble sleeping tend to be highly intelligent, she inferred that babies who cry a lot are also highly intelligent. This relationship is an example of:
	A)	acquired equivalence.
	B)	sensory preconditioning.
	C)	discrimination training.
	D)	negative patterning.

40.	Suppose one pairs a light and a tone in the first phase of a sensory preconditioning paradigm. If one then pairs just the light with a food pellet, such that the light elicits a salivation response, the tone presented alone will:
	A)	elicit no response.
	B)	elicit salivation only if the light is presented at the same time.
	C)	suppress salivation.
	D)	also elicit salivation.

41.	Gavin often gets punched by Tyler, the school bully. Gavin is also afraid of Tyler’s twin brother, Tristan, since Tristan looks just like Tyler. This is an example of:
	A)	similarity-based generalization.
	B)	meaning-based generalization.
	C)	negative patterning.
	D)	sensory preconditioning.

42.	Dylan and Aaron both enjoy foreign films. If a person later learns that Dylan also enjoys riding dirt bikes, the person may infer that Aaron also enjoys riding dirt bikes. This is an example of:
	A)	acquired equivalence.
	B)	sensory preconditioning.
	C)	discrimination training.
	D)	negative patterning.

43.	According to the text, the compound exposure in phase 1 establishes an association between the tone and light. In phase 2, the light becomes associated with the air puff, and this learning is directly transferred to the tone, too. This is referred to as:
	A)	similarity-based generalization.
	B)	meaning-based generalization.
	C)	acquired equivalence.
	D)	stimulus generalization.

44.	If one uses a red light and a blue light as stimuli in a negative-patterning task, one would reward responding:
	A)	to one light but not the other.
	B)	only when both lights are on at the same time.
	C)	only to a purple light.
	D)	to either light alone but not when both are on at the same time.

45.	Negative patterning is difficult to learn because it requires the organism to suppress its tendency to:
	A)	make a motor response.
	B)	discriminate.
	C)	categorize.
	D)	generalize.

46.	Aidan plays well with his brother and with his sister, but, when Aidan tries to play with both of them together, the three of them just end up arguing. This is an example of:
	A)	discrimination training.
	B)	negative patterning.
	C)	sensory preconditioning.
	D)	acquired equivalence.

47.	A detector for a unique configuration of two cues such as a certain tone and light is known as:
	A)	similarity-based generalization.
	B)	acquired equivalence.
	C)	negative patterning.
	D)	configural nodes.

48.	In a single-layer network using a discrete-component representation, negative patterning:
	A)	is represented by assigning a weight of 1 to one stimulus and a weight of 0 to the other.
	B)	is represented by assigning a weight of 1 to both stimuli and a weight of 0 to their combination.
	C)	is represented by assigning a weight of 1 to both stimuli and to their combination.
	D)	cannot be represented in any way that would make the network respond correctly.

49.	Which statement is TRUE regarding configural nodes?
	A)	They are part of the input layer of a discrete-component representation.
	B)	They are part of the input layer of a distributed representation.
	C)	They respond only when a combination of input nodes are active.
	D)	Their connection to the output node has a positive weight.

50.	In negative patterning, the connection from a configural node to the output node is given a:
	A)	negative weight that cancels the weights from the individual cues, leading to no response to the compound stimulus.
	B)	negative weight that cancels the weights from the individual cues, leading to an increased response to the compound stimulus.
	C)	weight of 0, leading to no response to the compound stimulus.
	D)	weight of 0, leading to an increased response to the compound stimulus.

51.	A psychological representation of a category of objects, events, or people in the world is referred to as a:
	A)	concept.
	B)	category.
	C)	prototype.
	D)	node.

52.	A division or class of entities in the world is referred to as a:
	A)	concept.
	B)	category.
	C)	prototype.
	D)	node.

53.	The process by which animals and humans learn to classify stimuli into categories is known as:
	A)	discrimination learning.
	B)	category learning.
	C)	configural learnaing.
	D)	negative patterning

54.	The rapid expansion of resources required to encode configurations as their number of component features increases produces:
	A)	the consequential region.
	B)	a combinatorial explosion.
	C)	the generalization gradient.
	D)	a topographic representation.

55.	One solution to the problem of combinatorial explosion is to design a network in which:
	A)	there is no internal representation layer.
	B)	nodes in the internal layer can be designated as configural nodes as needed.
	C)	the weights between the input nodes and the internal layer are fixed weights.
	D)	the weights between the output nodes and the internal layer are fixed weights.

56.	The central tendency of an idealized version of a concept or category is referred to as the:
	A)	structure.
	B)	category.
	C)	concept.
	D)	prototype.

57.	_____ is a logical inference that is probably true and is usually based on attempts to draw a general rule from one or more specific instances or premises.
	A)	Discrimination learning
	B)	Inductive reasoning
	C)	Inductive inference
	D)	Negative patterning

58.	It is obvious that all criminals have mothers. However, it is untrue that people who have mothers are criminals. This is an example of what type of reasoning?
	A)	inductive inference
	B)	natural categories
	C)	negative patterning
	D)	inverse reasoning

59.	Which statement is TRUE regarding the primary sensory cortices?
	A)	There is a specific cortical region dedicated to processing information from each sensory modality.
	B)	Each region of the cortex responds preferentially to a particular type of stimulus.
	C)	Neighboring cortical regions respond to similar stimuli.
	D)	All of the statements are true.

60.	The homunculus in S1:
	A)	exaggerates some parts of the body and de-emphasizes others.
	B)	represents each body part equally.
	C)	represents the feet at the base of the cortex and the head at the top of the cortex.
	D)	has no representation of the face.

61.	The receptive field properties of A1 neurons can be explained by:
	A)	the consequential region.
	B)	the homunculus.
	C)	distributed representations.
	D)	discrete-component representations.

62.	If one lesions the primary auditory cortex of a cat, the cat will:
	A)	not be able to respond to any tones.
	B)	be able to respond only to a particular tone.
	C)	not be able to discriminate between different tones.
	D)	not be able to generalize different tones.

63.	If one lesions the primary auditory cortex of a cat, the generalization gradient:
	A)	becomes negative.
	B)	acquires two or more peaks.
	C)	acquires a much sharper peak.
	D)	flattens out.

64.	If a tone and shock are repeatedly paired, neurons in A1:
	A)	reduce their responding to the tone.
	B)	change their best frequency to correspond with that of the tone.
	C)	do not change their response to the tone.
	D)	reduce their response to tones of similar frequency.

65.	The different sensory cortices receive information about:
	A)	whether a salient event has occurred.
	B)	the other sensory modalities.
	C)	the nature of an important consequence.
	D)	the type of response to make.

66.	The nucleus basalis:
	A)	provides information regarding whether consequences are good or bad.
	B)	selects what information enters memory and how it is to be encoded by other brain regions.
	C)	sends output to the cortex to enable cortical remapping.
	D)	compresses redundant or unimportant information.

67.	Damage to the basal forebrain can cause what type of disorder?
	A)	dissociative fugue
	B)	anterograde amnesia
	C)	retrograde amnesia
	D)	cortical remapping

68.	_____ is a neurotransmitter that has many functions in the brain, including the promotion of neural plasticity.
	A)	Acetylcholine
	B)	The nucleus basalis
	C)	The amygdala
	D)	Serotonin

69.	The hippocampus and associated brain regions, including the entorhinal cortex and dentate gyrus, are known as the:
	A)	amygdala.
	B)	hippocampal region.
	C)	parahippocampal region.
	D)	perirhinal cortex.

70.	The medial surface of the temporal lobe that contains the hippocampus, the amygdala, and other structures important for memory is referred to as the:
	A)	medial temporal lobe.
	B)	hippocampal region.
	C)	parahippocampal region.
	D)	perirhinal cortex.

71.	Suppose a person lesions the hippocampus of a rabbit. The person presents a blue light and a yellow light together for several trials, and then presents just the yellow light followed by a shock until the rabbit is startled by the yellow light alone. How will the lesioned rabbit respond if the person now presents just the blue light?
	A)	It will startle to the blue light, but not as strongly as it does to the yellow light.
	B)	It will startle just as strongly to the blue light as it does to the yellow light.
	C)	It will startle even more strongly to the blue light than it does to the yellow light.
	D)	It will not startle to the blue light at all.

72.	In a sensory preconditioning experiment, lesions to the hippocampal area lead to a(n) _____ in the CR in the _____ exposure condition.
	A)	decrease; compound
	B)	increase; compound
	C)	decrease; separate
	D)	increase; separate

73.	Lesions of the hippocampal region lead to:
	A)	enhanced acquired equivalence.
	B)	impaired acquired equivalence.
	C)	increased generalization between stimuli that have co-occurred in the past.
	D)	enhanced latent inhibition.

74.	Gluck and Myers have proposed a model of the hippocampal region in which the hippocampus:
	A)	compresses useful or predictive information.
	B)	expands redundant or unimportant information.
	C)	stores the stimulus–response associations that control motor outputs.
	D)	selects what information enters the memory and how it is to be encoded.

75.	According to Gluck and Myers’ model, the hippocampal region should be MOST active:
	A)	throughout training.
	B)	at the end of training.
	C)	early in training.
	D)	after an association has been learned.

76.	Which characteristic is seen in people with schizophrenia?
	A)	increased activity in the hippocampus
	B)	smaller volume of the hippocampus
	C)	normal shape of the hippocampus
	D)	overgeneralization of learned associations

77.	On an acquired-equivalence task, people with schizophrenia:
	A)	perform as well as controls but take more time.
	B)	cannot perform any part of the task.
	C)	perform normally only in the third phase.
	D)	can learn the initial discrimination but cannot generalize in the third phase.

78.	In people with schizophrenia, antipsychotic medications appear to:
	A)	remove the enhanced acquired-equivalence effects that are normally present.
	B)	increase even more the enhanced acquired-equivalence effects that are normally present.
	C)	remove some of the acquired-equivalence deficits.
	D)	increase some of the acquired-equivalence deficits.

79.	Which finding confirms Gluck and Myers’s prediction regarding the role of the hippocampus in generalization?
	A)	People with schizophrenia display reduced acquired-equivalency effects.
	B)	Antipsychotic medications can affect acquired equivalence.
	C)	Activity in the hippocampus during generalization trials on an acquired-equivalency task is correlated with accuracy.
	D)	Activity in the hippocampus during learning trials on an acquired-equivalency task is correlated with accuracy.

80.	Suppose one gives the following information to a patient with schizophrenia: Joe is taller than Frank; Frank is taller than Jim; Jim is taller than Mike; and Mike is taller than Steve. With which comparison would the patient have the MOST difficulty?
	A)	comparing Joe with Frank
	B)	comparing Steve with Jim
	C)	comparing Frank with Mike
	D)	comparing Mike with Steve

81.	_____ is a tendency to ignore information that conflicts with prior belief and focus on information that is consistent with that belief.
	A)	Discrimination
	B)	Stereotypes
	C)	Confirmation bias
	D)	Racism

82.	If a business owner continues for years to hire people who have Harvard degrees, never realizing that he would have done better if he had hired a brilliant summa cum laude from a local university who he didn’t bother to interview, what is the business owner exhibiting?
	A)	discrimination
	B)	stereotypes
	C)	confirmation bias
	D)	racism

83.	Which statement is TRUE of stereotypes?
	A)	They are problematic mainly when they are not applied rigidly enough.
	B)	They are rarely useful for guiding behavior.
	C)	They reflect one’s basic tendency to generalize in order to predict future events.
	D)	All of the statements are true.

84.	_____ and _____ are fundamental tools for one’s survival.
	A)	Discrimination; stereotypes
	B)	Generalization; categorization
	C)	Confirmation bias; risk association
	D)	Racism; concept formation

85.	_____ is a set of beliefs about the attributes of the members of a group.
	A)	Discrimination
	B)	Stereotype
	C)	Confirmation bias
	D)	Racism

Answer Key

1.	C
2.	C
3.	A
4.	B
5.	B
6.	D
7.	D
8.	C
9.	B
10.	D
11.	B
12.	A
13.	A
14.	B
15.	B
16.	D
17.	B
18.	B
19.	B
20.	D
21.	C
22.	D
23.	C
24.	B
25.	B
26.	D
27.	C
28.	B
29.	A
30.	B
31.	D
32.	A
33.	A
34.	C
35.	C
36.	C
37.	B
38.	B
39.	B
40.	D
41.	A
42.	A
43.	B
44.	D
45.	D
46.	B
47.	D
48.	D
49.	C
50.	A
51.	A
52.	B
53.	B
54.	B
55.	B
56.	D
57.	C
58.	D
59.	D
60.	A
61.	C
62.	C
63.	D
64.	B
65.	A
66.	C
67.	B
68.	A
69.	B
70.	A
71.	D
72.	A
73.	B
74.	D
75.	C
76.	B
77.	D
78.	C
79.	D
80.	C
81.	C
82.	C
83.	C
84.	B
85.	B

Chapter 6 Web Quiz Questions

1.	Jasmine quickly learned that she needed to use different techniques to calm her second child than those that had worked with her first child. This is an example of:
	A)	generalization.
	B)	discrimination.
	C)	sensory preconditioning.
	D)	negative patterning.

2.	As a child, Hunter had a favorite pet, a black furry cat that made him very happy. Based on the concept of a generalization gradient, which type of cat would be MOST likely to make Hunter happy now?
	A)	a dark gray cat
	B)	a yellow cat
	C)	a white cat
	D)	a calico cat

3.	Discrete-component representations provide a good description of:
	A)	the generalization gradient.
	B)	how animals learn negative patterning.
	C)	learning about highly dissimilar stimuli.
	D)	configural learning in categorization.

4.	A distributed representation is one in which:
	A)	stimuli are represented by overlapping pools of nodes or stimulus elements.
	B)	nodes or neurons responding to physically similar stimuli are near each other.
	C)	a unique node is used to represent each individual stimulus feature.
	D)	all of the nodes detect unique combinations of cues.

5.	In a topographic representation:
	A)	each possible stimulus is represented by its own unique node.
	B)	stimuli are represented by overlapping pools of nodes.
	C)	neighboring cortical regions respond to similar stimuli.
	D)	weights are changed according to the Rescorla-Wagner rule.

6.	The mediation of behavior through responses to cues in the world is known as:
	A)	stimulus sampling theory.
	B)	distributed representation.
	C)	discrimination learning.
	D)	stimulus control.

7.	In the peak shift effect, discrimination training results in a maximum response to:
	A)	the nonrewarded stimulus.
	B)	the rewarded stimulus.
	C)	a stimulus value that is closer to the nonreinforced stimulus value.
	D)	a stimulus value that is far away from the nonreinforced stimulus value.

8.	Sienna learned that many vegetables tend to be green in color. When she later learned in school that vegetables are healthy, she inferred that foods that are green are healthy. That she made this inference is an example of:
	A)	acquired equivalence.
	B)	sensory preconditioning.
	C)	discrimination training.
	D)	negative patterning.

9.	Preston enjoys listening to piano music, and he enjoys listening to violin music, but he dislikes hearing both instruments played together in a duet. This is an example of:
	A)	discrimination training.
	B)	negative patterning.
	C)	sensory preconditioning.
	D)	acquired equivalence.

10.	A detector for a unique configuration of two cues such as a certain tone and light is known as:
	A)	similarity-based generalization.
	B)	acquired equivalence.
	C)	negative patterning.
	D)	configural nodes.

11.	To enable a network to accomplish negative patterning, one can:
	A)	use combinatorial explosion.
	B)	include consequential regions.
	C)	include shared elements.
	D)	use configural nodes.

12.	The primary sensory cortices are involved in determining:
	A)	which stimuli deserve expanded cortical representation.
	B)	what consequence has occurred following a response.
	C)	what information has been received in other sensory modalities.
	D)	what type of behavioral response should be made to a stimulus.

13.	Lesions to the hippocampus lead to:
	A)	impaired performance on sensory preconditioning tasks but not on acquired equivalence tasks.
	B)	impaired performance on acquired equivalence tasks but not on sensory preconditioning tasks.
	C)	impaired performance on both acquired equivalence and sensory preconditioning tasks.
	D)	normal performance on both acquired equivalence and sensory preconditioning tasks.

14.	The hippocampal region seems to be important for:
	A)	learning a stimulus-response association.
	B)	determining what information is allowed to enter memory.
	C)	maintaining a topographic map of sensory stimuli.
	D)	encouraging cortical remapping to enhance the response to a stimulus.

15.	If one tells a person with schizophrenia that both Julie and Stephanie like apples more than oranges, and Julie also likes carrots more than peppers, what would the patient have the MOST trouble with?
	A)	remembering that Julie prefers apples
	B)	remembering that Julie prefers carrots
	C)	inferring that Stephanie prefers carrots
	D)	inferring that Stephanie prefers peppers

Answer Key

1.	B
2.	A
3.	C
4.	A
5.	C
6.	D
7.	D
8.	B
9.	B
10.	D
11.	D
12.	A
13.	C
14.	B
15.	C

Chapter 7 Episodic and Semantic Memory

1.	The famous patient known as H.M.:
	A)	continued to have severe and frequent epileptic seizures after his surgery.
	B)	suffered from severe anterograde amnesia.
	C)	lost several IQ points.
	D)	was able to recognize only those researchers who have been working with him for many years.

2.	According to Endel Tulving, which type of memory stores specific autobiographical events?
	A)	episodic
	B)	semantic
	C)	implicit
	D)	nondeclarative

3.	According to Endel Tulving, which type of memory stores facts and general world knowledge?
	A)	episodic
	B)	semantic
	C)	implicit
	D)	nondeclarative

4.	Which statement is an example of an episodic memory?
	A)	One remembers the details of one’s first date.
	B)	One remembers how to tie one’s shoes.
	C)	One knows that birds fly.
	D)	One knows the name of one’s state capital.

5.	Which statement is an example of semantic memory?
	A)	One remembers eating chicken last night for dinner.
	B)	One remembers learning how to ride a bicycle.
	C)	One remembers seeing the word “giraffe” in Chapter 7.
	D)	One knows that lemons have a sour taste.

6.	One can remember what happened on one’s first day of school by using _____ memory.
	A)	episodic
	B)	semantic
	C)	implicit
	D)	nondeclarative

7.	Which statement is FALSE regarding semantic memory?
	A)	It can be communicated in a format other than that in which it was acquired.
	B)	It is consciously accessible.
	C)	It is tagged with spatial and temporal context.
	D)	It can be strengthened with repetition.

8.	Which statement demonstrates that some memories are accessible to conscious recollection?
	A)	One is able to describe what one’s new house looks like, even if it is never described before.
	B)	One knows that one has the knowledge that the Earth is round.
	C)	People with amnesia are able to learn a new skill without realizing they have learned it.
	D)	One can read, even though one can’t remember learning this skill.

9.	If one were shown a picture of graduation taken from a different vantage point from where one was seated, one would likely still be able to recognize the scene. This demonstrates that memories:
	A)	are consciously accessible.
	B)	are tagged with spatial and temporal context.
	C)	can be communicated flexibly.
	D)	can be acquired in a single exposure.

10.	Which statement is TRUE regarding episodic memory?
	A)	It can be communicated in a format other than that in which it was acquired.
	B)	It involves memories for factual, rather than autobiographical, information.
	C)	It is independent of spatial and temporal context.
	D)	Several exposures to the information are necessary in order to record episodic memory.

11.	The types of memories that are NOT always consciously accessible and are difficult to verbalize are called _____ memories.
	A)	episodic
	B)	explicit
	C)	declarative
	D)	nondeclarative

12.	Episodic memories are _____ memories, and semantic memories are _____ memories.
	A)	declarative; nondeclarative
	B)	nondeclarative; declarative
	C)	nondeclarative; nondeclarative
	D)	declarative; declarative

13.	H.M. could learn to read mirror-reversed text. This is an example of:
	A)	implicit memory.
	B)	explicit memory.
	C)	declarative memory.
	D)	metamemory.

14.	One difference between episodic and semantic memory is that episodic memory _____, while semantic memory _____.
	A)	is part of declarative memory; is part of nondeclarative memory
	B)	does not have autobiographical content; has autobiographical content
	C)	is acquired in a single exposure; usually requires several exposures
	D)	is part of explicit memory; is part of implicit memory

15.	If one has recently attended several parties, one may have a hard time remembering the details of the events that occurred at any one particular party. That person’s difficulty demonstrates that a(n) _____ memory can be _____ by exposure to similar information.
	A)	semantic; weakened
	B)	semantic; strengthened
	C)	episodic; weakened
	D)	episodic; strengthened

16.	Tulving proposed that:
	A)	episodic memory grows out of semantic memory.
	B)	semantic memory grows out of episodic memory.
	C)	episodic and semantic memories arise at the same time.
	D)	whether episodic or semantic memory comes first depends on the age at which the memory is acquired.

17.	Which statement demonstrates Tulving’s idea about when episodic and semantic memories develop?
	A)	One must go on a picnic before one can learn what a picnic is.
	B)	One must know what a picnic is before one can remember going on a picnic.
	C)	One learns what a picnic is at the same time as one experiences going on a picnic.
	D)	One can remember going on a picnic without having to know what a picnic is.

18.	One knows that cows produce milk. If this knowledge has grown out of one’s repeated experiences observing cows being milked, this would suggest that:
	A)	episodic memory grows out of semantic memory.
	B)	semantic memory grows out of episodic memory.
	C)	episodic memories are learned in a single exposure.
	D)	semantic memories are learned in a single exposure.

19.	Which statement explains the relationship between episodic and semantic memory?
	A)	Episodic memory grows out of semantic memory.
	B)	Semantic memory grows out of episodic memory.
	C)	Episodic and semantic memories are interdependent.
	D)	All of the statements are correct.

20.	According to Tulving and other researchers the ability to maintain episodic memories requires the ability to:
	A)	remember how to escape an unpleasant situation such as avoiding shock.
	B)	remember spatial layout such as in a maze.
	C)	express knowledge in a nonverbal way.
	D)	perform “mental time-travel” to relive and review past experiences.

21.	According to Tulving, animals cannot maintain episodic memories because animals:
	A)	are usually unable to remember where food is located.
	B)	cannot learn how to avoid electric shock.
	C)	do not have a sense of self.
	D)	have a keen sense of the passage of time.

22.	Which statement demonstrates that nonhuman animals may possess episodic memory?
	A)	Gorillas can learn to name fruits by using cards with pictures of the fruits on them.
	B)	Gorillas can remember which fruit they ate yesterday and who gave it to them.
	C)	Rats can learn that pressing a bar produces a food reward.
	D)	Rats can learn that pressing a bar will prevent them from receiving an electric shock.

23.	Evidence suggests that nonhuman animals probably have:
	A)	episodic but not semantic memory.
	B)	semantic but not episodic memory.
	C)	semantic and episodic memory.
	D)	neither semantic nor episodic memory.

24.	When the BBC played an announcement 25 times a day for several weeks, listeners’ memories for the announcement _____, demonstrating that mere exposure to information _____.
	A)	improved; does not improve memory
	B)	did not improve; improves memory
	C)	improved; improves memory
	D)	did not improve; does not improve memory

25.	Mere exposure to visual details on coins:
	A)	increased memory for the details.
	B)	decreased memory for the details.
	C)	had no impact on memory for the details.
	D)	increased the perceived value of the coins.

26.	In a 1972 study, Bransford and Johnson read an abstract passage aloud to participants who then had to recall as much information as possible. Some participants were also shown a picture that was described by the passage either before or after they heard the passage read. The results of this study demonstrated that memory is better when the information:
	A)	can be interpreted in the context of things one already knows.
	B)	is presented multiple times.
	C)	is presented as a verbal description rather than as a picture.
	D)	is presented as a picture rather than as a verbal description.

27.	In a 1972 study, Bransford and Johnson read an abstract passage aloud to participants who then had to recall as much information as possible. Some participants were also shown a picture that was described by the passage either before or after they heard the passage read. Which group remembered the MOST information?
	A)	people who saw the picture after hearing the passage
	B)	people who saw the picture before hearing the passage
	C)	people who did not see any picture
	D)	people who drew their own picture while the passage was being read

28.	According to the findings of Bransford and Johnson regarding the effects of context on memory, one will remember material from the course lectures BEST if he:
	A)	studies it immediately after the lecture.
	B)	draws pictures of the lecture material.
	C)	reads the assigned chapter before attending the lecture.
	D)	processes the material at a deep level.

29.	Which of these states that the more deeply one analyzes information, the more likely one is to encode the information in memory and subsequently remember it later?
	A)	transfer-appropriate processing
	B)	cryptomnesia
	C)	levels of processing
	D)	consolidation period

30.	According to level of processing idea which decision would lead to the BEST memory for a word?
	A)	deciding whether the word contains the letter “e”
	B)	deciding how the word would sound when pronounced backwards
	C)	deciding whether the word rhymes with another word
	D)	deciding whether the word makes sense in a sentence

31.	What did Davachi et al. find when they used fMRI to examine brain activity during a levels-of-processing task?
	A)	Brain activation did not differ for tasks that involved different levels of processing.
	B)	There was differential brain activation for tasks that involved different levels of processing.
	C)	Brain activation depended more on how often the participants rehearsed the material than on how deeply it was processed.
	D)	The results were inconclusive.

32.	_____ states that retrieval is MORE likely if the cues available at recall are similar to those that were available at encoding.
	A)	Consolidation period
	B)	Depth of processing
	C)	Transfer-appropriate processing
	D)	Proactive interference

33.	If one runs into a professor in the grocery store, one may be less likely to recognize her than when one sees her in a regular classroom. This demonstrates the phenomenon of:
	A)	transfer-appropriate processing.
	B)	proactive interference.
	C)	retroactive interference.
	D)	source amnesia.

34.	According to the phenomenon of transfer-appropriate processing, if one encodes a list of words by thinking about whether they rhyme with other words, one will recall the list BEST if the test requires one to recognize words that:
	A)	start with the same letter as the words one learned.
	B)	rhyme with the words one learned.
	C)	are synonyms for the words one learned.
	D)	are antonyms for the words one learned.

35.	The phenomenon of transfer-appropriate processing effect suggests that:
	A)	deep processing is always the best way to remember things.
	B)	deep processing works only if the test requires attention to physical attributes of the stimuli.
	C)	shallow processing is always the best way to remember things.
	D)	the best way to remember something depends on the type of test that is used.

36.	Godden and Baddeley (1975) found that the divers who remembered the most were the ones who:
	A)	learned and were tested in different environments.
	B)	learned and were tested in the same environment.
	C)	learned underwater.
	D)	were tested underwater.

37.	Many students consider multiple-choice exams to be easier than essay exams. This is because multiple-choice test items:
	A)	contain more memory cues than essay exams.
	B)	contain fewer memory cues than essay exams.
	C)	involve free recall rather than recognition.
	D)	involve free recall rather than cued recall.

38.	Which type of exam question is the BEST example of a free-recall question?
	A)	essay
	B)	multiple-choice
	C)	fill-in-the-blank
	D)	matching

39.	The memory test that involves generating information from memory is called _____, while the memory test that involves picking the correct answer from a list of possible options is called _____.
	A)	free recall; cued recall
	B)	free recall; recognition
	C)	recognition; free recall
	D)	recognition; cued recall

40.	Strategies for making information more memorable and easier to recall are known as:
	A)	declarative cues.
	B)	transient cues.
	C)	mnemonics.
	D)	Ribot gradients.

41.	People who have extraordinary memory abilities:
	A)	are also better at remembering everyday things such as where they left their keys.
	B)	do not use mnemonics to help them remember things.
	C)	have a larger hippocampus than people with ordinary memories.
	D)	show similar brain anatomy to people with ordinary memories.

42.	The research on how quickly people forget after having learned something has shown that:
	A)	material is forgotten at a fairly constant rate.
	B)	forgetting is most rapid during the first few days after learning.
	C)	forgetting is slow during the first few days after learning and gradually increases over time.
	D)	forgetting is rapid during the first few days after learning, then slows down, and eventually increases again.

43.	In the directed forgetting task, participants are asked to:
	A)	encode information at different levels.
	B)	recall a childhood event that they had forgotten about.
	C)	recall a list of words that are related to a “theme” word.
	D)	forget something that they’ve learned.

44.	In the directed forgetting task, participants can typically:
	A)	forget all of the information they are instructed to forget.
	B)	forget much of the information they are instructed to forget.
	C)	recall less of the information they are instructed to remember.
	D)	recall all of the information they are instructed to forget.

45.	When two memories overlap in content, the strength of either or both memories may be reduced. This is known as:
	A)	interference.
	B)	false memory.
	C)	source amnesia.
	D)	consolidation.

46.	Proactive interference is when:
	A)	one remembers a fact but attributes it to the wrong source.
	B)	one remembers something that never happened.
	C)	old information disrupts new learning.
	D)	new information disrupts old learning.

47.	Suppose a person buys a new remote control for the television, and the person is having a hard time remembering where the buttons are because they are arranged differently than they were on the old remote control. This is an example of:
	A)	retroactive interference.
	B)	proactive interference.
	C)	source amnesia.
	D)	false memory.

48.	Suppose one meets two new people at a party. One has trouble remembering the name of the first person one met because the name of the second person keeps coming to mind instead. This is an example of:
	A)	retroactive interference.
	B)	proactive interference.
	C)	source amnesia.
	D)	false memory.

49.	When one remembers information but is mistaken about the specific episode that is the source, this is known as:
	A)	retroactive interference.
	B)	proactive interference.
	C)	source monitoring error.
	D)	source amnesia.

50.	To create a memorable yet secure password one should:
	A)	make one’s password relatively short.
	B)	create a password that is not meaningful to one.
	C)	write one’s password on a piece of paper.
	D)	write a hint or clue on a piece of paper.

51.	Remembering an event that never actually happened is known as:
	A)	false memory.
	B)	source amnesia.
	C)	anterograde amnesia.
	D)	interference.

52.	When Loftus tried to implant false memories of being lost in a shopping mall, she found that:
	A)	nearly everyone formed a false memory.
	B)	nobody formed a false memory.
	C)	about 25 percent of people formed a false memory.
	D)	most people formed a false memory of a hot-air balloon ride instead of being lost in a mall.

53.	In several studies, participants were given a list of related words to learn, such as DREAM, AWAKE, REST, and TIRED. When later asked if they recognized the “theme” word (e.g., SLEEP), which had never been presented, it was found that they:
	A)	often falsely recognized the theme word.
	B)	usually correctly rejected the theme word.
	C)	falsely recognized the theme word but failed to recognize the studied words.
	D)	falsely recognized novel, unrelated words.

54.	In general, the research on false memory has shown that false memories can be created in:
	A)	the laboratory but not in the real world.
	B)	the real world but not in the laboratory.
	C)	both the real world and the laboratory.
	D)	neither the real world nor the laboratory.

55.	The time period during which new memories are vulnerable and easily lost is called a(n) _____ period.
	A)	interference
	B)	electroconvulsive
	C)	consolidation
	D)	forgetting

56.	Electroconvulsive shock:
	A)	is not used on humans.
	B)	disrupts memory if given soon after learning.
	C)	has been shown to be ineffective for treating depression.
	D)	improves memory if given an hour or more after learning.

57.	Duncan (1949) demonstrated that _____ has an impact on rats’ memory depending on the time it is administered after training.
	A)	electroconvulsive shock
	B)	a narcotic
	C)	magnetic resonance imaging
	D)	transfer-appropriate processing

58.	Electroconvulsive therapy has been shown to:
	A)	disrupt older memories the most.
	B)	disrupt recently acquired memories the most.
	C)	disrupt all memories about equally.
	D)	have no effect on memory.

59.	Research on memory consolidation suggests that, when one retrieves an old memory:
	A)	one cannot update it even if one has newer information.
	B)	it will become harder to remember in the future.
	C)	it is maintained exactly as it was when it was encoded and stored.
	D)	one can modify it by integrating new information into it.

60.	The process whereby each time an old memory is recalled or reactivated may become vulnerable to modification is known as:
	A)	false memory.
	B)	electroconvulsive shock.
	C)	consolidation.
	D)	reconsolidation.

61.	_____ is the knowledge of and ability to think about one’s own memories that includes both feeling of knowing and judgment of learning.
	A)	Metamemory
	B)	Semantic memory
	C)	Consolidation
	D)	Reconsolidation

62.	When one remembers information but cannot remember where one learned it, this is known as:
	A)	retroactive interference.
	B)	proactive interference.
	C)	anterograde amnesia.
	D)	source amnesia.

63.	Which item is an example of source amnesia?
	A)	having difficulty remembering information for one’s history class because one is also trying to study for an English class
	B)	remembering burning one’s hand on a hot stove as a child when it never actually happened
	C)	one’s old phone number interfering with one remembering the new one
	D)	remembering playing in a particular park as a young child, but actually only remembering the pictures one’s parents took of one playing in that park

64.	The part of the brain involved in coordinating information within and across sensory modalities is the:
	A)	diencephalon.
	B)	basal forebrain.
	C)	association cortex.
	D)	sensory cortex.

65.	When one hears the word “piano,” which part of one’s brain helps to link the word with a visual image of a piano, the sound of a piano, and other knowledge one has about pianos?
	A)	the diencephalon
	B)	the basal forebrain
	C)	the association cortex
	D)	the sensory cortex

66.	A person who has anterograde amnesia has difficulty with:
	A)	recognizing common objects.
	B)	understanding the meaning of spoken words.
	C)	naming living things.
	D)	learning new information.

67.	Patients such as H.M. and E.P.:
	A)	could not learn new skills.
	B)	had retrograde but not anterograde amnesia.
	C)	would repeat the same stories over and over.
	D)	All of the answers are correct.

68.	Lesions of the hippocampal region have been shown to disrupt an organism’s ability to:
	A)	remember where food is stored in a radial arm maze.
	B)	locate food that the organism previously stored.
	C)	recall a list of words.
	D)	All of the answers are correct.

69.	The results of studies using the subsequent memory paradigm have demonstrated that the medial temporal lobes are MOST active during _____ of information.
	A)	encoding
	B)	retention
	C)	consolidation
	D)	retrieval

70.	The hippocampus:
	A)	is most active during initial encoding of words that would be remembered.
	B)	may be important for distinguishing a real memory from a false memory.
	C)	does not seem to be important for episodic memory.
	D)	All of the answers are correct.

71.	Retrograde amnesia involves:
	A)	forgetting one’s identity.
	B)	difficulty learning new material after sustaining a head injury.
	C)	the loss of memories for events that occurred before a head injury.
	D)	problems remembering one’s childhood but no trouble remembering recent events.

72.	Which theory is supported by studies that show that hippocampal activity is highest for recent memory and decreases as memories get older?
	A)	multiple trace theory
	B)	standard consolidation theory
	C)	depth-of-processing theory
	D)	Korsakoff’s theory

73.	Joe just suffered a head injury in a motorcycle accident. According to the Ribot gradient, Joe will probably:
	A)	lose all memories of events that occurred during the hours leading up to the accident.
	B)	remember almost everything that happened during the accident.
	C)	lose all memories of the accident itself.
	D)	have good memory for events leading up to the accident and poorer memory for earlier events.

74.	Which theory states that the medial temporal lobe structures are needed initially for encoding and retrieval, but their role diminishes over time?
	A)	multiple trace theory
	B)	standard consolidation theory
	C)	depth-of-processing theory
	D)	Korsakoff’s theory

75.	According to standard consolidation theory, patients with brain damage that is limited to the hippocampus should have _____ anterograde amnesia and _____ retrograde amnesia.
	A)	a lot of; a lot of
	B)	very little; very little
	C)	a lot of; very little
	D)	very little; a lot of

76.	Which theory is supported by the finding that some people can have retrograde memory loss extending all the way back to their childhood?
	A)	multiple trace theory
	B)	standard consolidation theory
	C)	depth-of-processing theory
	D)	Korsakoff’s theory

77.	The frontal cortex:
	A)	is critical for the consolidation of memories into long-term storage.
	B)	helps determine what one stores and what one doesn’t store.
	C)	is less active when people are trying to forget something.
	D)	seems to be involved in semantic memory but not in episodic memory.

78.	People with frontal-lobe damage would have trouble:
	A)	creating a story.
	B)	retrieving a story they heard as a child.
	C)	remembering a simple story.
	D)	remembering whether a story was on TV or in a magazine.

79.	The brain area that appears to be responsible for determining whether and, if so, when new information is processed is the:
	A)	basal forebrain.
	B)	hippocampus.
	C)	diencephalons.
	D)	temporal lobes.

80.	The basal forebrain appears to be involved in:
	A)	determining whether something is old or new.
	B)	directly storing new episodic memories.
	C)	remembering source information.
	D)	determining whether and when the hippocampus stores.

81.	Providing highly detailed yet false memories is known as:
	A)	confabulation.
	B)	retrograde amnesia.
	C)	anterograde amnesia.
	D)	consolidation.

82.	The existence of Korsakoff’s disease demonstrates the importance of the _____ in memory.
	A)	medial temporal lobes
	B)	hippocampus
	C)	diencephalon
	D)	basal forebrain

83.	Korsakoff’s disease:
	A)	usually results from damage to the medial temporal lobes.
	B)	is often accompanied by confabulation.
	C)	is associated with a vitamin C deficiency.
	D)	typically involves retrograde amnesia but not anterograde amnesia.

84.	The type of amnesia in which a person has a temporary memory loss, usually lasting a day or less, is called:
	A)	transient global amnesia (TGA).
	B)	functional amnesia.
	C)	infantile amnesia.
	D)	source amnesia.

85.	Jenny suffered a heart attack, after which she experienced memory loss that lasted about 24 hours. From what type of amnesia did Jenny suffer?
	A)	transient global amnesia (TGA)
	B)	functional amnesia
	C)	infantile amnesia
	D)	source amnesia

86.	Research suggests that transient global amnesia may be due to:
	A)	a traumatic event that occurred in a person’s past.
	B)	the effects of prolonged retrograde amnesia.
	C)	permanent damage to the hippocampus.
	D)	temporary disruption of blood flow to the brain.

87.	The type of amnesia that results from psychological causes rather than from any obvious physical causes is called:
	A)	transient global amnesia (TGA).
	B)	functional amnesia.
	C)	retrograde amnesia.
	D)	source amnesia.

88.	_____ is caused from a physical brain injury.
	A)	Functional amnesia
	B)	Dissociative fugue
	C)	Dissociative amnesia
	D)	Organic amnesia

89.	Maya showed up at a police station one day claiming she could not recall who she was. After being examined by a doctor she was found to have no obvious injury or brain damage. From what type of amnesia did Maya suffer?
	A)	transient global amnesia (TGA)
	B)	dissociative fugue
	C)	dissociative amnesia
	D)	source amnesia

90.	Functional amnesia may be associated with:
	A)	an underdeveloped hippocampus and frontal cortex.
	B)	abuse of alcohol and tranquilizers.
	C)	a severe head injury.
	D)	abnormalities in the medial temporal lobe and diencephalon.

Answer Key

1.	B
2.	A
3.	B
4.	A
5.	D
6.	A
7.	C
8.	B
9.	C
10.	A
11.	D
12.	D
13.	A
14.	C
15.	C
16.	A
17.	B
18.	B
19.	D
20.	D
21.	C
22.	B
23.	C
24.	D
25.	C
26.	A
27.	B
28.	C
29.	C
30.	D
31.	B
32.	C
33.	A
34.	B
35.	D
36.	B
37.	A
38.	A
39.	B
40.	C
41.	D
42.	B
43.	D
44.	B
45.	A
46.	C
47.	B
48.	A
49.	C
50.	D
51.	A
52.	C
53.	A
54.	C
55.	C
56.	B
57.	A
58.	B
59.	D
60.	D
61.	A
62.	D
63.	D
64.	C
65.	C
66.	D
67.	C
68.	D
69.	A
70.	A
71.	C
72.	B
73.	C
74.	B
75.	C
76.	A
77.	B
78.	D
79.	A
80.	D
81.	A
82.	C
83.	B
84.	A
85.	A
86.	D
87.	B
88.	D
89.	B
90.	D

Chapter 7 Essay Questions

1.	Describe the case of H.M. Explain how he acquired his memory problems, and discuss the types of deficits he experienced and the functions of his brain that were spared.

2.	Give an example of an episodic memory related to the experience of driving a car.

3.	Give an example of a semantic memory related to the experience of playing a sport.

4.	According to the textbook, what are the two similarities between episodic and semantic memory? Describe each one.

5.	Describe the effect of repeated exposure on semantic memory and on episodic memory.

6.	Describe how episodic memory was demonstrated in either gorillas or scrub jays.

7.

Bransford and Johnson (1972) read an abstract passage aloud to participants, who then had to recall as much information as possible. Some participants were first informed of the topic described by the passage. How did the memory of these participants differ when compared with the memory of participants who were not informed beforehand? What does the result demonstrate about memory?

8.	Imagine one meets a lady at a party at a friend’s house. One is unable to recall her name when one sees her on the street the next day. Yet one has no trouble recalling her name when one sees her again at a friend’s house. How can transfer-appropriate processing explain this?

9.	How do free recall, cued recall, and recognition differ in terms of the number of memory cues available?

10.	Give an example of retroactive interference occurring in everyday life.

11.	Give an example of proactive interference occurring in everyday life.

12.	What is the difference between source monitoring error and false memory?

13.	Describe any one study that demonstrated false memories.

14.	Explain why the shape of the typical forgetting curve implies that there is a consolidation period for memories.

15.	What seems to be the role of the hippocampus in episodic memory? Describe one study that demonstrated this role.

16.	What seems to be the role of the basal forebrain and diencephalon in episodic memory?

17.	What is functional amnesia? Describe two specific types.

Answer Key

1.	Grading criteria: Acquiring memory problems: He had his temporal lobes removed at age 27 in order to treat severe epilepsy. Deficits: severe anterograde and retrograde amnesia (give examples). Spared: intelligence, ability to learn new skill memories.
2.	Grading criteria: Examples may include: remembering being in an accident, remembering one’s first driving lesson, remembering getting a speeding ticket, and so forth. Answer must be specific enough to demonstrate an understanding of the distinction between episodic and semantic memory.
3.	Grading criteria: Examples may include: knowing the rules of the game, knowing that there are X number of people on each team, and so forth. Answer must not be a procedural/skill memory, such as knowing how to kick/bat/etc.
4.	Grading criteria: Describe (1) flexible communication, and (2) conscious accessibility of the two types of memory.
5.	Grading criteria: Semantic memory requires repeated exposure; episodic memory requires single exposure. A particular episodic memory can be weakened with multiple exposures to similar events.
6.	Grading criteria: Clearly describe the procedure used and the results obtained for either of them, as discussed in the text.
7.	Grading criteria: First part: memory was better when the topic was presented first. Second part: the result demonstrates that memory is better when the information can be encoded in a particular context, or that memory is better when it can be related to prior knowledge.
8.	Grading criteria: Demonstrate the understanding that when the encoding and retrieval contexts are the same (at a friend’s house), memory is best.
9.	Grading criteria: Indicate that recognition provides the most cues, followed by cued recall, and then free recall.
10.	Grading criteria: Difficulty remembering one’s own old phone number or address after moving to a new place is one example; must provide more than a simple definition.
11.	Grading criteria: Difficulty remembering one’s own new phone number or address after moving to a new place is one example; must provide more than a simple definition.
12.	Grading criteria: The main point is that in source monitoring error the memory is of something that did actually happen but the source of where the information was acquired is wrong, whereas in false memory the memory is of something that did not happen.
13.	Grading criteria: Studies include Loftus (lost in a mall), Wade (hot-air balloon), Deese (theme words), Donald Thompson (wrongful accusation).
14.	Grading criteria: Explain that the forgetting curve shows that information that stays in memory longer is less likely to be forgotten later; consolidation also occurs over time—the longer something is in memory, the more consolidation has occurred.
15.	Grading criteria: The hippocampus appears to be important for the formation of new episodic memories. Several studies/examples can be described to support this: Examples of H.M. and E.P. from the book and functional neuroimaging studies can be discussed.
16.	Grading criteria: The basal forebrain appears to be important for directing the hippocampus. The diencephalon may be useful for guiding consolidation.
17.	Grading criteria: It is a type of amnesia that does not have an obvious physical cause, a “psychological” amnesia. One type: dissociative amnesia—forgetting a specific traumatic episode, such as a soldier forgetting a battle. Second type: dissociative fugue—forgetting one’s own identity.

Chapter 7 Web Quiz Questions

1.	Knowing that the speed limit on a highway is 65 kmph is an example of _____ memory.
	A)	nondeclarative
	B)	implicit
	C)	semantic
	D)	episodic

2.	Remembering that one received a B in one’s last math test is an example of _____ memory.
	A)	nondeclarative
	B)	implicit
	C)	semantic
	D)	episodic

3.	Declarative memory:
	A)	includes both semantic and episodic memory.
	B)	is the same as implicit memory.
	C)	is not consciously accessible.
	D)	includes semantic memory but not episodic memory.

4.	Which statement is TRUE regarding episodic and semantic memory?
	A)	Semantic memory has autobiographical content, while episodic memory does not.
	B)	Episodic memory is acquired in a single exposure, while semantic memory usually requires multiple exposures.
	C)	Semantic memory is accessible to conscious recall, while episodic memory is not.
	D)	Episodic memory can be communicated in a format other than that in which it was acquired, while semantic memory cannot be communicated in a different format.

5.	The finding that scrub jays can remember what type of food they stored in different locations as well as how long ago it was stored demonstrates that scrub jays may have _____ memory.
	A)	an episodic
	B)	a semantic
	C)	declarative
	D)	nondeclarative

6.	Which statement is TRUE regarding the level of processing idea?
	A)	One remembers information better when one thinks about its meaning than when one focuses on more superficial characteristics.
	B)	It is clear how to determine whether information is processed deeply.
	C)	One remembers information best when it is presented multiple times.
	D)	There does not seem to be any difference in brain activity during “deep” versus “superficial” processing of information.

7.	Which principle was demonstrated by Godden and Baddeley’s finding that divers remembered material best if they learned and were tested in the same environment?
	A)	interference
	B)	transfer-appropriate processing
	C)	consolidation
	D)	false memory

8.	If one studies for a psychology test, then studies for a biology test, one’s memory for the biology material can make it harder to remember the psychology material. This is an example of:
	A)	false memory.
	B)	transfer-appropriate processing.
	C)	proactive interference.
	D)	retroactive interference.

9.	The findings regarding the effect of electroconvulsive shock on memory have been used to support the idea that:
	A)	information is remembered best when it can be related to prior knowledge.
	B)	memory is best when the encoding and retrieval contexts are the same.
	C)	memories have a consolidation period.
	D)	memory is better when more cues are present.

10.	Tanya remembers that her favorite celebrity is going to have twins, but she can’t recall where she heard this bit of gossip. This is an example of:
	A)	proactive interference.
	B)	retroactive interference.
	C)	source amnesia.
	D)	false memory.

11.	Francis has no memory for what he did today, although he can remember his childhood well. Which type of amnesia is Francis suffering from?
	A)	source
	B)	infantile
	C)	anterograde
	D)	retrograde

12.	Which brain area is involved in forming new episodic and semantic memories?
	A)	hippocampus
	B)	frontal cortex
	C)	diencephalon
	D)	basal forebrain

13.	Which brain area is involved in determining which information has to be stored?
	A)	hippocampus
	B)	frontal cortex
	C)	diencephalon
	D)	basal forebrain

14.	Damage to the diencephalon can lead to:
	A)	retrograde amnesia, but not anterograde amnesia.
	B)	difficulty determining what information to store.
	C)	anterograde amnesia and confabulation.
	D)	difficulty remembering one’s identity.

15.	Transient global amnesia:
	A)	is one of the rarest forms of amnesia.
	B)	is psychological in nature.
	C)	usually lasts a few hours or days.
	D)	involves forgetting one’s identity.

Answer Key

1.	C
2.	D
3.	A
4.	B
5.	A
6.	A
7.	B
8.	D
9.	C
10.	C
11.	C
12.	A
13.	B
14.	C
15.	C