Maders Understanding Human Anatomy and Physiology 8th Edition by Susannah Longenbaker – Test Bank A+

$35.00
Maders Understanding Human Anatomy and Physiology 8th Edition by Susannah Longenbaker – Test Bank A+

Maders Understanding Human Anatomy and Physiology 8th Edition by Susannah Longenbaker – Test Bank A+

$35.00
Maders Understanding Human Anatomy and Physiology 8th Edition by Susannah Longenbaker – Test Bank A+

Chapter 01 Organization of the Body

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

  1. Which term refers to the study of how an organ functions?
    A. Anatomy
    B. Physiology
    C. Ecology
    D. Homeostasis

  1. Observing the parts of the brain would be part of the study of
    A. homeostasis.
    B. physiology.
    C. anthropology.
    D. anatomy.

  1. Distinguish between anatomy and physiology, and then explain how they are related.

  1. A group of similar cells performing a specialized function is referred to as a(n)
    A. tissue.
    B. organ.
    C. molecule.
    D. system.

  1. An organism consists of
    A. molecules.
    B. cells.
    C. organs.
    D. molecules, cells, and organs.

  1. Cells are to tissues as tissues are to
    A. systems.
    B. molecules.
    C. organs.
    D. organelles.

  1. Arrange the following terms from the smallest to the largest: 1) cell, 2) organelle, 3) atom, 4) organ, 5) tissue.
    A. 3,2,1,5,4
    B. 1,2,3,4,5
    C. 5,4,3,2,1
    D. 3,1,5,4,2

  1. List the levels of organization of the human body in order from least complex to most complex and provide a brief description of each level.

  1. Which of the following is NOT considered anatomical position?
    A. Standing erect
    B. Palms facing backward
    C. Face forward
    D. Toes pointing forward

  1. Which of the following pairs are opposing terms?
    A. Superior/posterior
    B. Superior/inferior
    C. Anterior/inferior
    D. Superior/anterior

  1. Which term refers to the back?
    A. Inferior
    B. Lateral
    C. Posterior
    D. Peripheral

  1. The heart is _____ to the lungs.
    A. dorsal
    B. superior
    C. lateral
    D. medial

  1. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
    A. Ventral – toward the front
    B. Ipsilateral – on opposite sides
    C. Deep – toward the surface
    D. Proximal – further from the point of attachment

  1. Which of the following is INCORRECT in describing the nose?
    A. It is superior to the mouth.
    B. It is medial to the eyes.
    C. It is on the dorsal aspect of the face.
    D. It is inferior to the forehead.

  1. The hand is ___________ to the elbow.
    A. superior
    B. anterior
    C. proximal
    D. distal

  1. The right hand and left foot are ______________ to each other.
    A. ipsilateral
    B. posterior
    C. contralateral
    D. superficial

  1. The spinal cord is __________ to the esophagus.
    A. anterior
    B. posterior
    C. ventral
    D. inferior

  1. Appendicular refers to the
    A. skull.
    B. thorax.
    C. legs and arms.
    D. skull and thorax.

  1. The head is which region?
    A. Cephalic
    B. Lumbar
    C. Brachial
    D. Pectoral

  1. The arm is which region?
    A. Cephalic
    B. Lumbar
    C. Brachial
    D. Pectoral

  1. The lower back is which region?
    A. Cephalic
    B. Lumbar
    C. Brachial
    D. Pectoral

  1. The foot is which region?
    A. Pedal
    B. Lumbar
    C. Brachial
    D. Pectoral

  1. The chest is which region?
    A. Cephalic
    B. Lumbar
    C. Brachial
    D. Pectoral

  1. The cheek is which region?
    A. Occipital
    B. Buccal
    C. Oral
    D. Mental

  1. The thigh is which region?
    A. Femoral
    B. Crural
    C. Plantar
    D. Palmar

  1. The front of the elbow is which region?
    A. Cubital
    B. Antecubital
    C. Brachial
    D. Antebrachial

  1. The armpit is which region?
    A. Acromial
    B. Pectoral
    C. Mammary
    D. Axillary

  1. Which of the following pairs of body regions is INCORRECT?
    A. Carpal – wrist
    B. Popliteal – back of knee
    C. Gluteal – buttocks
    D. Orbital – ear

  1. If a person has a rash in the cervical region, where is it located?
    A. Neck
    B. Lower back
    C. Arm
    D. Chest

  1. The foot is proximal to the knee.
    True False

  1. The gallbladder and spleen are contralateral to each other.
    True False

  1. If a person has a sore in the oral cavity, where is it located?
    A. Head
    B. Lower back
    C. Mouth
    D. Head

  1. Which type of cut or section will give right and left portions?
    A. Sagittal
    B. Transverse
    C. Frontal
    D. Coronal

  1. Which type of cut will give front and back portions?
    A. Median
    B. Transverse
    C. Sagittal
    D. Frontal or coronal

  1. If the heart is cut to give the atria and the ventricles, it was cut on a
    A. transverse plane.
    B. midsagittal plane.
    C. frontal plane.
    D. longitudinal section.

  1. Viscera refers to
    A. internal organs.
    B. tissues.
    C. cells.
    D. atoms.

  1. Which two cavities does the diaphragm separate?
    A. Abdominal and pelvic
    B. Dorsal and ventral
    C. Thoracic and abdominal
    D. Cranial and spinal

  1. The thoracic cavity is part of which larger cavity?
    A. Ventral cavity
    B. Dorsal cavity
    C. Abdominopelvic cavity

  1. If a person was diagnosed as having a tumor in the dorsal cavity, where might you expect to find it?
    A. Abdominal or pelvic cavities
    B. Superior or inferior cavities
    C. Thoracic or abdominal cavities
    D. Cranial or spinal cavities

  1. The mediastinum is part of the
    A. pleural and ventral cavities.
    B. thoracic and dorsal cavities.
    C. thoracic and ventral cavities.
    D. abdominopelvic and ventral cavities.

  1. In which cavity would you find the brain?
    A. Ventral cavity
    B. Dorsal cavity
    C. Abdominopelvic cavity
    D. Oral cavity

  1. In which cavity would you find the stomach?
    A. Pleural cavity
    B. Dorsal cavity
    C. Abdominopelvic cavity
    D. Mediastinum

  1. The lungs would be found in which cavity?
    A. Spinal cavity
    B. Abdominal cavity
    C. Mediastinum
    D. Pleural cavity

  1. The liver would be found in which cavity?
    A. Dorsal cavity
    B. Abdominal cavity
    C. Pericardial cavity
    D. Pleural cavity

  1. Most of the stomach would be found in the _______ quadrant of the abdominal cavity.
    A. upper left
    B. upper right
    C. lower left
    D. lower right

  1. Billy had surgery to remove his appendix. In which abdominal quadrant would the incision be made?
    A. Upper left
    B. Upper right
    C. Lower left
    D. Lower right

  1. Most of the liver is found in which abdominopelvic region?
    A. Left iliac
    B. Right lumbar
    C. Umbilical
    D. Right hypochondriac

  1. The majority of the small intestine is found in which abdominopelvic region?
    A. Epigastric
    B. Right hypochondriac
    C. Umbilical
    D. Left iliac

  1. The urinary bladder is found in which abdominopelvic region?
    A. Hypogastric
    B. Left lumbar
    C. Right iliac
    D. Umbilical

  1. Which refers to a membrane attached to the surface of a lung?
    A. Visceral pleura
    B. Parietal pleura
    C. Visceral peritoneum
    D. Parietal peritoneum

  1. Which of the following refers to the membrane lining the abdominal cavity wall?
    A. Parietal pericardium
    B. Visceral peritoneum
    C. Parietal peritoneum
    D. Visceral pleura

  1. The inflammation of the membranes of the posterior (dorsal) cavity is called
    A. serositis.
    B. pleurisy.
    C. meningitis.
    D. pericarditis.

  1. Sally is rushed to the hospital with acute appendicitis. Which serous membrane is in danger of infection?
    A. Peritoneum
    B. Pleura
    C. Meninges
    D. Pericardium

  1. The function of serous fluid is to reduce friction between tissues.
    True False

  1. The posterior (dorsal) body cavity is lined with the synovial membrane.
    True False

  1. Cerebrospinal fluid is associated with
    A. the meninges.
    B. serosae of the thoracic cavity.
    C. synovial joints.
    D. visceral peritoneum.

  1. Skin is part of
    A. integration and coordination.
    B. maintenance of the body.
    C. transportation.
    D. support, movement, and protection.

  1. Which system are the blood vessels part of?
    A. Endocrine
    B. Cardiovascular
    C. Reproductive
    D. Nervous

  1. Which system are the hormones part of?
    A. Endocrine
    B. Cardiovascular
    C. Reproductive
    D. Nervous

  1. Which system are the testes part of?
    A. Urinary
    B. Cardiovascular
    C. Reproductive
    D. Nervous

  1. Which system is the spinal cord part of?
    A. Endocrine
    B. Lymphatic
    C. Skeletal
    D. Nervous

  1. The kidneys and urinary bladder are part of the
    A. endocrine system.
    B. urinary system.
    C. lymphatic system.
    D. digestive system.

  1. The spleen and thymus are part of the
    A. cardiovascular system.
    B. respiratory system.
    C. digestive system.
    D. lymphatic and immune systems.

  1. Transportation within the body is mainly part of
    A. the nervous system.
    B. the skin.
    C. the skeleton.
    D. the cardiovascular system.

  1. Which part of the body plays a major part in support, movement, and protection?
    A. Nervous system
    B. Endocrine system
    C. Skeleton
    D. Cardiovascular system

  1. Integration and coordination are part of the body’s
    A. nervous system.
    B. skin.
    C. skeleton.
    D. cardiovascular system.

  1. Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal system?
    A. Production of blood cells
    B. Support
    C. Production of heat
    D. Mineral storage

  1. Which system is involved in regulating fluid levels and chemical content of the blood?
    A. Cardiovascular system
    B. Lymphatic system
    C. Urinary system
    D. Digestive system

  1. The respiratory system delivers oxygen to the cells.
    True False

  1. List the organ systems that allow for body movement and describe the role each system plays in the production of movement.

  1. Homeostasis refers to
    A. changing external conditions.
    B. stable external conditions.
    C. changing internal conditions.
    D. stable internal conditions.

  1. Which of the following provides the best example of a negative feedback control mechanism?
    A. Increased body temperature due to exercise
    B. Increased uterine contractions in labor
    C. Putting on a sweater because you are cold
    D. Shivering in order to generate heat due to a drop in body temperature

  1. Which of the following occurs as a result of positive feedback and assists in the maintenance of homeostasis?
    A. Body temperature regulation
    B. Blood pH regulation
    C. Blood clot formation
    D. Blood cell production

  1. Which of the following is NOT a component of a homeostatic mechanism?
    A. A nerve pathway
    B. A control center
    C. A sensor
    D. An effector

  1. What occurs as a result of a negative feedback mechanism?
    A. The change moves further from the set point in a negative direction.
    B. No change occurs in the body.
    C. There is a reversal from the original change.
    D. A body function is stopped.

  1. In negative feedback, the body’s response is in the opposite direction from the change in order to return the body to normal.
    True False

  1. Explain why the heating of your home is an example of a negative feedback mechanism.

  1. Contrast positive and negative feedback mechanisms with regard to their general outcomes.

  1. The two organ systems involved in controlling all other systems to maintain homeostasis are the
    A. skeletal and muscular.
    B. nervous and endocrine.
    C. urinary and respiratory.
    D. endocrine and digestive.

  1. The two organ systems involved in providing oxygen to cells and removing carbon dioxide from cells are the
    A. cardiovascular and respiratory.
    B. respiratory and digestive.
    C. integumentary and muscular.
    D. reproductive and nervous.

  1. Which two body systems are involved in transportation and protection of the body from disease?
    A. Integumentary and urinary systems
    B. Lymphatic and cardiovascular systems
    C. Muscular and lymphatic systems
    D. Respiratory and sensory systems

  1. Which body system removes metabolic wastes and helps maintain acid-base balance?
    A. Urinary system
    B. Digestive system
    C. Respiratory system
    D. Endocrine system

  1. A disease that occurs suddenly and does not last a long time is considered
    A. chronic.
    B. local.
    C. systemic.
    D. acute.

  1. An ear infection is considered a/an ______ disease.
    A. orbital
    B. local
    C. systemic
    D. pandemic

  1. What type of energy is used to create a PET scan?
    A. Gamma rays
    B. Electrons
    C. Protons
    D. Electrical

  1. What type of medical scan is more useful in visualizing soft tissue?
    A. X-ray
    B. CT scan
    C. MRI
    D. PET

  1. What is used in a sonogram to create an image?
    A. Sound waves
    B. Electrons
    C. Gamma rays
    D. X-rays

  1. All body systems work independently to provide homeostasis.
    True False

  1. Soft tissue such as muscles shows up as light areas on X-rays.
    True False

  1. Differentiate between local, systemic, acute, and chronic disease.

Chapter 03 Cell Structure and Function

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

  1. Small structures that compartmentalize the cell for the various cellular activities are
    A. nuclei.
    B. organelles.
    C. matrices.
    D. proteins.

  1. The gelatinous supporting material of a cell is the
    A. plasma membrane.
    B. nucleus.
    C. cytoplasm.
    D. organelle.

  1. Which of the following types of cells are anucleated when mature?
    A. Liver cells
    B. Skin cells
    C. Erythrocytes
    D. Skeletal muscle cells

  1. Semipermeable membrane means that half the amount of a substance can pass through the plasma membrane.
    True False

  1. The plasma membrane consists primarily of
    A. phospholipids and proteins.
    B. sugars and starchs.
    C. phospholipids and sugars.
    D. sugars and proteins.

  1. The chemical nature of phospholipids will cause them to form a single layer in a water environment.
    True False

  1. The plasma membrane is a solid that holds the contents inside the cell.
    True False

  1. The movement of protein molecules within the phospholipid bilayer is described by the
    A. fluid mosaic model.
    B. lipid mosaic model.
    C. protein – lipid mosaic model.
    D. cholesterol mosaic model.

  1. Functions of membrane proteins include all of the following except
    A. carriers.
    B. cell identification.
    C. stability.
    D. receptors.
    E. channels.

  1. The presence of cholesterol molecules in plasma membranes is to
    A. allow the buildup of fats.
    B. change the chemical nature of the membrane.
    C. create a mosaic pattern.
    D. stabilize the phospholipids at low temperatures.

  1. The phospholipid molecules are arranged with
    A. the hydrophilic tails facing outward and the hydrophobic heads facing inward.
    B. the hydrophilic tails facing inward and the hydrophobic heads facing outward.
    C. the hydrophilic heads facing outward and the hydrophobic tails facing inward.
    D. the hydrophilic heads facing inward and the hydrophobic tails facing outward.

  1. What is the role of glycolipids and glycoproteins in the plasma membrane?
    A. Transport of molecules through the membrane
    B. Rtabilize the phospholipid bilayer
    C. Cell identification
    D. All apply.

  1. Explain the fluid mosaic model of the plasma membrane.

  1. What is found within the cell’s nucleus?
    A. Chromatin
    B. Nucleolus
    C. DNA
    D. All apply.

  1. The function of the nucleolus is to make
    A. mitochondria.
    B. endoplasmic reticulum.
    C. chromosomes.
    D. ribosomes.

  1. Tightly-coiled, rod-like structures of DNA and proteins are called
    A. nucleoli.
    B. ribosomes.
    C. chromatin.
    D. chromosomes.

  1. The nuclear envelop is continuous with the Golgi apparatus.
    True False

  1. Proteins that are mainly used inside the cell are synthesized
    A. in the nucleus.
    B. on polyribosomes.
    C. on rough ER.
    D. in the nucleoli.

  1. The nuclear envelope contains the nuclear material and its structure is a
    A. double layered membrane with pores.
    B. single layered membrane with pores.
    C. solid single layered membrane.
    D. solid double layered membrane.

  1. Which of the following organelles functions in protein synthesis?
    A. Ribosomes
    B. Golgi apparatus
    C. Smooth ER
    D. All apply.

  1. A system of membranous channels and saccules that runs from the nuclear membrane through the cytoplasm is the
    A. nucleolus.
    B. Golgi apparatus.
    C. endoplasmic reticulum.
    D. mitochondria.

  1. The rough ER is covered with
    A. Golgi apparatus.
    B. ribosomes.
    C. lysosomes.
    D. nucleoli.

  1. Liver cells help to detoxify drugs, therefore, they would have a large number of
    A. rough ER.
    B. Golgi apparatus.
    C. smooth ER.
    D. centrioles.

  1. Which of the following serves as the site for the synthesis of phospholipids?
    A. Plasma membrane
    B. Rough ER
    C. Smooth ER
    D. Golgi apparatus

  1. Which of the following functions in protein production?
    A. Ribosomes
    B. Golgi apparatus
    C. Rough ER
    D. Ribosomes, Golgi apparatus, and rough ER

  1. Which organelle is involved in processing, packaging, and secretion of proteins and lipids?
    A. Ribosomes
    B. Golgi apparatus
    C. Endoplasmic reticulum
    D. Chromosomes

  1. Lysosomes
    A. are formed by the Golgi apparatus.
    B. are concerned with intracellular digestion.
    C. contain digestive enzymes.
    D. All apply.

  1. A disease involving a missing or inactive lysosomal enzyme in nerve cells is called
    A. Golgi’s disease.
    B. multiple sclerosis.
    C. neuritis.
    D. Tay-Sachs disease.

  1. Digestive sacs found in cells that help to detoxify drugs and alcohol are
    A. peroxisomes.
    B. centrioles.
    C. ribosomes.
    D. rough ER.

  1. Mitochondria
    A. produce protein.
    B. store food.
    C. produce ATP.
    D. digest food.

  1. Aerobic cellular respiration
    A. occurs in the mitochondria.
    B. produces ATP.
    C. uses oxygen.
    D. All apply.

  1. The inner membrane folds of mitochondria, where many of the reactions of aerobic cellular respiration occur, are called
    A. smooth ER.
    B. cristae.
    C. grana.
    D. thylakoid membranes.

  1. A nickname for the mitochondria is the cell’s powerhouse.
    True False

  1. Short cylinders with a 9 +0 pattern that form the spindle apparatus during cell division are
    A. centrioles.
    B. basal bodies.
    C. flagella.
    D. actin filaments.

  1. Sperm use __________ for movement.
    A. cilia
    B. flagella
    C. microvilli
    D. microfilaments

  1. __________ are small hair-like extensions that produce movement across the surface of cells.
    A. Cilia
    B. Flagella
    C. Microvilli
    D. Basal bodies

  1. __________ help keep the lungs clean.
    A. Cilia
    B. Flagella
    C. Basal bodies
    D. Microvilli

  1. What structure anchors cilia and flagella?
    A. Microvilli
    B. Basal body
    C. Hilus
    D. Hillock

  1. Describe the functions of cilia and flagella, and give examples of the activities of each in the body.

  1. Which elements of the cytoskeleton help maintain the shape of the cells, move organelles around, and aid in cell division?
    A. Intermediate fibers
    B. Cilia
    C. Microtubules
    D. Actin filaments

  1. Which cytoskeletal structure is involved in the movement of chromosomes during cell division?
    A. Actin filaments
    B. Intermediate filaments
    C. Microtubules
    D. Microvilli

  1. What is the function of intermediate filaments?
    A. Cell-to-cell junctions
    B. Cell movement
    C. Form flagella
    D. Cell shape

  1. Match the cell organelle with its function.
1. Smooth ERintracellular digestion____
2. Nucleolusproduces energy____
3. Mitochondriasmall membranous sac that isolates substances in a cell____
4. Vacuolemakes ribosomes____
5. Lysosomelipid and steroid synthesis____

  1. Match the cell organelle with its function.
1. Golgi apparatusforms spindle in cell division____
2. Centrioleprocessing and packaging molecules____
3. Ciliamovement of substances on the cell surface____
4. Nucleusprotein synthesis for export____
5. Rough ERstorage of genetic information____

  1. The plasma membrane is
    A. impermeable.
    B. permeable to everything.
    C. selectively permeable.

  1. What differentiates passive transport from active transport?
    A. Passive transport moves substances into cells, while active transport moves substances out of cells.
    B. Passive transport requires carriers, while active transport does not.
    C. Passive transport does not use cellular energy, while active transport uses cellular energy.
    D. Passive transport only moves water, while active transport only moves proteins.

  1. The random movement of simple substances from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration is called
    A. osmosis.
    B. filtration.
    C. diffusion.
    D. pumping.

  1. Small lipid soluble molecules would move through the plasma membrane by
    A. diffusion.
    B. osmosis.
    C. filtration.
    D. pumping.

  1. Proteins do not pass through plasma membranes because
    A. the membrane is made of protein.
    B. they contain nitrogen.
    C. they are very large molecules.
    D. they cause emulsification.

  1. The movement of H2O across a plasma membrane
    A. is called osmosis.
    B. is called diffusion.
    C. requires energy.
    D. is called osmosis and requires energy.

  1. When a cell is placed into a(n) __________ solution, water enters the cell.
    A. isotonic
    B. hypotonic
    C. hypertonic

  1. When a cell is placed into a(n) __________ solution, crenation is possible.
    A. isotonic
    B. hypotonic
    C. hypertonic

  1. When a cell is placed into a(n) __________ solution, the cell maintains its size.
    A. isotonic
    B. hypotonic
    C. hypertonic

  1. A cell that has crenated has
    A. swollen up.
    B. burst.
    C. broken in half.
    D. shrunk.

  1. Hemolysis means
    A. swelling of cells.
    B. shrinking of blood cells.
    C. diffusion of cells into blood.
    D. bursting of blood cells

  1. Filtration
    A. pushes material out of the blood.
    B. uses blood pressure to move fluids.
    C. can separate large particles from small particles.
    D. All apply.

  1. Which of the following is NOT a passive process of movement?
    A. Solute pumps
    B. Osmosis
    C. Facilitated diffusion
    D. Diffusion

  1. Which process does not require a concentration gradient?
    A. Active transport
    B. Diffusion
    C. Facilitated diffusion
    D. Osmosis

  1. Active transport
    A. moves materials against their concentration gradients.
    B. requires energy.
    C. occurs in cells with many mitochondria.
    D. All apply.

  1. A carrier protein is required
    A. for passive transport.
    B. for active transport.
    C. to move water.
    D. for passive transport and to move water.

  1. The formation of a pocket of the plasma membrane to bring in solid materials is called
    A. exocytosis.
    B. pinocytosis.
    C. phagocytosis.
    D. facilitated diffusion.

  1. The movement of materials into a cell by the formation of a pocket of the plasma membrane is called
    A. exocytosis.
    B. hemolysis.
    C. crenation.
    D. endocytosis.

  1. Secretion of substances made by a cell would occur by the process of
    A. pinocytosis.
    B. exocytosis.
    C. endocytosis.
    D. phagocytosis.

  1. Water intoxication can be due to
    A. loss of too much water.
    B. excessive sweating.
    C. excessive consumption of pure water.
    D. excessive consumption of low-sodium sports drinks.

  1. The process of “cell drinking” is known as phagocytosis.
    True False

  1. Bringing solutions into a cell is called
    A. facilitated diffusion.
    B. pinocytosis.
    C. exocytosis.
    D. phagocytosis.

  1. A white blood cell engulfing a bacterium is an example of
    A. pinocytosis.
    B. exocytosis.
    C. active transport.
    D. phagocytosis.

  1. Facilitated diffusion requires cellular energy.
    True False

  1. The process of programmed cell death due to problems in the cell cycle is called
    A. mitosis.
    B. apoptosis.
    C. phagocytosis.
    D. endocytosis.

  1. Apoptosis
    A. involves the destruction of a cell.
    B. occurs at the restriction checkpoint.
    C. is not a component of the cell cycle.
    D. All apply.

  1. The portion of the cell cycle when a cell is not dividing and doing what it is designed to do is called
    A. interphase.
    B. mitosis.
    C. apoptosis.
    D. exterophase.

  1. The period of interphase when cell growth and manufacture of organelles occurs is the
    A. G1 phase.
    B. S phase.
    C. G2 phase.
    D. mitosis phase.

  1. The period of interphase when DNA is replicated is the
    A. G1 phase.
    B. S phase.
    C. G2 phase.
    D. mitosis phase.

  1. The period of interphase when the proteins are made that will be needed for cell division is the
    A. G1 phase.
    B. S phase.
    C. G2 phase.
    D. mitosis phase.

  1. The material that is replicated prior to cell division is called
    A. RNA.
    B. protein.
    C. DNA.
    D. ATP.

  1. If half of a DNA molecule is ACG-TCC-GTA, the complementary half would be
    A. CTA-CTT-ACC.
    B. TGC-AGG-CAT.
    C. ACG-TCC-GTA.
    D. UGC-AGG-CAU.

  1. Each strand of a replicated double helix of DNA is called a
    A. chromatid.
    B. chromosome.
    C. autosome.
    D. centriole.

  1. What is the function of DNA polymerase?
    A. breaks hydrogen bonds between DNA strands
    B. joins nucleotides of the complementary DNA strand
    C. joins amino acids to form a protein
    D. None apply.

  1. Why is DNA replication required prior to mitosis?

  1. Transcription involves _________, where translation involves _______.
    A. polypeptide synthesis; mRNA synthesis
    B. mRNA synthesis; polypeptide synthesis
    C. amino acids; nucleotides

  1. When mRNA molecules are formed, they are complementary to DNA with the exception that
    A. an A in DNA matches a T in mRNA.
    B. a T in DNA matches an C in mRNA.
    C. an A in DNA matches a G in mRNA.
    D. an A in DNA matches a U in mRNA.

  1. The three base sequence on mRNA that matches the triplet of DNA is a(n)
    A. triplet.
    B. anticodon.
    C. codon.
    D. gene.

  1. Which of the following is NOT a form of RNA used in protein synthesis?
    A. Messenger RNA
    B. Complementary RNA
    C. Transfer RNA
    D. Ribosomal RNA

  1. Which of the following types of RNA are NOT matched correctly with their function?
    A. tRNA – carries amino acids
    B. rRNA – site of protein synthesis
    C. tRNA – contains the code to make a polypeptide
    D. mRNA – contains the code to make a polypeptide

  1. The process of translation creates the secondary structure of a polypeptide.
    True False

  1. The anticodon of tRNA matches the codon of mRNA to ensure the correct sequence of amino acids.
    True False

  1. Compare DNA, mRNA, and tRNA with regard to function and location.

  1. Differentiate between chromosomes, chromatin, DNA, and genes.

  1. The process of cell division involves the two processes of
    A. interphase and cytokinesis.
    B. interphase and mitosis.
    C. mitosis and cytokinesis.
    D. cytokinesis and G1 phase.

  1. The division of the cytoplasm and organelles is
    A. cytokinesis.
    B. mitosis.
    C. interphase.
    D. telophase.

  1. The division of the nucleus is
    A. cytokinesis.
    B. mitosis.
    C. interphase.
    D. telophase.

  1. The chromosomes shorten and thicken so that they become visible occurs during
    A. metaphase.
    B. telophase.
    C. anaphase.
    D. prophase.

  1. The centrioles moving apart to opposite poles occurs during
    A. telophase.
    B. prophase.
    C. metaphase.
    D. anaphase.

  1. The formation of spindle fibers occurs during
    A. prophase.
    B. metaphase.
    C. anaphase.
    D. telophase.

  1. The chromosomes attach to spindle fibers by their
    A. chromatid.
    B. centromere.
    C. centrosome.
    D. aster.

  1. The chromosomes lining up randomly at the equator of the cell occurs during
    A. prophase.
    B. metaphase.
    C. anaphase.
    D. telophase.

  1. The separation of sister chromatids, being pulled toward the centrioles occurs in
    A. metaphase.
    B. telophase.
    C. prophase.
    D. anaphase.

  1. The reforming of the nuclear membrane around chromosomes occurs during
    A. prophase.
    B. anaphase.
    C. telophase.
    D. metaphase.

  1. Cytokinesis occurs during
    A. telophase.
    B. metaphase.
    C. anaphase.
    D. prophase.

  1. Cytokinesis begins with the formation of an indentation around the cell called the
    A. asters.
    B. centromere.
    C. cleavage furrow.
    D. equator.

  1. Mitosis produces __________ identical daughter cell(s).
    A. one
    B. two
    C. three
    D. four

  1. What happens to the chromosome number as a result of mitosis?
    A. It is halved.
    B. It stays the same.
    C. It is doubled.
    D. It is tripled.

  1. Mitosis occurs during
    A. growth.
    B. tissue repair.
    C. production of egg and sperm.
    D. growth and tissue repair.

  1. Which of the following events of mitosis is CORRECTLY matched with its phase?
    A. Metaphase – chromosomes shorten and thicken to become visible
    B. Telophase – chromosomes line up down the middle of the cell
    C. Prophase – chromosomes attach to spindle fibers
    D. Anaphase – new nuclear envelops form around chromosomes

  1. The process of meiosis produces
    A. body cells.
    B. sex cells.
    C. skin cells.
    D. hair cells.

  1. What happens to chromosome number as a result of meiosis?
    A. It is halved.
    B. It stays the same.
    C. It is doubled.
    D. It is tripled.

  1. Compare mitosis and meiosis with regard to number of cell divisions, effect on chromosome number, and function.

Chapter 05 The Integumentary System

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

  1. Which of the following is NOT another name for the skin?
    A. Integument
    B. Serous membrane
    C. Cutaneous membrane
    D. All apply.

  1. The skin consists of ____ region(s).
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4

  1. Adipose tissue
    A. is for insulation.
    B. gives a rounded appearance to the body.
    C. in excess results in obesity.
    D. All apply.

  1. The epidermis and dermis make up the
    A. serous membrane.
    B. subcutaneous membrane.
    C. integument.
    D. hypodermis.

  1. The ___________ contains adipose tissue, while the ___________ contains melanocytes.
    A. hypodermis, epidermis
    B. epidermis, dermis
    C. skin, hypodermis
    D. stratum basale, stratum corneum

  1. Flexion creases in the skin are due to the
    A. hypodermis.
    B. epidermis.
    C. cutaneous membrane.
    D. dermis.

  1. The skin is both an organ and an organ system.
    True False

  1. The epidermis
    A. is the outer layer of skin.
    B. consists of stratified squamous epithelial cells.
    C. contains melanocytes.
    D. All apply.

  1. In which layer of the epidermis are cells constantly dividing?
    A. Stratum corneum
    B. Stratum lucidum
    C. Stratum dermis
    D. Stratum basale

  1. Which of the following types of cells are NOT found in the epidermis?
    A. Squamous epithelial cells
    B. Langerhans cells
    C. Red blood cells
    D. Melanocytes

  1. What happens to cells when they move from the epidermis to the surface of the skin?
    A. They obtain more nutrients.
    B. They divide more.
    C. They die.
    D. They become dermal cells.

  1. What is responsible for skin color?
    A. Carotene
    B. Melanin
    C. Hemoglobin
    D. All apply.

  1. A person with no color in their skin, hair, and eyes has
    A. been exposed to the sun.
    B. a circulatory disorder.
    C. a genetic disorder.
    D. a nervous disorder.

  1. The inability to produce the pigment melanin is called
    A. albinism.
    B. cyanosis.
    C. decubitus.
    D. alopecia.

  1. Merkel’s cells detect sensations of
    A. pain.
    B. deep pressure.
    C. touch.
    D. temperature.

  1. What can give skin a yellowish hue?
    A. Hemoglobin
    B. Melanin
    C. Keratin
    D. Carotene

  1. Which layer of the epidermis protects from abrasion and is found only in thick skin?
    A. Stratum basale
    B. Hypodermis
    C. Stratum corneum
    D. Stratum lucidum

  1. Which layer of the epidermis is closest to the surface?
    A. Stratum lucidum
    B. Stratum corneum
    C. Dermis
    D. Stratum basale

  1. Keratin is
    A. a pigment.
    B. a waterproof protein.
    C. located in the hypodermis.
    D. All apply.

  1. Melanin
    A. is a pigment.
    B. protects the skin from ultraviolet radiation.
    C. is located in the epidermis.
    D. All apply.

  1. What is the function of Langerhans cells?
    A. Water-proofing
    B. UV protection
    C. Register pain
    D. Phagocytize microbes

  1. Distinguish between the stratum basale and the stratum corneum regarding structure and function.

  1. The stratum basale is supplied with sensory nerves to detect pain, temperature, and touch.
    True False

  1. The epidermis is very vascular.
    True False

  1. Which layer of the skin contains blood vessels AND nerve fibers?
    A. Epidermis
    B. Dermis
    C. Epidermis and dermis

  1. Which of the following prevents the skin from overstretching and gives it strength?
    A. Melanin
    B. Collagen fibers
    C. Adipose tissue
    D. Elastic fibers

  1. The dermis is composed of
    A. stratified squamous epithelium.
    B. pseudostratified columnar epithelium.
    C. loose connective tissue.
    D. dense irregular connective tissue.

  1. The dermal papillae, found in the hypodermis, create the unique fingerprints of individuals.
    True False

  1. Poorly oxygenated blood in the dermis will cause an individual to
    A. turn cyanotic.
    B. blush.
    C. have pallor.
    D. be pinkish.

  1. Reduced blood flow into the dermis will cause
    A. cyanosis.
    B. pallor.
    C. blushing.
    D. jaundice.

  1. Continuous pressure that reduces blood supply to the skin can result in a(n)
    A. urticaria.
    B. decubitus ulcer.
    C. hirsutism.
    D. callus.

  1. Which of the following allows movement of muscles and joints and maintains normal skin tension?
    A. Elastic fibers
    B. Collagen fibers
    C. Sensory fibers
    D. Dermal papillae

  1. Hair is produced by epithelial cells located in the
    A. epidermis.
    B. dermis.
    C. hypodermis.
    D. dermis and hypodermis.

  1. Which consists of keratinized cells?
    A. Hair
    B. Nails
    C. Stratum corneum
    D. All apply.

  1. The arrector pili muscle
    A. is a smooth muscle.
    B. causes hair to “stand on end.”
    C. contracts when cold, forming goose bumps.
    D. All apply.

  1. A condition described by excessive body and facial hair in women is
    A. hirsutism.
    B. decubitus ulcer.
    C. scabies.
    D. alopecia.

  1. What type of gland is associated with hair follicles?
    A. Sebaceous glands
    B. Apocrine sweat glands
    C. Eccrine sweat glands
    D. Ceruminous glands

  1. The area of rapidly dividing cells in the nail base is the
    A. cuticle.
    B. nail bed.
    C. lunula.
    D. follicle.

  1. What type of skin gland secretes sweat?
    A. Sebaceous gland
    B. Sudoriferous gland
    C. Ceruminous gland
    D. Mammary gland

  1. Which type(s) of skin gland(s) become(s) active with puberty?
    A. Sebaceous gland
    B. Apocrine sweat gland
    C. Eccrine sweat gland
    D. Both sebaceous and apocrine sweat glands.

  1. Which type of gland opens into hair follicles and secretes sweat after puberty?
    A. Sebaceous glands
    B. Apocrine sweat glands
    C. Eccrine sweat glands
    D. Ceruminous glands

  1. What type of skin gland secretes earwax?
    A. Sebaceous gland
    B. Eccrine sweat gland
    C. Apocrine sweat gland
    D. Ceruminous gland

  1. An inflammation of sebaceous glands that occurs during adolescence is
    A. impetigo.
    B. psoriasis.
    C. acne vulgaris.
    D. decubitus ulcer.

  1. Which is the most dangerous form of skin cancer?
    A. Basal cell carcinoma
    B. Squamous cell carcinoma
    C. Melanoma
    D. Both basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma

  1. Which of the following is the most common type of skin cancer?
    A. Basal cell carcinoma
    B. Squamous cell carcinoma
    C. Melanoma
    D. Kaposi’s sarcoma

  1. In the ABCDE rule for melanoma, “B” stands for
    A. borders that are even.
    B. borders that are irregular.
    C. burning feeling.
    D. bright colors.

  1. In the ABCDE rule for melanoma, which of the following is NOT a warning sign?
    A. Uneven coloration
    B. Diameter greater than 3mm
    C. Perfectly round
    D. Changing size, shape, and elevation

  1. The ABCDE rule is used to determine the skin area involved in a burn.
    True False

  1. What type of skin cancer is seen most often in patients with AIDS?
    A. Kaposi’s sarcoma
    B. Basal cell carcinoma
    C. Melanoma
    D. Squamous cell carcinoma

  1. Exposure to sunlight is the most common cause of skin cancer.
    True False

  1. Impetigo is
    A. a bacterial infection resulting in crusty pustules.
    B. caused by over keratinization.
    C. overactive cell division.
    D. a fungal infection.

  1. Athlete’s foot is
    A. a bacterial infection.
    B. caused by over keratinization.
    C. caused by sensitivity to chemicals.
    D. a fungal infection.

  1. Dandruff is
    A. a viral infection of the scalp.
    B. caused by over keratinization.
    C. caused by sensitivity to chemicals.
    D. a fungal infection of the scalp.

  1. Eczema is
    A. a bacterial infection.
    B. caused by over keratinization.
    C. caused by sensitivity to chemicals.
    D. caused by overactive cell division giving silvery scales.

  1. Another name for hives is psoriasis.
    True False

  1. Which of the following is NOT a sign of inflammation as seen in a skin injury?
    A. Cold
    B. Swelling
    C. Redness
    D. Pain

  1. What is a scar composed of?
    A. Epithelium
    B. Blood clot
    C. Collagen fibers
    D. Areolar tissue

  1. What is the function of a blood clot?
    A. Prevents blood loss
    B. Prevents toxins from entering other tissues
    C. Prevents pathogens from entering other tissue
    D. All apply.

  1. What is NOT a function of fibroblasts in wound healing?
    A. Bring about scar formation
    B. Promote tissue regeneration
    C. Fight infections
    D. Pull the margins of wound together

  1. Pain is rarely felt from a
    A. first-degree burn.
    B. second-degree burn.
    C. third-degree or fourth-degree burn.
    D. sunburn.

  1. The epidermis only is damaged from a
    A. first-degree burn.
    B. second-degree burn.
    C. third-degree burn.
    D. fourth-degree burn.

  1. The epidermis and part of the dermis are damaged from a
    A. first-degree burn.
    B. second-degree burn.
    C. third-degree burn.
    D. fourth-degree burn.

  1. Severe burns result in
    A. fluid loss.
    B. heat loss.
    C. bacterial infection.
    D. All apply.

  1. Explain the difference between first-degree and third-degree burns. Which one would possibly require skin grafting?

  1. What percentage of a person’s skin would be involved if they had burned their left arm, front of the trunk, and the front of their left leg?
    A. 45%
    B. 40.5%
    C. 36%
    D. 31.5%

  1. An adult with third-degree burns over 15% of their body would NOT be considered critical.
    True False

  1. Which of the following is NOT an aging effect of the skin?
    A. The skin wrinkles.
    B. The hair turns gray.
    C. The amount of adipose tissue increases.
    D. There are fewer sweat glands.

  1. Older persons are more likely to feel cold because the dermis becomes thinner.
    True False

  1. Many age-related changes to the skin appear to be due to sun damage.
    True False

  1. Which of the following is NOT a cause of skin wrinkles?
    A. Decrease in the number of hair follicles
    B. Less padding from the hypodermis
    C. Loose epidermis
    D. Fewer and less organized dermal fibers

  1. Which of the following is a function of the skin?
    A. Protection
    B. Sensory reception
    C. Synthesis of vitamin D
    D. All apply.

  1. Which of the following is NOT a protective function of the skin?
    A. Melanocytes protect from UV radiation.
    B. As a covering, it keeps pathogens out.
    C. The oily secretions allow bacteria to grow.
    D. Langerhans cells phagocytize pathogens.

  1. Which is true of the skin?
    A. It is waterproof.
    B. It prevents water loss.
    C. It prevents water from entering when immersed.
    D. All apply.

  1. What is needed to produce vitamin D?
    A. Calcium
    B. Phosphorus
    C. Ultraviolet light
    D. Calcium and phosphorus

  1. Vitamin D is needed by the body to
    A. form keratin.
    B. move calcium and phosphorus into the bones.
    C. make blood cells.
    D. help the skin tan.

  1. Along with sweat glands, what actively regulates body temperature?
    A. Adipose tissue
    B. Blood vessels
    C. Sebaceous glands
    D. All apply.

  1. What occurs when the body’s temperature regulatory mechanism is overcome?
    A. Hypothermia
    B. Hyperthermia
    C. Either hypothermia or hyperthermia

  1. What condition is described by high temperature, low blood pressure, and loss of salts due to profuse sweating?
    A. Heat exhaustion
    B. Heat stroke
    C. Fever
    D. Hypothermia

  1. Which would NOT occur when the body temperature is too low?
    A. Involuntary muscle contraction
    B. Dermal blood vessel dilation
    C. Sweat production
    D. Neither dermal blood vessel dilation nor sweat production would occur.

  1. The skin aids the urinary system by excreting water and small amounts of other wastes through perspiration.
    True False

  1. Describe the skin’s involvement in temperature regulation.

  1. Describe the effects that long-term exposure to the sun may have on the skin.

  1. Describe how the skin functions to promote bone development and maintenance.

  1. Describe how sweat cools the body and explain why sitting in front of a fan cools the body more rapidly.

Chapter 07 The Muscular System

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

  1. Cardiac muscle fibers need outside nervous stimulation in order to contract.
    True False

  1. Which type of muscle tissue has intercalated disks?
    A. Cardiac
    B. Skeletal
    C. Smooth
    D. Both cardiac and skeletal are correct.

  1. Which type of muscle tissue is striated?
    A. Cardiac
    B. Skeletal
    C. Smooth
    D. Both cardiac and skeletal are correct.

  1. Which type of muscle tissue is found in the walls of hollow internal organs?
    A. Cardiac
    B. Skeletal
    C. Smooth
    D. Both smooth and skeletal are correct.

  1. Which type of muscle tissue is involuntary?
    A. Cardiac
    B. Skeletal
    C. Smooth
    D. Both cardiac and smooth are correct.

  1. Which of the following surrounds a fascicle?
    A. Endomysium
    B. Epimysium
    C. Fascia
    D. Perimysium

  1. Which of the following connective tissue sheaths covers the muscle organ itself?
    A. Endomysium
    B. Epimysium
    C. Fascia
    D. Perimysium

  1. A bundle of muscles fibers is a myofilament.
    True False

  1. What does the endomysium cover?
    A. A muscle fiber
    B. A muscle fascicle
    C. The whole muscle organ
    D. The tendon of a muscle

  1. The pressure of skeletal muscle contraction is important in maintaining blood circulation.
    True False

  1. Skeletal muscle contraction is necessary for upright posture.
    True False

  1. Which of the following is NOT a function of skeletal muscles?
    A. Generate heat
    B. Maintain posture
    C. Move food through the GI tract
    D. Keep blood moving in veins and lymphatics

  1. The special name for the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber is the
    A. sarcolemma.
    B. sarcoplasm.
    C. T tubules.
    D. sarcoplasmic reticulum.

  1. The smooth ER that stores calcium ions is the
    A. sarcolemma.
    B. sarcoplasm.
    C. T tubules.
    D. sarcoplasmic reticulum.

  1. The extensions of the sarcolemma that carry the nerve impulses deep into the sarcoplasm are the
    A. sarcolemmas.
    B. myoglobins.
    C. T tubules.
    D. sarcoplasmic reticulums.

  1. A sarcomere is
    A. formed from myosin only.
    B. the distance between Z lines.
    C. the length of the H zone.
    D. between the I bands.

  1. Myofibrils
    A. are located in muscle fibers.
    B. are contractile units.
    C. have striations.
    D. All apply

  1. Myosin is
    A. a protein.
    B. the thin filament.
    C. pulled inward during contraction.
    D. All apply

  1. Which of the following proteins is NOT a component of the thin filament?
    A. Tropomyosin
    B. Myosin
    C. Troponin
    D. Actin

  1. The A band
    A. is in the center of the sarcomere.
    B. is the dark region of the sarcomere.
    C. contains the overlapping of the thick and thin filaments.
    D. All apply

  1. The sliding filament theory of muscle contraction describes
    A. how a sarcomere shortens.
    B. the disappearance of the A band.
    C. the movement of the myosin in relation to the actin.
    D. All apply

  1. Which of the following proteins found in myofilaments contain the cross bridges?
    A. Myosin
    B. Actin
    C. Tropomyosin
    D. Troponin

  1. The I band is dark and split by a Z line.
    True False

  1. What ion is necessary for cross-bridging?
    A. Iron
    B. Sodium
    C. Potassium
    D. Calcium

  1. What does calcium do during muscle contraction?
    A. Binds to troponin
    B. Binds to the cross bridges
    C. Supplies energy
    D. Hydrolyzes ATP

  1. What is the role of ATP in the sliding filament theory?
    A. Energizes the myosin cross-bridge
    B. Releases calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
    C. Breaks the link between actin and myosin
    D. Both energizes the myosin cross-bridge and breaks the link between actin and myosin.

  1. What is released from axon terminals to stimulate a muscle fiber to contract?
    A. Calcium ions
    B. Acetylcholine
    C. ATP
    D. Troponin

  1. What is the correct order of events in the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction?
    1. Myosin head binds to actin
    2. Calcium ions bind to troponin
    3. Myosin cross-bridges bend pulling actin toward center of sarcomere
    4. ATP is split into ADP and P
    5. Tropomyosin moves to expose active sites of actin
    6. Sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ions
    7. ADP and P released from myosin
    A. 2,4,6,1,3,5,7
    B. 1,2,3,4,5,6,7
    C. 6,2,5,4,1,7,3
    D. 4,2,7,1,6,5,3

  1. What is ATP used for in the process of muscle contraction?
    A. Pump calcium ions back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
    B. Power stroke of myosin cross-bridge
    C. Release of myosin from actin
    D. All apply.

  1. After nervous stimulation of the muscle cell has ceased, the calcium
    A. is destroyed by cholinesterase.
    B. is chemically bound to the filaments.
    C. level in the sarcoplasm increases.
    D. is actively pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum for storage.

  1. The power stroke of muscle contraction is when the myosin cross-bridges pull the actin toward the middle of the sarcomere.
    True False

  1. In smooth muscle, the thin filaments are attached to ______ that will draw the cell inward during contraction.
    A. thick filaments
    B. Z lines
    C. dense bodies
    D. myosin

  1. Smooth muscle has thick and thin filaments arranged the same way as in skeletal muscle.
    True False

  1. Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by
    A. forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin.
    B. forming a chemical compound with actin.
    C. inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments.
    D. storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP as needed.

  1. What process provides the most of a muscle’s ATP?
    A. Cellular respiration
    B. Lactic acid fermentation
    C. Creatine phosphate breakdown
    D. Alcoholic fermentation

  1. Lactic acid buildup
    A. occurs after strenuous activity.
    B. occurs due to lack of oxygen and ATP.
    C. causes cramps.
    D. All apply.

  1. What is the role of myoglobin in muscle contraction?
    A. Oxygen carrier in muscle
    B. Blood carrier in muscle
    C. ATP carrier in muscle
    D. Creatine phosphate generator in muscle

  1. Myoglobin
    A. breaks down glycogen.
    B. holds a reserve supply of oxygen in muscle cells.
    C. is a protein involved in the addition of a phosphate to ADP.
    D. produces the axon terminal signal.

  1. Athletes sometimes complain of oxygen debt, a condition that results when insufficient oxygen is available to completely break down pyruvic acid. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to
    A. a strong base.
    B. stearic acid.
    C. hydrochloric acid.
    D. lactic acid.

  1. What is the sign that a person has accrued an oxygen debt?
    A. Inability of muscle to contract
    B. Rigor mortis
    C. Heavy breathing
    D. Fainting

  1. Rigor mortis occurs because
    A. there is no ATP to relax the muscles.
    B. the body temperature drops.
    C. there are no brain waves.
    D. there are no nerve signals.

  1. The deadly botulism toxin can be used to release muscle contractures of patients with brain and spinal cord injuries, as well as, paralyze facial muscle for a “face-lift” effect.
    True False

  1. What is meant by oxygen debt?

  1. Muscle fatigue is usually due to lactic acid accumulation in the muscles. How and why does this happen?

  1. Which of the following obeys the all-or-none law?
    A. The whole muscle
    B. A muscle fiber
    C. The whole muscle and a muscle fiber

  1. Latent period is
    A. the time of receiving many impulses in rapid succession.
    B. the period between stimulation and contraction.
    C. the time when ATP is depleted.
    D. the time of muscle relaxation.

  1. A single muscle contraction lasting a fraction of a second is a
    A. myogram.
    B. muscle twitch.
    C. motor unit.
    D. tetanic contraction.

  1. The stage of a muscle twitch that occurs from the point of stimulation to the beginning of contraction is called the _____ period?
    A. latent
    B. lag
    C. contraction
    D. refractory

  1. Summation is
    A. receiving many impulses in rapid succession.
    B. the period between stimulation and contraction.
    C. the depletion of ATP.
    D. a single contraction that lasts only a fraction of a second.

  1. A sustained muscle contraction with no relaxation is called
    A. a twitch.
    B. a tetanic contraction.
    C. fatigue.
    D. oxygen debt.

  1. Fatigue is caused by
    A. gradual muscle weakening after repetitive use.
    B. depletion of ATP.
    C. depletion of acetylcholine from motor neurons.
    D. All apply.

  1. A motor unit is
    A. a group of muscles working together.
    B. a motor neuron and the muscle fibers it supplies.
    C. a group of muscle fiber.
    D. an artery and the muscle fibers it supplies.

  1. The more stimulation a muscle receives, the more motor units are activated. This is called
    A. fatigue.
    B. oxygen debt.
    C. recruitment.
    D. hypertrophy.

  1. When muscles are not used, they shrink or
    A. atrophy.
    B. hypertrophy.
    C. antagonize.
    D. fatigue.

  1. If muscle fibers obey the all-or-none law, then how can muscles exhibit various strengths of contraction?

  1. Three discrete types of muscle fibers are identified on the basis of their fuel supply, oxygen supply, and tension. Which of the following athletic endeavors best represents the use of slow-twitch fibers?
    A. A sprint by an Olympic runner
    B. Swinging a baseball bat
    C. Lifting weights
    D. Mountain climbing

  1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of slow-twitch fibers?
    A. Have few capillaries
    B. Small motor units
    C. Have many mitochondria
    D. Abundant supply of myoglobin

  1. Which type of muscle fibers would be utilized for short periods of walking or jogging?
    A. Slow-twitch fibers
    B. Intermediate-twitch fibers
    C. Fast-twitch fibers
    D. Medium-twitch fibers

  1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of fast-twitch fibers?
    A. Useful for bursts of energy
    B. Fatigues quickly
    C. Light in color
    D. Mostly aerobic

  1. The muscles of people who train will have more mitochondria than those who do not train.
    True False

  1. Which part of a muscle is on the stationary bone?
    A. Insertion
    B. Prime mover
    C. Origin

  1. The muscle that does most of the work for a particular movement is called the
    A. prime mover.
    B. synergist.
    C. insertion.
    D. antagonist.

  1. The biceps brachii and triceps brachii in the upper arm
    A. are antagonistic.
    B. are synergistic.
    C. depend upon activity to determine antagonism or synergism.

  1. When muscles contract, they shorten. So, muscles can only pull the insertion toward the origin.
    True False

  1. The gluteus maximus muscle is named for
    A. its size and shape.
    B. its size and location.
    C. its shape and action.
    D. its attachment and fiber direction.
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