Medical Language Immerse Yourself 4th Edition By Susan M. – Test Bank A+

$35.00
Medical Language Immerse Yourself 4th Edition By Susan M. – Test Bank A+

Medical Language Immerse Yourself 4th Edition By Susan M. – Test Bank A+

$35.00
Medical Language Immerse Yourself 4th Edition By Susan M. – Test Bank A+

Medical Language, 4e (Turley)

Chapter 6 Hematology and Immunology — Blood and the Lymphatic System

6.1 Multiple-Choice Questions

1) Pancytopenia could be found in a patient with ________.

  1. A) septicemia
  2. B) lymphadenopathy
  3. C) failure of the bone marrow to produce stem cells
  4. D) iron-deficiency anemia

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Septicemia is an infection in the blood.

  1. B) Lymphadenopathy is a disease of the lymph glands.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) Pancytopenia is not related to iron-deficiency anemia.

Page Ref: 284

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

2) Bence Jones protein is found in the urine of a patient with ________.

  1. A) infectious mononucleosis
  2. B) multiple myeloma
  3. C) folic acid—deficiency anemia
  4. D) AIDS

Answer: B

Explanation: A) This disease is not related to Bence Jones protein.

  1. B) Correct! In multiple myeloma, cancerous plasma cells produce the abnormal immunoglobulin Bence Jones protein.
  2. C) Anemia is not related to Bence Jones protein.
  3. D) AIDS is not related to Bence Jones protein.

Page Ref: 288

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

3) A patient with lymphoma or leukemia would receive which cancer treatment?

  1. A) bone marrow transplantation
  2. B) blood transfusion
  3. C) prothrombin time
  4. D) excisional biopsy

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) Blood transfusion is not used to treat these diseases.
  2. C) Prothrombin time is a lab test, not a medical treatment.
  3. D) Excisional biopsy is not used to treat these diseases.

Page Ref: 298

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Medical and Surgical Procedures

4) To keep the red blood cell count from decreasing in a patient receiving a chemotherapy drug, the physician would prescribe a/an ________ drug to stimulate the bone marrow to make erythrocytes.

  1. A) vitamin B12
  2. B) erythropoietin
  3. C) immunosuppressant
  4. D) anticoagulant

Answer: B

Explanation: A) Vitamin B12 is used to treat pernicious anemia.

  1. B) Correct! An erythropoietin drug stimulates the bone marrow to produce erythrocytes.
  2. C) An immunosuppressant drug would affect the immune response, not the red blood cells.
  3. D) An anticoagulant drug would affect blood clotting, not the red blood cells.

Page Ref: 300

Learning Outcome: 3.3

LOD: Comprehension

Question Type: Pharmacology

5) Which is a bleeding disease, NOT related to genetics, in which blood clots use up platelets and fibrinogen so much that there is spontaneous bleeding from various places in the body?

  1. A) hemophilia A
  2. B) acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
  3. C) disseminated intravascular coagulation
  4. D) mononucleosis

Answer: C

Explanation: A) This is a bleeding disease, but it is related to genetics.

  1. B) This is not a blood clotting disease.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) This is not a blood clotting disease.

Page Ref: 289

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

6) The heterophil antibody test can aid in the diagnosis of ________.

  1. A) infectious mononucleosis
  2. B) HIV infection
  3. C) septicemia
  4. D) hemolysis

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct! It is also called the MonoSpot test.

  1. B) This test cannot diagnose HIV infection.
  2. C) This test cannot diagnose septicemia.
  3. D) This test cannot diagnose hemolysis.

Page Ref: 294

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diagnostic Procedures

7) Anemia can be caused by a deficiency of which of the following nutritional substances?

  1. A) calcium and vitamin K
  2. B) magnesium and vitamin C
  3. C) zinc and vitamin A
  4. D) folic acid and vitamin B12

Answer: D

Explanation: A) A deficiency of calcium does not cause anemia.

  1. B) A deficiency of magnesium does not cause anemia.
  2. C) A deficiency of zinc does not cause anemia.
  3. D) Correct! Folic acid and vitamin B12are needed to form erythrocytes.

Page Ref: 284

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

8) The physician ordered bloodwork for his patient to include red blood cell indices. This test would determine the ________.

  1. A) WBC count
  2. B) mean cell volume
  3. C) clotting time
  4. D) blood type

Answer: B

Explanation: A) The white blood cell (WBC) count is not related to the red blood cell indices.

  1. B) Correct!
  2. C) The clotting time is not related to the red blood cell indices.
  3. D) The blood type is not related to the red blood cell indices.

Page Ref: 292

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Comprehension

Question Type: Diagnostic Procedures

9) The patient who has ________ will be prescribed antiretroviral drugs.

  1. A) PTT
  2. B) CBC
  3. C) PMN
  4. D) HIV

Answer: D

Explanation: A) Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is a lab test, not a disease.

  1. B) Complete blood count (CBC) is a lab test, not a disease.
  2. C) Polymorphonucleated (PMN) leukocyte is a white blood cell, not a disease.
  3. D) Correct! These are drugs used to treat HIV infection and AIDS.

Page Ref: 287

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Pharmacology

10) Which of the following is the most abundant plasma protein?

  1. A) albumin
  2. B) ferritin
  3. C) bilirubin
  4. D) bicarbonate

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) Ferritin is not a protein in the plasma.
  2. C) Bilirubin is not a protein in the plasma.
  3. D) Bicarbonate is an electrolyte, not a plasma protein.

Page Ref: 275

Learning Outcome: 6.4

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

11) John Alavent has hemophilia A. He requires treatment with a factor ________ drug to prevent episodes of bleeding.

  1. A) I
  2. B) II
  3. C) VIII
  4. D) X

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Hemophilia is not related to factor I.

  1. B) Hemophilia is not related to factor II.
  2. C) Correct! Factor VIII is the missing factor in hemophilia A.
  3. D) Hemophilia A is not related to factor X.

Page Ref: 290

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

12) If a patient has a splenectomy, he or she has lost an organ that ________.

  1. A) produces lymphocytes
  2. B) stores whole blood
  3. C) manufactures blood proteins
  4. D) releases histamine

Answer: B

Explanation: A) The spleen does not produce lymphocytes.

  1. B) Correct!
  2. C) The spleen does not manufacture blood proteins.
  3. D) The spleen does not release histamine.

Page Ref: 272

Learning Outcome: 6.2

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Physiology

13) A patient with type B blood was accidentally given a transfusion of type A blood. Red blood cells were destroyed, and this is known as ________.

  1. A) hemolysis
  2. B) hemostasis
  3. C) hypercalcemia
  4. D) coagulation

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) This does not describe hemostasis.
  2. C) This does not describe hypercalcemia.
  3. D) This does not describe coagulation.

Page Ref: 286

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

14) The source of passive immunity that a mother gives to her infant through breast milk is known as ________.

  1. A) IgA
  2. B) IgD
  3. C) IgM
  4. D) IgE

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) This immunoglobulin is not found in breast milk.
  2. C) This immunoglobulin is not found in breast milk.
  3. D) This immunoglobulin is not found in breast milk.

Page Ref: 278

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Comprehension

Question Type: Anatomy

15) Patients taking the drug heparin will have a higher-than-normal value for ________ on their blood test.

  1. A) thrombocytes
  2. B) partial thromboplastin time
  3. C) hemoglobin
  4. D) mean cell volume

Answer: B

Explanation: A) The number of thrombocytes is not affected by the drug heparin.

  1. B) Correct! Partial thromboplastin measures the time it takes for a sample of blood to clot. Heparin is an anticoagulant so the clotting time is lengthened.
  2. C) The hemoglobin is not affected by the drug heparin.
  3. D) The mean cell volume is not affected by the drug heparin.

Page Ref: 293

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diagnostic Procedures

16) The patient came to the clinic with a sore throat and a fever. If he has a bacterial infection, which cells in his blood would engulf and destroy the bacteria?

  1. A) lymph nodes
  2. B) eosinophils
  3. C) neutrophils
  4. D) thrombocytes

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Lymph nodes are not cells in the blood.

  1. B) Eosinophils destroy allergens and parasites.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) Thrombocytes are involved in blood clotting.

Page Ref: 266

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

17) Select the lab test that reports the percentage of red blood cells in a sample of blood.

  1. A) HCT
  2. B) IgA
  3. C) PTT
  4. D) TNF

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) This is an immunoglobulin.
  2. C) Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is a blood clotting test.
  3. D) Tumor necrosis factor (TNF) is released by monocytes.

Page Ref: 292

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Comprehension

Question Type: Diagnostic Procedures

18) The Schilling test is done to diagnose ________.

  1. A) sickle-cell anemia
  2. B) pernicious anemia
  3. C) AIDS
  4. D) mononucleosis

Answer: B

Explanation: A) This is not a test for sickle-cell anemia.

  1. B) Correct!
  2. C) This is not a test for AIDS.
  3. D) This is not a test for mononucleosis.

Page Ref: 295

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diagnostic Procedures

19) Which is a type of anemia caused by a genetic abnormality in the structure of hemoglobin that causes abnormally shaped red blood cells?

  1. A) polycythemia vera
  2. B) multiple myeloma
  3. C) sickle cell anemia
  4. D) pernicious anemia

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Polycythemia vera has too many red blood cells.

  1. B) This is not a type of anemia.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) Pernicious anemia does not have a genetic problem with the structure of the hemoglobin.

Page Ref: 285

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

20) A ferritin blood test indirectly measures the amount of ________ stored in the body.

  1. A) potassium
  2. B) erythrocytes
  3. C) iron
  4. D) leukocytes

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Ferritin is a test for iron.

  1. B) Ferritin is a test for iron.
  2. C) Correct! Ferritin is a test for iron.
  3. D) Ferritin is a test for iron.

Page Ref: 294

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diagnostic Procedures

21) Because of their irregular shape, sickle cells can be categorized as ________.

  1. A) phagocytosis
  2. B) thrombocytes
  3. C) pancytopenia
  4. D) poikilocytosis

Answer: D

Explanation: A) This is a process of engulfing bacteria.

  1. B) Thrombocytes are not abnormally shaped.
  2. C) Pancytopenia does not have abnormally shaped cells.
  3. D) Correct! Poikil/o– means “irregular” and cyt/o– means “cell.”

Page Ref: 286

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

22) Which is the most common leukocyte, comprising 54—62% of the leukocytes in the blood?

  1. A) neutrophils
  2. B) eosinophils
  3. C) basophils
  4. D) monocytes

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) Eosinophils are not the most common leukocyte.
  2. C) Basophils are not the most common leukocyte.
  3. D) Monocytes are not the most common leukocyte.

Page Ref: 265

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

23) Which cells are active in the blood-clotting process?

  1. A) leukocytes
  2. B) lymphocytes
  3. C) thrombocytes
  4. D) white blood cells

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Leukocytes are not active in the blood-clotting process.

  1. B) Lymphocytes are not active in the blood-clotting process.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) White blood cells are not active in the blood-clotting process.

Page Ref: 267

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

24) A person with type A blood has ________.

  1. A) both A and B antigens on their erythrocytes
  2. B) neither A nor B antigens on their erythrocytes
  3. C) B antigens on their erythrocytes
  4. D) A antigens on their erythrocytes

Answer: D

Explanation: A) A person with type A blood does not have B antigens on their erythrocytes.

  1. B) A person with type A blood does have A antigens on their erythrocytes.
  2. C) A person with type A blood does not have B antigens on their erythrocytes.
  3. D) Correct! A antigens are present on the erythrocytes of a person with type A blood.

Page Ref: 268

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

25) Microorganisms, such as bacteria, viruses, protozoa, fungi, or yeast that invade the body are known as ________.

  1. A) tumors
  2. B) pathogens
  3. C) interferon
  4. D) immunoglobulins

Answer: B

Explanation: A) Tumors are made of tissue, not microorganisms.

  1. B) Correct!
  2. C) Interferon is a chemical, not a microorganism.
  3. D) Immunoglobulins are produced during the immune response; they are not microorganisms.

Page Ref: 272

Learning Outcome: 6.2

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Physiology

26) The body’s continuing immune response and defense against pathogens it has seen before is known as ________.

  1. A) active immunity
  2. B) passive immunity
  3. C) immunoglobulins
  4. D) graft-versus-host

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) Passive immunity is conveyed by the mother to the fetus or infant.
  2. C) Immunoglobulins are part of the immune response, both passive and active immunity.
  3. D) This is an immune response to donor tissue, not to pathogens.

Page Ref: 277

Learning Outcome: 6.2

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Physiology

27) Which antibody is found on the surface of a B cell and activates it to become a plasma cell?

  1. A) IgA
  2. B) IgD
  3. C) red blood cell antigen
  4. D) IgG

Answer: B

Explanation: A) Immunoglobulin A is not associated with B cells.

  1. B) Correct!
  2. C) Red blood cell antigens are only on red blood cells.
  3. D) Immunoglobulin G is not associated with B cells.

Page Ref: 278

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

28) There are ________ different classes of immunoglobulins.

  1. A) seven
  2. B) ten
  3. C) four
  4. D) five

Answer: D

Explanation: A) This is not the correct number.

  1. B) This is not the correct number.
  2. C) This is not the correct number.
  3. D) Correct! There are five classes: IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, and IgM.

Page Ref: 278

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

29) Which is a very large cell whose cytoplasm breaks away at the edges to form individual thrombocytes?

  1. A) platelet
  2. B) macrophage
  3. C) megakaryocyte
  4. D) monocyte

Answer: C

Explanation: A) A platelet is not the large cell.

  1. B) A macrophage’s cytoplasm does not break away.
  2. C) Correct! Mega– means “large.”
  3. D) The cytoplasm of a monocyte never breaks away.

Page Ref: 267

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

30) Which is a condition in which the number of erythrocytes in the blood is decreased?

  1. A) poikilocytosis
  2. B) Hodgkin’s disease
  3. C) polycythemia vera
  4. D) anemia

Answer: D

Explanation: A) The erythrocytes are irregular, not decreased, in this disease.

  1. B) This disease affects the leukocytes, not erythrocytes.
  2. C) This disease increases, not decreases, the number of erythrocytes.
  3. D) Correct!

Page Ref: 284

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

31) Which type of anemia is caused by failure of the bone marrow to produce erythrocytes?

  1. A) iron-deficiency anemia
  2. B) aplastic anemia
  3. C) pernicious anemia
  4. D) sickle-cell anemia

Answer: B

Explanation: A) In iron-deficiency anemia, the bone marrow does produce erythrocytes.

  1. B) Correct! A– means “away from; without,” plast/o– means “formation; growth.”
  2. C) In pernicious anemia, the bone marrow does produce erythrocytes.
  3. D) In sickle-cell anemia, the bone marrow does produce erythrocytes.

Page Ref: 284

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

32) An abnormal increase in the number of erythrocytes due to uncontrolled production is known as ________.

  1. A) polycythemia vera
  2. B) leukemia
  3. C) anemia
  4. D) embolism

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) Leukemia is an abnormal increase in the number of leukocytes, not erythrocytes.
  2. C) Anemia is an abnormal decrease, not increase, in the number of erythrocytes.
  3. D) Embolism is a blood clot.

Page Ref: 286

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

33) Which medical word is used to refer to cancer of the white blood cells?

  1. A) leukemia
  2. B) anemia
  3. C) multiple myeloma
  4. D) blood dyscrasia

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) Anemia is not a cancer.
  2. C) Multiple myeloma is a cancer of the B cells, not other white blood cells.
  3. D) Blood dyscrasia is any disease of the blood.

Page Ref: 288

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

34) Which infectious disease is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)?

  1. A) multiple myeloma
  2. B) AIDS
  3. C) mononucleosis
  4. D) hemophilia

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Multiple myeloma is cancer, not an infectious disease.

  1. B) AIDS is caused by HIV, not the Epstein-Barr virus.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) Hemophilia is a hereditary disease, not an infectious disease.

Page Ref: 288

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

35) Which medical procedure involves the separation of plasma from the blood cells in whole blood?

  1. A) stem cell transplantation
  2. B) plasmapheresis
  3. C) blood donation
  4. D) blood transfusion

Answer: B

Explanation: A) This does not describe stem cell transplantation.

  1. B) Correct! During plasmapheresis, a unit of blood is spun in a centrifuge, and the blood cells are pulled to the bottom. The plasma portion at the top is siphoned off.
  2. C) This does not describe blood donation.
  3. D) This does not describe blood transfusion.

Page Ref: 298

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Medical and Surgical Procedures

36) Which type of drug is given to suppress the immune response and decrease inflammation?

  1. A) thrombolytic drug
  2. B) protease inhibitor drug
  3. C) anticoagulant drug
  4. D) corticosteroid drug

Answer: D

Explanation: A) This drug is given to dissolve a clot.

  1. B) This drug is given to treat HIV, not inflammation.
  2. C) This drug prolongs the blood clotting time.
  3. D) Correct!

Page Ref: 300

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Pharmacology

37) Lymphadenopathy can occur in the ________.

  1. A) neck
  2. B) axillae
  3. C) groin
  4. D) all of the above

Answer: D

Explanation: A) This is true, but it is not the only correct answer.

  1. B) This is true, but it is not the only correct answer.
  2. C) This is true, but it is not the only correct answer.
  3. D) Correct!

Page Ref: 290

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

38) The formed elements of the blood are suspended in the liquid known as ________.

  1. A) plasma
  2. B) lymphocyte
  3. C) thymus
  4. D) erythroblast

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) A lymphocyte is a formed element.
  2. C) The thymus is an organ, not a liquid
  3. D) An erythroblast is a cell, not a liquid

Page Ref: 261

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

39) Which is the most numerous type of blood cell?

  1. A) erythrocyte
  2. B) plasma cell
  3. C) leukocyte
  4. D) neutrophil

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) Plasma cells are not the most numerous.
  2. C) Leukocytes are not the most numerous.
  3. D) Neutrophils are the most numerous type of WBC, but not the most numerous type of all blood cells.

Page Ref: 262

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

40) Which of the following is NOT a type of leukocyte?

  1. A) erythrocyte
  2. B) neutrophil
  3. C) eosinophil
  4. D) basophil

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) This is a type of leukocyte.
  2. C) This is a type of leukocyte.
  3. D) This is a type of leukocyte.

Page Ref: 265

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

41) Platelets are active in which process?

  1. A) carrying oxygen
  2. B) fighting infection
  3. C) immune response
  4. D) blood clotting

Answer: D

Explanation: A) Erythrocytes, not platelets, carry oxygen.

  1. B) Leukocytes, not platelets, fight infection.
  2. C) Leukocytes, not platelets, are part of the immune response.
  3. D) Correct!

Page Ref: 267

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

42) When an injury occurs, thrombocytes stick to the damaged area of the blood vessel wall and form clumps to block the blood flow. This process is known as ________.

  1. A) hematopoiesis
  2. B) plasmapheresis
  3. C) stem cell transplantation
  4. D) aggregation

Answer: D

Explanation: A) This does not describe hematopoiesis.

  1. B) This does not describe plasmapheresis.
  2. C) This does not describe stem cell transplantation.
  3. D) Correct!

Page Ref: 269

Learning Outcome: 6.2

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Physiology

43) The body’s immune response can detect and destroy which of the following?

  1. A) bacteria
  2. B) viruses
  3. C) protozoa
  4. D) all of the above

Answer: D

Explanation: A) This is true, but it is not the only correct answer.

  1. B) This is true, but it is not the only correct answer.
  2. C) This is true, but it is not the only correct answer.
  3. D) Correct!

Page Ref: 272

Learning Outcome: 6.2

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Physiology

44) Any disease involving the blood cells is called a blood ________.

  1. A) pancytopenia
  2. B) septicemia
  3. C) dyscrasia
  4. D) anisocytosis

Answer: C

Explanation: A) This does not describe pancytopenia.

  1. B) This does not describe septicemia.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) This does not describe anisocytosis.

Page Ref: 284

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

45) What blood test is performed to manually examine the characteristics of erythrocytes and leukocytes?

  1. A) electrophoresis
  2. B) peripheral blood smear
  3. C) white blood count
  4. D) blood chemistries

Answer: B

Explanation: A) Electrophoresis does not test red blood cells.

  1. B) Correct!
  2. C) White blood count does not test red blood cells.
  3. D) Blood chemistries do not test blood cells.

Page Ref: 292

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diagnostic Procedures

46) The abbreviation DVT refers to a ________.

  1. A) blood clot in the vein
  2. B) lymph node in the neck
  3. C) condition of anemia
  4. D) type of blood cell

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct! A deep vein thrombus (DVT) is a blood clot in a deep vein of the leg.

  1. B) A deep venous thrombus (DVT) is not a lymph node.
  2. C) A deep vein thrombus (DVT) is not anemia.
  3. D) A deep vein thrombus (DVT) is not a blood cell.

Page Ref: 289

Learning Outcome: 6.5

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Abbreviations

47) Agglutination means ________.

  1. A) swelling
  2. B) painful
  3. C) clumping together
  4. D) diseased

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Agglutination does not mean swelling.

  1. B) Agglutination does not mean painful.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) Agglutination does not mean diseased.

Page Ref: 292

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

48) Which structure filters the lymph?

  1. A) lymph node
  2. B) erythrocyte
  3. C) lymphatic vessel
  4. D) thymus

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) An erythrocyte is not part of the lymphatic system.
  2. C) A lymphatic vessel carries lymph, but does not filter it.
  3. D) The thymus does not filter lymph.

Page Ref: 270

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

49) Which are the smallest leukocytes?

  1. A) WBCs
  2. B) lymphocytes
  3. C) monocytes
  4. D) basophils

Answer: B

Explanation: A) WBCs (white blood cells) include all leukocytes.

  1. B) Correct!
  2. C) Monocytes are not the smallest leukocytes.
  3. D) Basophils are not the smallest leukocytes.

Page Ref: 276

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

50) All of the following are TRUE of the spleen EXCEPT ________.

  1. A) it produces red blood cells
  2. B) it stores supplies of blood
  3. C) it removes old red blood cells
  4. D) it contains B and T lymphocytes

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct! The red bone marrow, not the spleen, produces red blood cells.

  1. B) This is true of the spleen.
  2. C) This is true of the spleen.
  3. D) This is true of the spleen.

Page Ref: 279

Learning Outcome: 6.2

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Physiology

51) Where do all lymphatic vessels end?

  1. A) at one main lymph node
  2. B) in the spleen
  3. C) in large veins in the neck
  4. D) in the heart

Answer: C

Explanation: A) This is not where lymphatic vessels end.

  1. B) This is not where lymphatic vessels end.
  2. C) Correct! The lymphatic vessels or ducts empty into large veins in the neck.
  3. D) This is not where lymphatic vessels end.

Page Ref: 270

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

52) Where is the thymus located?

  1. A) posterior to the stomach
  2. B) in the red bone marrow
  3. C) beside large lymphatic ducts
  4. D) within the mediastinum

Answer: D

Explanation: A) The thymus is not posterior to the stomach.

  1. B) The thymus is not in the red bone marrow.
  2. C) The thymus is not beside large lymphatic ducts.
  3. D) Correct! The thymus is in the mediastinum, posterior to the sternum.

Page Ref: 272

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

53) All of the following are specialized types of lymphocytes EXCEPT ________.

  1. A) natural killer (NK) cells
  2. B) helper T cells
  3. C) interleukin
  4. D) suppressor T cells

Answer: C

Explanation: A) This is a specialized type of lymphocyte.

  1. B) This is a specialized type of lymphocyte.
  2. C) Correct! Interleukin is a chemical released by macrophages that have engulfed a virus.
  3. D) This is a specialized type of lymphocyte.

Page Ref: 278

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

54) A red blood cell that is very small is said to be ________.

  1. A) normocytic
  2. B) microcytic
  3. C) hypochromic
  4. D) sickled

Answer: B

Explanation: A) A red blood cell that is normocytic is of a normal size.

  1. B) Correct! Micr/o– means “small.”
  2. C) A red blood cell that is hypochromic is pale in color, but normal in size.
  3. D) A red blood cell that is sickled is not abnormally small, just abnormally shaped.

Page Ref: 285

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

55) Leukemia is named according to the type of leukocyte that is most prevalent in the blood and whether ________.

  1. A) it is cancerous or not
  2. B) infection is also present
  3. C) the onset was acute or chronic
  4. D) there is also lymphadenopathy

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Leukemia is always malignant, so that does not affect how it is named.

  1. B) Leukemia is a cancer, not an infection.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) Leukemia is not named according to lymphadenopathy.

Page Ref: 288

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

56) Hemophilia is caused by an abnormal gene on ________.

  1. A) the Y chromosome carried by the father
  2. B) factor VIII in the blood
  3. C) the X chromosome carried by the mother
  4. D) cancerous lymphocytes in the blood

Answer: C

Explanation: A) The hemophilia gene is not on the Y chromosome.

  1. B) Factor VIII does not have any genes.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) Cancerous lymphocytes are not related to hemophilia.

Page Ref: 290

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

57) The patient’s own blood that is collected, filtered, and returned to the patient during surgery is known as ________ blood.

  1. A) sickle-cell
  2. B) plasma
  3. C) clotted
  4. D) autologous

Answer: D

Explanation: A) Sickle-cell blood is not used during surgery.

  1. B) There is no such thing as plasma blood.
  2. C) Clotted blood is not used during surgery.
  3. D) Correct! Auto– means “self.”

Page Ref: 297

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Medical and Surgical Procedures

58) Which word is MISSPELLED?

  1. A) spleen
  2. B) spleenectomy
  3. C) splenic
  4. D) splenomegaly

Answer: B

Explanation: A) This is spelled correctly.

  1. B) Correct! The correct spelling is splenectomy.
  2. C) This is spelled correctly.
  3. D) This is spelled correctly.

Page Ref: 299

Learning Outcome: 3.7

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Spelling and Pronouncing

59) Viscosity refers to the ________ of the blood.

  1. A) color
  2. B) pH
  3. C) thickness
  4. D) clotting time

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Viscosity is not related to color.

  1. B) Viscosity is not related to pH.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) Viscosity is not related to clotting time.

Page Ref: 286

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

60) Which word is MISSPELLED?

  1. A) albumin
  2. B) hematopoiesis
  3. C) corticosteroid drug
  4. D) hematacrit

Answer: D

Explanation: A) This is spelled correctly.

  1. B) This is spelled correctly.
  2. C) This is spelled correctly.
  3. D) Correct! The correct spelling is hematocrit.

Page Ref: 292

Learning Outcome: 6.7

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Spelling and Pronouncing

61) All of the following are electrolytes in the plasma EXCEPT ________.

  1. A) bicarbonate
  2. B) Rh factor
  3. C) sodium
  4. D) potassium

Answer: B

Explanation: A) Bicarbonate is an electrolyte.

  1. B) Correct! Rh factor is an antigen on red blood cells.
  2. C) Sodium is an electrolyte.
  3. D) Potassium is an electrolyte.

Page Ref: 262

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

62) All of the following are laboratory tests to detect HIV EXCEPT ________.

  1. A) WBC differential
  2. B) CD4 count
  3. C) ELISA
  4. D) viral RNA load test

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct! The white blood cell (WBC) differential measures the numbers of the five types of white blood cells.

  1. B) This is a lab test to detect human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
  2. C) This is a lab test to detect human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
  3. D) This is a lab test to detect human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).

Page Ref: 294

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Comprehension

Question Type: Diagnostic Procedures

63) All of the following are types of leukemia EXCEPT ________.

  1. A) AML
  2. B) PRBCs
  3. C) CLL
  4. D) ALL

Answer: B

Explanation: A) Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) is a type of leukemia.

  1. B) Correct! Packed red blood cells (PRBCs) are a blood product given during a blood transfusion.
  2. C) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) is a type of leukemia.
  3. D) Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) is a type of leukemia.

Page Ref: 288

Learning Outcome: 6.5

LOD: Comprehension

Question Type: Abbreviations

64) Which of the following contains hemoglobin that transports oxygen to the cells?

  1. A) plasma
  2. B) blood type
  3. C) erythrocyte
  4. D) lymph

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Plasma does not contain hemoglobin.

  1. B) Blood type does not contain hemoglobin.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) Lymph does not contain hemoglobin.

Page Ref: 264

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

65) All of these help form a clot EXCEPT ________.

  1. A) thrombocytes
  2. B) clotting factors
  3. C) leukocytes
  4. D) fibrin

Answer: C

Explanation: A) These do help form a clot.

  1. B) These do help form a clot.
  2. C) Correct! Leukocytes (white blood cells) function in the immune response, not in blood clotting.
  3. D) These do help form a clot.

Page Ref: 259

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

66) The combining form erythr/o- means ________.

  1. A) “inflammation”
  2. B) “red”
  3. C) “cancer”
  4. D) “white”

Answer: B

Explanation: A) Eryth/o– does not mean “inflammation.”

  1. B) Correct!
  2. C) Eryth/o– does not mean “cancer.”
  3. D) Eryth/o– does not mean “white.”

Page Ref: 262

Learning Outcome: 6.5

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Parts

67) Leukemia is a/an ________.

  1. A) bacterial infection of the blood
  2. B) enlargement of the spleen
  3. C) cancer with too many white blood cells
  4. D) type of parasite

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Leukemia is not a bacterial infection of the blood.

  1. B) Leukemia is not enlargement of the spleen.
  2. C) Correct! Leukemia is a cancer.
  3. D) Leukemia is not a type of parasite.

Page Ref: 288

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

68) Based on the meaning of the word part path/o-, you can define the word pathogen as an organism that produces ________.

  1. A) disease
  2. B) allergy
  3. C) cancer
  4. D) anemia.

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct! Path/o– means “disease” and –gen means “that which produces.”

  1. B) A pathogen does not produce an allergy.
  2. C) A pathogen does not produce cancer.
  3. D) A pathogen does not produce anemia.

Page Ref: 272

Learning Outcome: 6.6

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Building and Dividing

69) Anemia is characterized by ________.

  1. A) blood clots
  2. B) a bacterial infection of the blood
  3. C) a decreased number of erythrocytes
  4. D) too many white blood cells

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Anemia is not characterized by blood clots.

  1. B) Anemia is not a bacterial infection.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) Anemia is not characterized by too many white blood cells.

Page Ref: 284

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

70) Which type of anemia is due to a genetic abnormality?

  1. A) sickle-cell anemia
  2. B) pernicious anemia
  3. C) iron-deficiency anemia
  4. D) thrombocytopenia

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct! Sickle-cell anemia is an inherited genetic defect in the hemoglobin.

  1. B) Pernicious anemia is not due to genetics.
  2. C) Iron-deficiency anemia is not due to genetics.
  3. D) Thrombocytopenia is not a type of anemia.

Page Ref: 285

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

71) If you have a severe sore throat, the physician might find ________ on your physical exam.

  1. A) pernicious anemia
  2. B) splenomegaly
  3. C) leukemia
  4. D) lymphadenopathy

Answer: D

Explanation: A) Pernicious anemia is not related to a sore throat.

  1. B) Splenomegaly is not related to a sore throat.
  2. C) Leukemia is not related to a sore throat.
  3. D) Correct! A sore throat causes lymph nodes in the neck to enlarge.

Page Ref: 290

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

72) Enlargement of the lymph nodes in a particular area of the body could be caused by ________.

  1. A) cancer
  2. B) a severe infection
  3. C) a sore throat
  4. D) all of the above

Answer: D

Explanation: A) This is true, but it is not the only correct answer.

  1. B) This is true, but it is not the only correct answer.
  2. C) This is true, but it is not the only correct answer.
  3. D) Correct!

Page Ref: 290

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

73) A cancerous tumor originating in a lymph node is known as a ________.

  1. A) lymphoma
  2. B) thymoma
  3. C) splenomegaly
  4. D) multiple myeloma

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) This is a tumor of the thymus not the lymph node.
  2. C) This is an enlargement, but not a cancer.
  3. D) This is a cancer of plasma cells (B lymphocytes).

Page Ref: 291

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

74) T lymphocytes mature in the ________.

  1. A) spleen
  2. B) liver
  3. C) plasma
  4. D) thymus

Answer: D

Explanation: A) No lymphocytes mature in the spleen.

  1. B) No lymphocytes mature in the liver.
  2. C) No lymphocytes mature in the plasma.
  3. D) Correct!

Page Ref: 272

Learning Outcome: 6.2

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Physiology

75) GVHD develops when ________.

  1. A) the bone marrow does not produce any blood cells
  2. B) the clotting time is prolonged due to factor VIII deficiency
  3. C) a patient’s immune system rejects a donor organ
  4. D) Epstein-Barr virus causes an infection

Answer: C

Explanation: A) This describes aplastic anemia, not GVHD.

  1. B) This describes hemophilia, not GVHD.
  2. C) Correct! GVHD stands for graft-versus-host disease.
  3. D) This describes mononucleosis, not GVHD.

Page Ref: 290

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Comprehension

Question Type: Diseases

76) The tissue types of a bone marrow donor and a recipient patient are matched for ________.

  1. A) Reed-Sternberg cells
  2. B) blood type
  3. C) HLA
  4. D) H&H

Answer: C

Explanation: A) These are seen in Hodgkin’s disease.

  1. B) Blood donors and blood transfusion recipients are matched for blood type.
  2. C) Correct! Human leukocyte-associated (HLA) antigen matching is done for bone marrow donors and recipients.
  3. D) Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H) is not done for bone marrow donors and recipients.

Page Ref: 307

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Medical and Surgical Procedures

77) Blood group antigens are protein molecules located on the cell membranes of ________.

  1. A) leukocytes
  2. B) clotting factors
  3. C) thrombocytes
  4. D) erythrocytes

Answer: D

Explanation: A) Blood group antigens are not located on leukocytes.

  1. B) Blood group antigens are not located on clotting factors.
  2. C) Blood group antigens are not located on thrombocytes.
  3. D) Correct! The cell membrane of erythrocytes contains antigens for blood groups.

Page Ref: 268

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

78) The common name is “the kissing disease,” but healthcare professionals know it as ________.

  1. A) iron-deficiency anemia
  2. B) mononucleosis
  3. C) transfusion reaction
  4. D) AIDS

Answer: B

Explanation: A) Iron-deficiency anemia is not called “the kissing disease.”

  1. B) Correct!
  2. C) Transfusion reaction is not called “the kissing disease.”
  3. D) AIDS is not called “the kissing disease.”

Page Ref: 288

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

79) All of these are laboratory tests that measure how quickly the blood clots EXCEPT ________.

  1. A) PT
  2. B) PTT
  3. C) CD4 count
  4. D) ACT

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Prothrombin time (PT) does measure blood clotting time.

  1. B) Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) does measure blood clotting time.
  2. C) Correct! The CD4 count is used to monitor the progress of AIDS.
  3. D) Activated clotting time (ACT) does measure blood clotting time.

Page Ref: 293

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Comprehension

Question Type: Diagnostic Procedures

80) The combining form leuk/o-, as seen in the word leukemia, means ________.

  1. A) blood
  2. B) connection
  3. C) infection
  4. D) white

Answer: D

Explanation: A) Hem/o– and hemat/o– mean “blood.”

  1. B) There are no medical word parts that mean connection.
  2. C) Septic/o– means “infection.”
  3. D) Correct!

Page Ref: 288

Learning Outcome: 6.5

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Parts

81) Each of the following is a meaning for the combining form myel/o- EXCEPT ________.

  1. A) “bone marrow”
  2. B) “shape”
  3. C) “myelin”
  4. D) “spinal cord”

Answer: B

Explanation: A) Myel/o– means “bone marrow; myelin; spinal cord.”

  1. B) Correct! Morph/o- means “shape.”
  2. C) Myel/o– means “bone marrow; myelin; spinal cord.”
  3. D) Myel/o– means “bone marrow; myelin; spinal cord.”

Page Ref: 266

Learning Outcome: 6.5

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Parts

82) The combining form aggreg/o-, as seen in the word aggregation, means ________.

  1. A) “press down”
  2. B) “crowding together”
  3. C) “immune response”
  4. D) “blood clot”

Answer: B

Explanation: A) Suppress/o– means “press down.”

  1. B) Correct!
  2. C) Immun/o– means “immune response.”
  3. D) Thromb/o– means “blood clot.”

Page Ref: 269

Learning Outcome: 6.5

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Parts

83) The combining form coagul/o-, as seen in the word coagulation, means ________.

  1. A) “clotting”
  2. B) “blood clot”
  3. C) “cell”
  4. D) “blood”

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) Thromb/o– means “blood clot.”
  2. C) Cyt/o- means “cell.”
  3. D) Hem/o– means “blood.”

Page Ref: 269

Learning Outcome: 6.5

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Parts

84) The combining form phag/o-, as seen in the word phagocytosis, means ________.

  1. A) “eating; swallowing”
  2. B) “large”
  3. C) “white”
  4. D) “cell”

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) Meg/a– means “large.”
  2. C) Leuk/o– means “white.”
  3. D) Cyt/o- means “cell.”

Page Ref: 266

Learning Outcome: 6.5

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Parts

85) The suffix –rrhage, as seen in hemorrhage, means ________.

  1. A) “thing that eats; thing that swallows”
  2. B) “excessive discharge; excessive flow”
  3. C) “surgical removal; surgical excision”
  4. D) “cell; cellular”

Answer: B

Explanation: A) The suffix –phage means “thing that eats.”

  1. B) Correct!
  2. C) The suffix –ectomy means “surgical removal.”
  3. D) The suffix –cyte means “cell.”

Page Ref: 284

Learning Outcome: 6.5

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Parts

86) The suffix –emia means ________.

  1. A) “condition of deficiency”
  2. B) “immature cell”
  3. C) “condition of the blood; substance in the blood”
  4. D) “process of cutting; process of making an incision”

Answer: C

Explanation: A) The suffix –penia means “condition of deficiency.”

  1. B) The suffix –blast means “immature cell.”
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) The suffix –tomy means this.

Page Ref: 284

Learning Outcome: 6.5

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Parts

87) The combining form poikil/o-, a seen in poikilocytosis, means ________.

  1. A) “unknown; individual”
  2. B) “immature”
  3. C) “irregular”
  4. D) “like a sickle”

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Idi/o- means “unknown; individual.”

  1. B) Blast/o– means “immature.”
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) There are no medical word parts that mean “like a sickle.”

Page Ref: 286

Learning Outcome: 6.5

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Parts

88) The combining form lyt/o-, as seen in hemolytic, means ________.

  1. A) “cell”
  2. B) “disease”
  3. C) “weakened”
  4. D) “break down; destroy”

Answer: D

Explanation: A) Cyt/o- means “cell.”

  1. B) Path/o– means “disease.”
  2. C) Attenu/o– means “weakened.”
  3. D) Correct!

Page Ref: 286

Learning Outcome: 6.5

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Parts

89) The suffix –penia, as seen in thrombocytopenia, means “condition of ________.”

  1. A) infection
  2. B) bleeding
  3. C) deficiency
  4. D) the blood

Answer: C

Explanation: A) It does not mean “condition of infection.”

  1. B) It does not mean “condition of bleeding.”
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) The suffix –emia means “condition of the blood; substance in the blood.”

Page Ref: 290

Learning Outcome: 6.6

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Parts

90) The suffix –crit, as seen in hematocrit, means ________ because it refers to the percentage of the red blood cells within a sample of blood.

  1. A) “cell”
  2. B) “iron”
  3. C) “separation of”
  4. D) “self”

Answer: C

Explanation: A) The suffix –cyte means “cell.”

  1. B) The combining form ferr/o– means “iron.”
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) The combining form aut/o– means “self.”

Page Ref: 292

Learning Outcome: 6.5

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Parts

91) The combining form ferr/o– means ________.

  1. A) “blood”
  2. B) “calcium”
  3. C) “iron”
  4. D) “red”

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Hem/o– and hemat/o– mean “blood.”

  1. B) Calc/o– means “calcium.”
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) Erythr/o– and rub/o- mean “red.”

Page Ref: 294

Learning Outcome: 6.5

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Parts

92) The suffix –blast, as seen in erythroblast, means ________.

  1. A) “blood cell”
  2. B) “stem cell”
  3. C) “immature cell”
  4. D) “lymph cell”

Answer: C

Explanation: A) There are no medical word parts that mean blood cell.

  1. B) There are no medical word parts that mean stem cell.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) There are no medical word parts that mean lymph cell.

Page Ref: 264

Learning Outcome: 6.5

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Parts

93) Select the CORRECT spelling of the word that means “red blood cell.”

  1. A) erithrohsite
  2. B) erithryosite
  3. C) erythrocyte
  4. D) erythryocyte

Answer: C

Explanation: A) This is not the correct spelling.

  1. B) This is not the correct spelling.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) This is not the correct spelling.

Page Ref: 262

Learning Outcome: 6.7

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Spelling and Pronouncing

94) Which is the CORRECT spelling of the medical word that refers to the loss of a large amount of blood, externally or internally?

  1. A) hemorage
  2. B) hemorrage
  3. C) hemorrhage
  4. D) hemmrhage

Answer: C

Explanation: A) This is not the correct spelling.

  1. B) This is not the correct spelling.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) This is not the correct spelling.

Page Ref: 284

Learning Outcome: 6.7

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Spelling and Pronouncing

95) Which word or phrase is MISSPELLED?

  1. A) leukemia
  2. B) thrombosite
  3. C) coagulopathy
  4. D) Hodgkin’s disease

Answer: B

Explanation: A) This is spelled correctly.

  1. B) Correct! The correct spelling is thrombocyte.
  2. C) This is spelled correctly.
  3. D) This is spelled correctly.

Page Ref: 267

Learning Outcome: 6.7

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Spelling and Pronouncing

96) A bone marrow aspiration is done by taking red marrow from the ________.

  1. A) blood
  2. B) lymph node
  3. C) hip bone
  4. D) spleen

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Red marrow does not come from the blood.

  1. B) Red marrow does not come from the lymph node.
  2. C) Correct! Red marrow is taken from the hip bone.
  3. D) Red marrow does not come from the spleen.

Page Ref: 296

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Medical and Surgical Procedures

97) A low level of ________ in a person with sickle-cell disease causes the red blood cells to have a crescent or sickle shape.

  1. A) ferritin
  2. B) immunoglobulin
  3. C) factor VIII
  4. D) oxygen

Answer: D

Explanation: A) The ferritin level is not low in sickle-cell disease.

  1. B) The immunoglobulin level is not low in sickle-cell disease.
  2. C) The factor VIII level is low in hemophilia, not sickle-cell disease.
  3. D) Correct!

Page Ref: 285

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

98) Which word parts do you need to build a medical word that means “excessive flow or discharge of blood”?

  1. A) -lysis, hypo-, erythr/o-
  2. B) -rrhage, hem/o-
  3. C) -oma, macr/o-, hemat/o-
  4. D) -cyte, thromb/o-, rrag/o-

Answer: B

Explanation: A) Erythr/o- does not mean “blood.”

  1. B) Correct! Hemorrhage is the excessive flow or discharge of blood.
  2. C) The suffix –oma means “mass; tumor.”
  3. D) Thromb/o– does not mean “blood.”

Page Ref: 284

Learning Outcome: 6.6

LOD: Comprehension

Question Type: Word Building and Dividing

99) Which word parts do you need to build a medical word that means “one who specializes in blood and its study”?

  1. A) –logy, hem/o-, log/o
  2. B) –penia, cyt/o- thromb/o-
  3. C) –ist, hemat/o-, log/o-
  4. D) –ure, electr/o-, ly/o-

Answer: C

Explanation: A) The suffix –logy does not mean “one who specializes in.”

  1. B) Thromb/o– does not mean “blood.”
  2. C) Correct! Hematologist.
  3. D) Electr/o– does not mean “blood.”

Page Ref: 302

Learning Outcome: 6.6

LOD: Comprehension

Question Type: Word Building and Dividing

100) Which is the primary accented syllable in the pronunciation of hemophilia (hee-moh-fil-ee-ah)?

  1. A) hee
  2. B) moh
  3. C) fil
  4. D) ah

Answer: C

Explanation: A) This is not the primary accented syllable.

  1. B) This is not the primary accented syllable.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) This is not the primary accented syllable.

Page Ref: 290

Learning Outcome: 6.7

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Spelling and Pronouncing

101) Which is the primary accented syllable in the pronunciation of coagulation (koh-ag-yoo-lay-shun)?

  1. A) koh
  2. B) ag
  3. C) lay
  4. D) shun

Answer: C

Explanation: A) This is not the primary accented syllable.

  1. B) This is the secondary accented syllable.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) This is not the primary accented syllable.

Page Ref: 269

Learning Outcome: 6.7

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Spelling and Pronouncing

102) Which is the primary accented syllable in the pronunciation of the word antibody (an-tih-baw-dee)?

  1. A) an
  2. B) tih
  3. C) baw
  4. D) dee

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) This is not the primary accented syllable.
  2. C) This is the secondary accented syllable.
  3. D) This is not the primary accented syllable.

Page Ref: 273

Learning Outcome: 6.7

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Spelling and Pronouncing

103) At the site of tissue injury, basophils release ________.

  1. A) fibrin
  2. B) stem cells
  3. C) interleukin
  4. D) histamine

Answer: D

Explanation: A) Fibrin is part of the blood-clotting process.

  1. B) Stem cells are not in basophils.
  2. C) Interleukin is released from macrophages, not basophils.
  3. D) Correct!

Page Ref: 275

Learning Outcome: 6.11

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

104) Which of the following statements is FALSE?

  1. A) A red blood cell is also known as an erythrocyte.
  2. B) Erythrocytes are the most numerous type of blood cell.
  3. C) Erythrocytes are unusual in that they are just cell fragments.
  4. D) Hemoglobin is an iron-containing molecule that carries oxygen.

Answer: C

Explanation: A) This is a true statement.

  1. B) This is a true statement.
  2. C) Correct! Thrombocytes, not erythrocytes, are cell fragments.
  3. D) This is a true statement.

Page Ref: 276

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

105) Old red blood cells are broken down by the ________.

  1. A) red bone marrow
  2. B) spleen
  3. C) yellow bone marrow
  4. D) thymus

Answer: B

Explanation: A) Red blood cells are created, not broken down, by red bone marrow.

  1. B) Correct!
  2. C) Yellow bone marrow has nothing to do with blood cells.
  3. D) The thymus does not break down red blood cells.

Page Ref: 279

Learning Outcome: 6.2

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Physiology

106) ________ are cells that engulf and destroy microorganisms.

  1. A) Phagocytosis
  2. B) Erythrocytes
  3. C) Thrombocytes
  4. D) Phagocytes

Answer: D

Explanation: A) This is the process of doing that, not the actual cell.

  1. B) Red blood cells do not destroy microorganisms.
  2. C) Thrombocytes do not destroy microorganisms.
  3. D) Correct! Phag/o– means “eating; swallowing.”

Page Ref: 279

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

107) A neutrophil is known by all of the following names EXCEPT ________.

  1. A) seg
  2. B) poly
  3. C) baso
  4. D) PMN

Answer: C

Explanation: A) This is another name for neutrophil.

  1. B) This is another name for neutrophil.
  2. C) Correct! This is a short form for basophil.
  3. D) This is an abbreviation for neutrophil.

Page Ref: 266

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

108) Which of the following statements is FALSE?

  1. A) AIDS is a sexually transmitted disease.
  2. B) A patient with antibodies against HIV is said to be HIV negative.
  3. C) The universal symbol for AIDS is a red ribbon.
  4. D) AIDS is caused by a retrovirus.

Answer: B

Explanation: A) This statement is true.

  1. B) Correct! A patient with antibodies against HIV is said to be HIV positive.
  2. C) This statement is true.
  3. D) This statement is true.

Page Ref: 287

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

109) Another name for a blood clot is a ________.

  1. A) thrombus
  2. B) lymphocyte
  3. C) fibrin strand
  4. D) pathogen

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) This is not a name for a blood clot.
  2. C) This is not a name for a blood clot.
  3. D) This is not a name for a blood clot.

Page Ref: 289

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

110) Blood type ________ is the universal donor.

  1. A) AB positive
  2. B) B negative
  3. C) O positive
  4. D) O negative

Answer: D

Explanation: A) This is not the universal donor.

  1. B) This is not the universal donor.
  2. C) This is not the universal donor.
  3. D) Correct!

Page Ref: 268

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

111) Before a patient can receive a blood transfusion, a/an ________ must be done.

  1. A) type and crossmatch
  2. B) bone marrow aspiration
  3. C) electrophoresis
  4. D) CD4 count

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) This is not done before a blood transfusion.
  2. C) This is not done before a blood transfusion.
  3. D) This is not done before a blood transfusion.

Page Ref: 292

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diagnostic Procedures

112) ________ is the disease in which the erythrocytes are decreased in number.

  1. A) Coagulopathy
  2. B) Septicemia
  3. C) Leukemia
  4. D) Anemia

Answer: D

Explanation: A) Coagulopathy is not related to the number of erythrocytes.

  1. B) Septicemia is not related to the number of erythrocytes.
  2. C) Leukemia is not related to the number of erythrocytes.
  3. D) Correct!

Page Ref: 284

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

113) The word microcytic refers to a red blood cell that is ________.

  1. A) normal in size
  2. B) normal in color
  3. C) small in size
  4. D) pale in color

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Microcytic does not mean “normal in size.”

  1. B) Microcytic does not mean “normal in color.”
  2. C) Correct! Micr/o– means “small.”
  3. D) Microcytic does not mean “pale in color.”

Page Ref: 284

Learning Outcome: 6.6

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Building and Dividing

114) Iron-deficiency anemia can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT ________.

  1. A) a bacterial infection
  2. B) menstruation
  3. C) deficiency of iron in the diet
  4. D) chronic blood loss

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct! A bacterial infection does not cause iron-deficiency anemia.

  1. B) This can cause iron-deficiency anemia.
  2. C) This can cause iron-deficiency anemia.
  3. D) This can cause iron-deficiency anemia.

Page Ref: 285

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

115) Pernicious anemia is caused by a deficiency of ________.

  1. A) folic acid
  2. B) iron
  3. C) vitamin B12
  4. D) oxygen

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Lack of folic acid causes folic acid anemia.

  1. B) Lack of iron causes iron-deficiency anemia.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) Lack of oxygen does not cause pernicious anemia.

Page Ref: 285

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

116) When the antibodies in the patient’s serum attack antigens on the erythrocytes of the donor blood, this is ________.

  1. A) coagulopathy
  2. B) hemophilia
  3. C) an embolus
  4. D) a transfusion reaction

Answer: D

Explanation: A) This is not coagulopathy.

  1. B) This is not hemophilia.
  2. C) This is not an embolus.
  3. D) Correct!

Page Ref: 286

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

117) In an autoimmune disorder, the body makes ________ against its own tissues.

  1. A) factor VIII
  2. B) vitamin B12
  3. C) antibodies
  4. D) electrolytes

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Factor VIII is not related to an autoimmune disorder.

  1. B) Vitamin B12is not related to an autoimmune disorder.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) Electrolytes are not related to an autoimmune disorder.

Page Ref: 291

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

118) The test that determines the amount of different types of immunoglobulins in the blood is ________.

  1. A) the CD4 count
  2. B) SPEP
  3. C) PTT
  4. D) electrolytes

Answer: B

Explanation: A) A CD4 count is not related to immunoglobulins.

  1. B) Correct! SPEP stands for serum protein electrophoresis.
  2. C) Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is not related to immunoglobulins.
  3. D) Electrolytes are not related to immunoglobulins.

Page Ref: 294

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diagnostic Procedures

119) ________ is the medical procedure to remove a sample of venous blood for testing.

  1. A) Crossmatch
  2. B) Immunization
  3. C) Phlebotomy
  4. D) Splenectomy

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Crossmatch does not remove blood for testing.

  1. B) Immunization does not remove blood for testing.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) Splenectomy does not remove blood for testing.

Page Ref: 296

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Medical and Surgical Procedures

120) Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome is caused by ________.

  1. A) HCT
  2. B) MCV
  3. C) CBC
  4. D) HIV

Answer: D

Explanation: A) Hematocrit (HCT) is a test, not a disease.

  1. B) Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCV) is a test, not a disease.
  2. C) Complete blood count (CBC) is a test, not a disease.
  3. D) Correct! The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) causes AIDS.

Page Ref: 287

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Comprehension

Question Type: Diseases

121) PT and PTT are used to ________.

  1. A) measure the effectiveness of an anticoagulant drug
  2. B) calculate the percentage of red blood cells in a blood sample
  3. C) monitor the progress of HIV infection
  4. D) diagnose pernicious anemia

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) This describes a hematocrit.
  2. C) This describes the CD4 test.
  3. D) This describes the Schilling test.

Page Ref: 293

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Comprehension

Question Type: Diagnostic Procedures

122) When the body experiences a significant blood loss, the ________ produces the hormone erythropoietin to stimulate the production of red blood cells.

  1. A) bone marrow
  2. B) kidney
  3. C) spleen
  4. D) thymus

Answer: B

Explanation: A) The bone marrow does not produce erythropoietin.

  1. B) Correct!
  2. C) The spleen does not produce erythropoietin.
  3. D) The thymus does not produce erythropoietin.

Page Ref: 264

Learning Outcome: 6.2

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Physiology

123) The plural form of the singular noun thrombus is ________.

  1. A) thrombuses
  2. B) thrombae
  3. C) thrombi
  4. D) thrombosis

Answer: C

Explanation: A) This is not the plural form.

  1. B) This is not the plural form.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) This is not the plural form.

Page Ref: 269

Learning Outcome: 6.4

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Plurals and Adjectives

124) The adjective form of the word spleen is ________.

  1. A) spleenal
  2. B) splenic
  3. C) spleenoid
  4. D) spleenic

Answer: B

Explanation: A) This is not the adjective form.

  1. B) Correct!
  2. C) This is not the adjective form.
  3. D) This is not the adjective form.

Page Ref: 299

Learning Outcome: 6.4

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Plurals and Adjectives

125) An erythrocyte is another name for a/an ________.

  1. A) PMN
  2. B) ABO
  3. C) RBC
  4. D) CD4

Answer: C

Explanation: A) PMN is one of the names of a neutrophil, not a red blood cell.

  1. B) ABO is a blood group, not a red blood cell.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) CD4 is a type of leukocyte, not a red blood cell.

Page Ref: 262

Learning Outcome: 6.5

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Abbreviations

126) Sepsis or septicemia is also known as ________.

  1. A) anemia
  2. B) blood poisoning
  3. C) AIDS
  4. D) hemophilia

Answer: B

Explanation: A) It is not the same as anemia.

  1. B) Correct!
  2. C) It is not the same as AIDS.
  3. D) It is not the same as hemophilia.

Page Ref: 284

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

127) Folic acid anemia is commonly seen in patients who are ________.

  1. A) malnourished
  2. B) alcoholic
  3. C) pregnant
  4. D) all of the above

Answer: D

Explanation: A) This is true, but it is not the only correct answer.

  1. B) This is true, but it is not the only correct answer.
  2. C) This is true, but it is not the only correct answer.
  3. D) Correct!

Page Ref: 285

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

128) A vaccine that is attenuated contains bacterial or viral cells that ________.

  1. A) show a shift to the left
  2. B) are abnormally small
  3. C) have been weakened
  4. D) contain antibodies

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Shift to the left refers to a peripheral blood smear, not a vaccine.

  1. B) The cells in vaccines are not abnormally small.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) Vaccines do not contain antibodies.

Page Ref: 296

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Medical and Surgical Procedures

129) The word pancytopenia divides into what word parts?

  1. A) a prefix, a combining form, and a suffix
  2. B) two combining forms and a suffix
  3. C) a prefix and two suffixes
  4. D) a combining form and two suffixes

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) It does not contain two combining forms.
  2. C) It does not contain two suffixes.
  3. D) It does not contain two suffixes.

Page Ref: 284

Learning Outcome: 6.6

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Building and Dividing

130) By dividing the word polymorphonuclear into word parts, we can see that the meaning of the word is ________.

  1. A) cell that has many shapes of a cell
  2. B) cell that has one lobe in its nucleus of a cell
  3. C) pertaining to a many-shaped nucleus of a cell
  4. D) pertaining to many functions of a cell

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Cyt/o– means “cell” and polymorphonuclear does not contain cyt/o-.

  1. B) Mon/o- means “one” and polymorphonuclear does not contain mon/o-.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) This is not the meaning of polymorphonuclear.

Page Ref: 266

Learning Outcome: 6.6

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Building and Dividing

131) Which word part has the opposite meaning of poly-?

  1. A) –cyte
  2. B) mega
  3. C) kary/o-
  4. D) mon/o-

Answer: D

Explanation: A) The suffix –cyte means “cell,” not the opposite of poly-.

  1. B) Mega– means “large” and poly- means “many; much.”
  2. C) Kary/o– means “nucleus,” not the opposite of poly-.
  3. D) Correct! Mon/o- means “one” and poly- means “many; much.”

Page Ref: 267

Learning Outcome: 6.6

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Parts

132) When you build a medical word that means “condition of unequal cells,” you would use all of the following word parts EXCEPT ________.

  1. A) –osis
  2. B) hem/o-
  3. C) cyt/o-
  4. D) anis/o

Answer: B

Explanation: A) You would use this word part because it means “condition.”

  1. B) Correct! You would not use hem/o-, which means “blood.”
  2. C) You would use this word part because it means “cell.”
  3. D) You would use this word part because it means “unequal.”

Page Ref: 286

Learning Outcome: 6.6

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Building and Dividing

6.2 Short Answer Questions

1) Alicia Jencks has infectious mononucleosis. Her physician palpated her abdomen to determine if she had enlargement of the spleen. The medical name for enlargement of the spleen is ________.

Answer: splenomegaly

Page Ref: 291

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

2) To draw a sample of venous blood from a patient, it is necessary to perform the medical procedure of a/an ________, which is also known as a venipuncture.

Answer: phlebotomy

Page Ref: 296

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Medical and Surgical Procedures

3) The clear, straw-colored liquid portion of the blood is called the ________.

Answer: plasma

Page Ref: 261

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

4) Every type of blood cell begins in the bone marrow as a very immature cell called a/an ________ cell.

Answer: stem

Page Ref: 262

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

5) Petechiae are small, pinpoint ________ of blood in the skin that are caused by too few thrombocytes.

Answer: hemorrhages

Page Ref: 290

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

6) The abbreviation CML stands for chronic myelogenous ________.

Answer: leukemia

Page Ref: 288

Learning Outcome: 6.5

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Abbreviations

7) Diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis and type 1 diabetes mellitus are classified as ________ disorders because the body makes antibodies against its own tissues.

Answer: autoimmune

Page Ref: 291

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

8) ________ is the medical specialty that studies the anatomy and physiology of the blood.

Answer: Hematology

Page Ref: 260

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

9) The process by which all of the formed elements in the blood are produced is known as ________.

Answer: hematopoiesis

Page Ref: 262

Learning Outcome: 6.2

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Physiology

10) A slightly immature erythrocyte that is just released into the blood is known as a/an ________.

Answer: reticulocyte

Page Ref: 264

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

11) The most common type of leukocyte is a ________.

Answer: neutrophil

Page Ref: 265

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

12) Strands of ________ are what trap erythrocytes and form a thrombus.

Answer: fibrin

Page Ref: 269

Learning Outcome: 6.4

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

13) This group of nine proteins in the plasma, called ________ proteins, activate each other and drill holes in a bacterium or virus.

Answer: complement

Page Ref: 273

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

14) ________ immunity is the type of immunity that is conveyed to the baby by antibodies in the mother’s colostrum (first breast milk).

Answer: Passive

Page Ref: 279

Learning Outcome: 6.2

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Physiology

15) When clotting factors in the plasma are activated to form a blood clot, the fluid portion of plasma that remains is then known as ________.

Answer: serum

Page Ref: 269

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

16) ________ is a red, iron-containing molecule in red blood cells.

Answer: Hemoglobin

Page Ref: 275

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

17) All of the different cells that engulf and destroy bacteria are known as ________.

Answer: phagocytes

Page Ref: 279

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

18) ________ are the least common type of leukocyte.

Answer: Basophils

Page Ref: 266

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

19) ________ are the largest type of leukocyte.

Answer: Monocytes

Page Ref: 267

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

20) ________ are molecules in the plasma that carry a positive or negative electrical charge.

Answer: Electrolytes

Page Ref: 275

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

21) A ________ is a type of white blood cell that is a granulocyte and has many segments or lobes in its nucleus.

Answer: neutrophil

Page Ref: 265

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

22) A ________ is a type of white blood cell that is an agranulocyte and has just a thin ring of cytoplasm and a round nucleus.

Answer: lymphocyte

Page Ref: 266

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

23) The ________ is the organ that serves as a storage area for reserve supplies of whole blood.

Answer: spleen

Page Ref: 279

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

24) Often called just “mono,” the full name is ________.

Answer: mononucleosis

Page Ref: 288

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

25) The laboratory test of red blood cell indices measures several different things, but the singular form of indices is ________.

Answer: index

Page Ref: 292

Learning Outcome: 6.4

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Plurals and Adjectives

26) The combining forms kary/o– and nucle/o– both mean “________ of a cell.”

Answer: nucleus

Page Ref: 266, 267

Learning Outcome: 6.5

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Parts

27) Vitamin B12 drugs are used to treat pernicious anemia and can be given by intramuscular injection or by ________ spray.

Answer: nasal

Page Ref: 285

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Pharmacology

28) The primary accented syllable in the word corticosteroid (kor-tih-koh-stair-oyd) is ________.

Answer: STAIR

Page Ref: 300

Learning Outcome: 6.7

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Spelling and Pronouncing

29) The primary accented syllable in the word eosinophil (ee-oh-sin-oh-phil) is ________.

Answer: SIN

Page Ref: 266

Learning Outcome: 6.7

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Spelling and Pronouncing

30) Another name for a thrombocyte is a ________.

Answer: platelet

Page Ref: 267

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

31) When a thrombus moves and travels through the blood, it is known as a/an ________.

Answer: embolusage

Page Ref: 289

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

32) Immunoglobulins are also known as ________.

Answer: antibodies

Page Ref: 279

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

33) Justin Austin, a pediatric patient, received an immunization against polio; this process is also known as ________.

Answer: vaccination

Page Ref: 296

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diagnostic Procedures

34) The medical language definition of the word ________ is “process of viewing living tissue.”

Answer: biopsy

Page Ref: 299

Learning Outcome: 6.6

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Building and Dividing

35) The medical language definition of the word ________ is “surgical removal (of the) spleen.”

Answer: splenectomy

Page Ref: 299

Learning Outcome: 6.6

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Building and Dividing

6.3 True/False Questions

1) Mature neutrophils are also known as bands or stabs.

Answer: FALSE

Explanation: Mature neutrophils are segmented neutrophils or segs. Bands or stabs are immature neutrophils.

Page Ref: 266

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

2) Abnormal lymphocytes known as Reed-Sternberg cells can be seen in the blood of patients with multiple myeloma.

Answer: FALSE

Explanation: These are in the lymph nodes of patients with Hodgkin’s disease.

Page Ref: 291

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

3) Slightly immature erythrocytes are called reticulocytes.

Answer: TRUE

Page Ref: 264

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

4) Raymond Smith had a myocardial infarction a few years ago. He now takes aspirin daily to dissolve any new blood clots that have formed.

Answer: FALSE

Explanation: Aspirin is only able to prevent platelets from aggregating; it cannot dissolve a blood clot.

Page Ref: 300

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Pharmacology

5) After a blood clot has formed, the process of cessation of bleeding is known as hemostasis.

Answer: TRUE

Page Ref: 269

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Physiology

6) Lymphedema of the arm or leg can occur after surgery when a nearby chain of lymph nodes is removed.

Answer: TRUE

Page Ref: 291

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

7) A unit of donated blood is tested with the MonoSpot test to detect the AIDS virus.

Answer: FALSE

Explanation: MonoSpot is a test to detect mononucleosis, not AIDS.

Page Ref: 294

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diagnostic Procedures

8) Immunology is the medical specialty that studies the anatomy and physiology of the blood.

Answer: FALSE

Explanation: Immunology is the medical specialty that studies the anatomy and physiology of the lymphatic system.

Page Ref: 260

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

9) Hematopoiesis occurs in the red bone marrow of the long or flat bones.

Answer: TRUE

Page Ref: 262

Learning Outcome: 6.2

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Physiology

10) When erythrocytes are mature, they do NOT have a nucleus.

Answer: TRUE

Page Ref: 264

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

11) Eosinophils release chemicals to destroy foreign cells (pollen, animal dander, dust) and kill parasites.

Answer: TRUE

Page Ref: 265

Learning Outcome: 6.2

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Physiology

12) An anticoagulant drug prevents the blood clots from forming.

Answer: TRUE

Page Ref: 300

Learning Outcome: 5.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Pharmacology

13) Thrombolytic enzyme drugs dissolve blood clots by inhibiting the production of vitamin K.

Answer: FALSE

Explanation: Thrombolytic enzyme drugs dissolve blood clots by breaking the fibrin strands.

Page Ref: 300

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Pharmacology

14) Immunosuppressant drugs are given to suppress the immune response.

Answer: TRUE

Page Ref: 300

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Pharmacology

15) Both protease inhibitor drugs and nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drugs are antiretroviral drugs used to treat HIV.

Answer: TRUE

Page Ref: 300

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Pharmacology

16) Lymphatic capillaries have large openings in their walls that allow microorganisms or cancerous cells to enter.

Answer: TRUE

Page Ref: 270

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

17) Lymph in the lymphatic system follows a continuous, circular path like that of blood in the circulatory system.

Answer: FALSE

Explanation: The lymphatic system has a beginning point as lymphatic capillaries and an end point as lymphatic ducts that empty into large veins in the neck.

Page Ref: 270

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

18) Lymphoid tissues include the tonsils and adenoids in the posterior oral cavity.

Answer: TRUE

Page Ref: 271

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

19) The combining form cyt/o– means “cell.”

Answer: TRUE

Page Ref: 266

Learning Outcome: 6.5

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Parts

20) Tumor necrosis factor destroys cancerous cells and endotoxins produced by certain bacteria.

Answer: TRUE

Page Ref: 273

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

21) The hematocrit laboratory test measures the total number of white blood cells in a blood sample.

Answer: FALSE

Explanation: The hematocrit measures the percentage of red blood cells in a blood sample.

Page Ref: 292

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diagnostic Procedures

22) An example of passive immunity is getting an immunization or a vaccination.

Answer: FALSE

Explanation: Immunizations and vaccinations produce active immunity by stimulating the body’s own immune system to identify a pathogen and make antibodies against it.

Page Ref: 279

Learning Outcome: 6.2

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Physiology

23) White blood cells are the most numerous formed elements in the plasma.

Answer: FALSE

Explanation: Red blood cells are the most numerous formed elements.

Page Ref: 262

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

24) Another name for a platelet is a thrombocyte.

Answer: TRUE

Page Ref: 267

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

25) Hemorrhage is the loss of a small amount of blood over time.

Answer: FALSE

Explanation: Hem/o- means “blood” and –rrhage means “excessive flow or discharge.”

Page Ref: 284

Learning Outcome: 6.6

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Building and Dividing

26) Leukemia is a cancer of the thrombocytes.

Answer: FALSE

Explanation: Leukemia is a cancer of the lymphocytes.

Page Ref: 288

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

27) A, B, AB, BA, and O are blood types.

Answer: FALSE

Explanation: BA is not a blood type.

Page Ref: 292

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

28) Pancytopenia is a condition of decreased numbers of platelets in the blood.

Answer: FALSE

Explanation: Pan- means “all.” All blood cells are decreased, not just platelets.

Page Ref: 284

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Comprehension

Question Type: Diseases

29) In iron-deficiency anemia, the erythrocytes are microcytic and hypochromic.

Answer: TRUE

Page Ref: 285

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Comprehension

Question Type: Diseases

30) Antibacterial drugs are used to treat patients with HIV.

Answer: FALSE

Explanation: Antiretroviral drugs are used because HIV is a retrovirus.

Page Ref: 287

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Pharmacology

31) The primary accented syllable in immunoglobulin (ih-myoo-noh-glaw-byoo-lin) is MYOO.

Answer: FALSE

Explanation: The primary accented syllable is GLAW.

Page Ref: 273

Learning Outcome: 6.7

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Spelling and Pronouncing

32) A band is an immature neutrophil that has a nucleus shaped like a curved band. It is also known as a stab.

Answer: TRUE

Page Ref: 275

Learning Outcome: 6.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

33) By dividing the word phlebotomy into its word parts, we can see that it means “a person who specializes in a vein cut.”

Answer: FALSE

Explanation: The suffix –tomy means “process of cutting” and -ist means “a person who specializes in.”

Page Ref: 296

Learning Outcome: 6.6

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Building and Dividing

6.4 Essay Questions

1) Why would periodic phlebotomy be used to treat a patient with polycythemia vera?

Answer: These patients have an increased number of erythrocytes. The viscosity of the blood and the blood volume is increased. Periodic phlebotomy to remove blood keeps the blood volume and number of erythrocytes at a normal level.

Page Ref: 286

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Analysis

Question Type: Medical and Surgical Procedures

2) Briefly describe how the blood forms a clot.

Answer: When the body is injured, the injured blood vessel constricts to decrease the amount of blood flow. Then thrombocytes stick to the damaged blood vessel wall and form clumps to block the blood flow; this is known as platelet aggregation. The platelets release clotting factors. Damage to the blood vessel activates other clotting factors in the plasma. The clotting factors make strands of fibrin that trap erythrocytes and form a thrombus or blood clot.

Page Ref: 269

Learning Outcome: 6.2

LOD: Analysis

Question Type: Physiology

3) Describe how a lymphangiography is performed.

Answer: Lymphangiography is a radiologic procedure in which a radiopaque contrast dye is injected into a lymphatic vessel. X-rays are taken as the dye travels through the lymphatic vessels and lymph nodes.

Page Ref: 295

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Analysis

Question Type: Diagnostic Procedures

4) What is a bone marrow aspiration test and why is it done?

Answer: This is done to remove red bone marrow from the hip bone to diagnose leukemia, lymphoma, and anemia. It examines the stages of blood cell development. This procedure is also done to harvest bone marrow from a healthy donor to give to a patient as a bone marrow transplant.

Page Ref: 296

Learning Outcome: 6.6

LOD: Comprehension

Question Type: Diagnostic Procedures

5) What is a vaccination and why is it done?

Answer: A vaccination is a procedure that injects a vaccine into the body. A vaccine is killed or attenuated bacteria or viral cells or cell fragments. The body produces antibodies and memory B lymphocytes specific to that pathogen. If the vaccinated patient encounters that pathogen again, the patient will have mild or no symptoms of the disease. Vaccinations are routinely used to prevent diseases that could be fatal or cause serious disability if contracted.

Page Ref: 296

Learning Outcome: 6.3

LOD: Comprehension

Question Type: Medical and Surgical Procedures

6) What is the difference between a blood donation and a blood transfusion?

Answer: A blood donation is a procedure in which a unit of whole blood is collected from a donor. The unit of whole blood can be given as a transfusion or divided into its component parts. A blood transfusion is a procedure in which whole blood, blood cells, or plasma is given by intravenous transfusion.

Page Ref: 297

Learning Outcome: 3.6

LOD: Comprehension

Question Type: Medical and Surgical Procedures

7) What is the difference in meaning between these two words: mono, monos?

Answer: Mono is a short form for mononucleosis, an infectious disease caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. Monos is a short form for monocytes.

Page Ref: 267, 288

Learning Outcome: 6.8

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Research Word

Medical Language, 4e (Turley)

Chapter 7 Dermatology — Integumentary System

7.1 Multiple-Choice Questions

1) The thick, crusty scar of necrotic tissue that forms on a third-degree burn is known as a ________.

  1. A) bulla
  2. B) keloid
  3. C) eschar
  4. D) comedo

Answer: C

Explanation: A) A bulla is not the result of a burn.

  1. B) A keloid is not the result of a burn.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) A comedo is related to acne, not a burn.

Page Ref: 330

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

2) Basal cell carcinoma arises from which type of tissue?

  1. A) adipose
  2. B) connective
  3. C) melanocytes
  4. D) epidermis

Answer: D

Explanation: A) Basal cell carcinoma does not come from adipose tissue.

  1. B) Basal cell carcinoma does not come from connective tissue.
  2. C) Basal cell carcinoma does not come from melanocytes.
  3. D) Correct! Basal cell carcinoma arises from the basal layer of the epidermis.

Page Ref: 337

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

3) Which one of the following is the medical word for male pattern baldness?

  1. A) alopecia
  2. B) vitiligo
  3. C) folliculitis
  4. D) hirsutism

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) This is not the medical word for male pattern baldness.
  2. C) This is not the medical word for male pattern baldness.
  3. D) This is not the medical word for male pattern baldness.

Page Ref: 340

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

4) Which is a type of electrosurgery that uses a wire loop electrode to cut out a lesion?

  1. A) incision and drainage
  2. B) electrosection
  3. C) fulguration
  4. D) cryosurgery

Answer: B

Explanation: A) This is not a type of electrosurgery.

  1. B) Correct! Electr/o– means “electricity” and sect/o– means “cut.”
  2. C) This is a type of electrosurgery, but it does not use a wire loop.
  3. D) This is not a type of electrosurgery.

Page Ref: 344

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Medical and Surgical Procedures

5) PUVA is used to treat ________.

  1. A) acne rosacea
  2. B) acne vulgaris
  3. C) psoriasis
  4. D) vitiligo

Answer: C

Explanation: A) PUVA is not used to treat acne rosacea.

  1. B) PUVA is not used to treat acne vulgaris.
  2. C) Correct! PUVA stands for “psoralen drug and ultraviolet A light therapy,” which is used to treat psoriasis.
  3. D) PUVA is not used to treat vitiligo.

Page Ref: 338

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Medical and Surgical Procedures

6) Which is the common name for a herpes simplex type 1 infection?

  1. A) scabies
  2. B) cold sores
  3. C) blisters
  4. D) shingles

Answer: B

Explanation: A) Scabies is an infection with mites, not herpes simplex.

  1. B) Correct!
  2. C) Blisters are not caused by herpes simplex.
  3. D) Shingles are caused by herpes varicella-zoster, not herpes simplex.

Page Ref: 332

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

7) An I&D might be done to treat ________.

  1. A) a laceration
  2. B) shingles
  3. C) psoriasis
  4. D) an abscess

Answer: D

Explanation: A) An I&D is not done to treat a laceration.

  1. B) An I&D is not used to treat shingles.
  2. C) An I&D is not used to treat psoriasis.
  3. D) Correct! An incision and drainage (I&D) cuts an abscess to drain out the fluid or pus.

Page Ref: 344

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Medical and Surgical Procedures

8) The superficial skin wound of a scratch is known by the medical name of a/an ________.

  1. A) excoriation
  2. B) contusion
  3. C) decubitus
  4. D) cellulitis

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) A contusion is a bruise.
  2. C) A decubitus is a bed sore.
  3. D) Cellulitis is an infection.

Page Ref: 331

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

9) Sweat glands are also known as ________ glands.

  1. A) sebaceous
  2. B) adipose
  3. C) follicle
  4. D) sudoriferous

Answer: D

Explanation: A) Sebaceous glands are oil, not sweat, glands.

  1. B) Adipose is a tissue, not a gland.
  2. C) There is no such thing as a follicle gland.
  3. D) Correct!

Page Ref: 318

Learning Outcome: 7.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

10) Verrucae or warts are caused by a ________.

  1. A) virus
  2. B) bacterium
  3. C) parasite
  4. D) fungus

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) Verrucae are not caused by bacteria.
  2. C) Verrucae are not caused by parasites.
  3. D) Verrucae are not caused by fungi.

Page Ref: 333

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

11) The medical word for jock itch is tinea ________.

  1. A) corporis
  2. B) pedis
  3. C) cruris
  4. D) capitus

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Tinea corporis is not known as jock itch.

  1. B) Tinea pedis is athlete’s foot, not jock itch.
  2. C) Correct! Tinea cruris, or jock itch, is a fungal infection in the skin of the groin.
  3. D) Tinea capitis is a fungal infection on the scalp.

Page Ref: 333

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

12) Excessive dryness of the skin is ________.

  1. A) eczema
  2. B) keratosis
  3. C) anhidrosis
  4. D) xeroderma

Answer: D

Explanation: A) Eczema is not excessive dryness of the skin.

  1. B) Keratosis is not excessive dryness of the skin.
  2. C) Anhidrosis is a condition of not sweating.
  3. D) Correct! Xer/o– means “dry.”

Page Ref: 328

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

13) A hemorrhage under the skin that is 3 cm in diameter or larger is a/an ________.

  1. A) diaphoresis
  2. B) ecchymosis
  3. C) exudate
  4. D) seborrhea

Answer: B

Explanation: A) Diaphoresis is sweating, not bleeding.

  1. B) Correct!
  2. C) An exudate is a fluid, not bleeding.
  3. D) Seborrhea does not involve bleeding.

Page Ref: 326

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

14) The physician ordered a Tzanck test to aid in making the diagnosis of ________.

  1. A) squamous cell carcinoma
  2. B) shingles
  3. C) pediculosis
  4. D) lupus erythematosus

Answer: B

Explanation: A) The Tzanck test does not diagnose squamous cell carcinoma.

  1. B) Correct! From fluid from the vesicle, the Tzanck test shows cells with the herpes virus in them.
  2. C) The Tzanck test does not detect pediculosis.
  3. D) The Tzanck test does not detect lupus erythematosus.

Page Ref: 342

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diagnostic Procedures

15) A keloid is an abnormally large scar due to an overproduction of ________.

  1. A) keratin
  2. B) elastin
  3. C) sebum
  4. D) collagen

Answer: D

Explanation: A) A keloid does not contain keratin.

  1. B) A keloid does not contain elastin (elastic fibers).
  2. C) A keloid does not contain sebum (oil).
  3. D) Correct!

Page Ref: 331

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

16) When Jeremy Smith was in the shower, the hot water ran out. The cold water caused the hairs on his skin to stand up. This body response to cold is known as ________.

  1. A) exfoliation
  2. B) piloerection
  3. C) perspiration
  4. D) anhidrosis

Answer: B

Explanation: A) This does not describe exfoliation.

  1. B) Correct! Pil/o– means “hair” and erect/o– means “stand up.”
  2. C) This does not describe perspiration.
  3. D) This does not describe anhidrosis.

Page Ref: 319—320

Learning Outcome: 7.2

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Physiology

17) If a patient has poor skin turgor and tenting of the skin, they have ________.

  1. A) a vitamin deficiency
  2. B) dehydration
  3. C) a lack of oxygen
  4. D) jaundice

Answer: B

Explanation: A) Poor skin turgor is not caused by a vitamin deficiency.

  1. B) Correct!
  2. C) Poor skin turgor is not caused by a lack of oxygen.
  3. D) Poor skin turgor is not related to jaundice.

Page Ref: 328

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

18) Wilheim Schnell required a ________ for removal of necrotic tissue from his wound.

  1. A) debridement
  2. B) dermabrasion
  3. C) Mohs’ surgery
  4. D) xenograft

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) Dermabrasion does not remove necrotic tissue.
  2. C) Mohs’ surgery is done for skin cancer.
  3. D) A xenograft is done for skin burns.

Page Ref: 343

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Medical and Surgical Procedures

19) Abnormal, white, depigmented patches of skin interspersed with normal skin are characteristic of which skin disease?

  1. A) albinism
  2. B) pustules
  3. C) pallor
  4. D) vitiligo

Answer: D

Explanation: A) Albinism is an overall abnormal depigmentation (not just patches).

  1. B) Pustules have a white top because of pus, not because of depigmentation.
  2. C) Pallor is an abnormal paleness because of lack of blood flow, not depigmentation.
  3. D) Correct!

Page Ref: 329

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

20) Pediculosis would be treated with a ________.

  1. A) drug for severe cystic acne
  2. B) drug to increase hair growth on the scalp
  3. C) drug to treat viral infections on the skin
  4. D) shampoo and skin lotion to kill lice

Answer: D

Explanation: A) Pediculosis is lice, not severe cystic acne.

  1. B) Pediculosis is lice, not alopecia.
  2. C) Pediculosis is lice, not a viral infection.
  3. D) Correct!

Page Ref: 333

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Pharmacology

21) Which medical specialty studies the anatomy and physiology of the integumentary system and uses diagnostic tests, medical and surgical procedures, and drugs to treat integumentary diseases?

  1. A) neurology
  2. B) dermatology
  3. C) psychology
  4. D) integumentary

Answer: B

Explanation: A) Neurology is related to the nerves, not the skin.

  1. B) Correct! Dermat/o– means “skin” and –logy means “study of.”
  2. C) Psychology is related to the mind, not the skin.
  3. D) Integumentary is a body system, not a medical specialty.

Page Ref: 315

Learning Outcome: 7.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

22) The integumentary system covers the entire surface of the body and consists of the skin, hair, and ________.

  1. A) nails
  2. B) eyes
  3. C) ears
  4. D) fingers

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) The integumentary system does not include the eyes.
  2. C) The integumentary system does not include the ears.
  3. D) The integumentary system only includes the skin and nails of the fingers.

Page Ref: 316

Learning Outcome: 7.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

23) The epidermis contains melanocytes, pigment cells that produce ________.

  1. A) keratin
  2. B) melanin
  3. C) collagen
  4. D) elastin

Answer: B

Explanation: A) Melanocytes do not produce keratin.

  1. B) Correct!
  2. C) Melanocytes do not produce collagen.
  3. D) Melanocytes do not produce elastin.

Page Ref: 317

Learning Outcome: 7.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

24) Which of the following is NOT in the dermis?

  1. A) sweat glands
  2. B) nerves
  3. C) arteries
  4. D) keratin

Answer: D

Explanation: A) Sweat glands are in the dermis.

  1. B) Nerves are in the dermis.
  2. C) Arteries are in the dermis.
  3. D) Correct! Keratin is in the epidermis, not the dermis.

Page Ref: 317

Learning Outcome: 7.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

25) The subcutaneous tissue is a loose, connective tissue located directly beneath the ________.

  1. A) epidermis
  2. B) cutaneous layer
  3. C) dermis
  4. D) adipose tissue

Answer: C

Explanation: A) The subcutaneous tissue is not beneath the epidermis.

  1. B) There is no such thing as a cutaneous layer.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) The subcutaneous tissue is composed of adipose tissue, not beneath it.

Page Ref: 319

Learning Outcome: 7.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

26) Sebaceous glands are related to oil as sudoriferous glands are related to ________.

  1. A) sweat
  2. B) follicles
  3. C) the lunula
  4. D) a carbuncle

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct! Sebaceous glands secrete oil, and sudoriferous glands secrete sweat.

  1. B) Follicles are related to the hair, not sudoriferous glands.
  2. C) The lunula is related to the nail, not sudoriferous glands.
  3. D) A carbuncle is a skin lesion.

Page Ref: 322

Learning Outcome: 7.1

LOD: Comprehension

Question Type: Anatomy

27) Which is the name for the general category of skin lesion that is pink to red, flat or raised, pruritic or nonpruritic?

  1. A) neoplasm
  2. B) rash
  3. C) wound
  4. D) xeroderma

Answer: B

Explanation: A) This does not describe a neoplasm.

  1. B) Correct!
  2. C) This does not describe a wound.
  3. D) This does not describe xeroderma.

Page Ref: 328

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

28) A genetic mutation that causes nonfunctioning melanocytes that do NOT produce any melanin is known as ________.

  1. A) albinism
  2. B) cyanosis
  3. C) jaundice
  4. D) necrosis

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) Cyanosis is not related to melanocytes or melanin.
  2. C) Jaundice is not related to melanocytes or melanin.
  3. D) Necrosis is not related to melanocytes or melanin.

Page Ref: 328

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

29) Which of the following words or phrases is NOT related to a burn?

  1. A) macule
  2. B) third degree
  3. C) eschar
  4. D) bullae

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) A third-degree burn involves the epidermis and entire dermis.
  2. C) Eschar is the scab that forms over a burn.
  3. D) Bullae are related to second-degree burns.

Page Ref: 330

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

30) A very firm, abnormally large scar that is bigger than the original injury is a ________.

  1. A) callus
  2. B) corn
  3. C) cicatrix
  4. D) keloid

Answer: D

Explanation: A) A callus is not related to a scar.

  1. B) A corn is not related to a scar.
  2. C) A cicatrix is the medical name for a scar of normal size.
  3. D) Correct! Keloid means “resembling a tumor” because of its abnormally large size.

Page Ref: 331

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

31) Which is the medical name for genital herpes?

  1. A) herpes whitlow
  2. B) herpes varicella-zoster
  3. C) herpes simplex virus type 2
  4. D) herpes simplex virus type 1

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Herpes whitlow infects the nails, not the genital area.

  1. B) Herpes varicella-zoster is related to shingles, not genital herpes.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) Herpes simplex virus type 1 affects the mouth, not the genital area.

Page Ref: 332

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

32) Tinea ________ occurs on the trunk of the body.

  1. A) tinea pedis
  2. B) tinea corporis
  3. C) tinea cruris
  4. D) tinea capitis

Answer: B

Explanation: A) Tinea pedis is on the feet.

  1. B) Correct!
  2. C) Tinea cruris is in the groin area.
  3. D) Tinea capitis is on the head.

Page Ref: 333

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

33) Which is a benign, pigmented, flat macule that develops after sun exposure?

  1. A) freckle
  2. B) hives
  3. C) eschar
  4. D) lipoma

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) Hives develop after an allergic reaction, not sun exposure.
  2. C) Eschar develops after a burn, not sun exposure.
  3. D) A lipoma is a tumor of fat.

Page Ref: 334

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

34) Which is a congenital abnormality in which there are extra fingers or toes?

  1. A) syndactyly
  2. B) polydactyly
  3. C) senile lentigo
  4. D) papilloma

Answer: B

Explanation: A) This is a condition of fused-together fingers or toes.

  1. B) Correct! Poly– means “many, much” and –dactyly means “condition of fingers or toes.”
  2. C) Senile lentigo is a skin pigmentation condition of old age, not a congenital abnormality.
  3. D) A papilloma is not a congenital abnormality.

Page Ref: 336

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Comprehension

Question Type: Diseases

35) Which is NOT one of the four characteristics of a malignant melanoma?

  1. A) Border or edge is irregular and ragged.
  2. B) Color varies from black to brown to red within the same lesion.
  3. C) It grows slowly on the skin and does not metastasize to other parts of the body.
  4. D) Each side of the lesion has a different shape (asymmetry).

Answer: C

Explanation: A) This is a characteristic of malignant melanoma.

  1. B) This is a characteristic of malignant melanoma.
  2. C) Correct! It grows quickly and does metastasize to other parts of the body.
  3. D) This is a characteristic of malignant melanoma.

Page Ref: 337

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

36) The abbreviation SLE stands for ________.

  1. A) systemic lupus erythematosus
  2. B) skin lesion enlargement
  3. C) severe lupus erythematosus
  4. D) senile lentigo eruption

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) This is not the meaning of SLE.
  2. C) This is not the meaning of SLE.
  3. D) This is not the meaning of SLE.

Page Ref: 338

Learning Outcome: 7.5

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Abbreviations

37) Which process uses an acid liquid to remove the epidermis?

  1. A) dermabrasion
  2. B) microdermabrasion
  3. C) chemical peel
  4. D) laser skin resurfacing

Answer: C

Explanation: A) This procedure does not use a liquid.

  1. B) This procedure does not use a liquid.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) This procedure uses a laser, not a liquid.

Page Ref: 345

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Medical and Surgical Procedures

38) Which surgical procedure uses a scalpel to remove an entire skin lesion?

  1. A) excisional biopsy
  2. B) incisional biopsy
  3. C) punch biopsy
  4. D) shave biopsy

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct! The combining form excis/o- means “cut out.”

  1. B) An incisional biopsy removes part, but not all, of a lesion.
  2. C) A punch biopsy removes only a core of a lesion.
  3. D) A shave biopsy removes only a superficial lesion.

Page Ref: 345

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Medical and Surgical Procedures

39) Topical ________ drugs are used to treat herpes simplex infections of the skin.

  1. A) antipruritic
  2. B) antiviral
  3. C) vitamin A-type
  4. D) antifungal

Answer: B

Explanation: A) Antipruritic drugs are for itching, not a viral infection.

  1. B) Correct! Herpex simplex is a viral infection.
  2. C) Vitamin A-type drugs are for psoriasis, not a viral infection.
  3. D) Antifungal drugs are not for a viral infection.

Page Ref: 348

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Pharmacology

40) The outermost layer of the skin is the ________.

  1. A) epidermis
  2. B) dermis
  3. C) collagen
  4. D) subcutaneous

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) The dermis is not the outermost layer of the skin.
  2. C) Collagen is not a layer of the skin.
  3. D) Subcutaneous tissue is not considered to be part of the skin.

Page Ref: 316

Learning Outcome: 7.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

41) The sebaceous glands are which type of gland?

  1. A) endocrine glands
  2. B) adipose glands
  3. C) exocrine glands
  4. D) keratin glands

Answer: C

Explanation: A) The sebaceous glands are not endocrine glands.

  1. B) There is no such thing as adipose glands.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) There is no such thing as keratin glands.

Page Ref: 318

Learning Outcome: 7.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

42) Which of the following predisposes an elderly patient to developing a decubitus ulcer?

  1. A) circulatory problems
  2. B) poor nutrition
  3. C) decreased fat in the subcutaneous tissue
  4. D) all of the above

Answer: D

Explanation: A) This is true, but it is not the only correct answer.

  1. B) This is true, but it is not the only correct answer.
  2. C) This is true, but it is not the only correct answer.
  3. D) Correct!

Page Ref: 331

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

43) Which of the following is a word used to describe any visible damage to the skin?

  1. A) lesion
  2. B) benign
  3. C) malignant
  4. D) dermatitis

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) Benign only describes something that is not cancerous.
  2. C) Malignant only describes something that is cancerous.
  3. D) Dermatitis only refers to inflammation or infection of the skin.

Page Ref: 327

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

44) Julius Alexander was recently in contact with poison ivy. He is now experiencing severe itching. Another word for itching is ________.

  1. A) rash
  2. B) pruritus
  3. C) xeroderma
  4. D) dermatitis

Answer: B

Explanation: A) A rash can be itchy or not itchy.

  1. B) Correct!
  2. C) Xeroderma means “dry skin,” which may or may not include itching.
  3. D) Dermatitis is inflammation or infection of the skin, which may or may not include itching.

Page Ref: 328

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

45) Allergy skin testing is accomplished by what test?

  1. A) intradermal injection
  2. B) cryosurgery
  3. C) culture and sensitivity
  4. D) skin scraping

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) This is a surgery, not a test.
  2. C) This test determines what bacterium is causing an infection.
  3. D) This is not an allergy test.

Page Ref: 342

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diagnostic Procedures

46) Which medical procedure uses a metal instrument that ends in a small circular ring with a sharp edge to scrape off the superficial part of a skin lesion?

  1. A) cryosurgery
  2. B) debridement
  3. C) biopsy
  4. D) curettage

Answer: D

Explanation: A) Cryosurgery does not use a curet.

  1. B) Debridement removes necrotic tissue, not a skin lesion.
  2. C) A biopsy is not done with a curet.
  3. D) Correct!

Page Ref: 343

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Medical and Surgical Procedures

47) The use of a rapidly spinning wire brush or diamond surface to mechanically scrape the epidermis is known as ________.

  1. A) microdermabrasion
  2. B) chemical peel
  3. C) laser skin resurfacing
  4. D) dermabrasion

Answer: D

Explanation: A) Microdermabrasion uses aluminum oxide crystals, not a wire brush.

  1. B) Chemical peel uses an acid liquid, not a wire brush.
  2. C) This uses a laser, not a wire brush.
  3. D) Correct!

Page Ref: 345

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Medical and Surgical Procedures

48) A procedure that uses a circular metal cutter to remove a plug-shaped core of skin is called a/an ________ biopsy.

  1. A) excisional
  2. B) incisional
  3. C) shave
  4. D) punch

Answer: D

Explanation: A) An excisional biopsy removes skin, but not as a plug-shaped core.

  1. B) An incisional biopsy removes some skin, but not as a plug-shaped core.
  2. C) A shave biopsy does not remove a plug-shaped core.
  3. D) Correct!

Page Ref: 346

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Medical and Surgical Procedures

49) An autoimmune disorder characterized by the production of excessive epidermal cells and silvery scales on the skin is known as ________.

  1. A) psoriasis
  2. B) a sarcoma
  3. C) lupus erythematosus
  4. D) malignant melanoma

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct! Psoriasis has silvery scales and plaques of excessive epidermal cells.

  1. B) This does not describe a sarcoma.
  2. C) This does not describe lupus erythematosus.
  3. D) This does not describe malignant melanoma.

Page Ref: 338

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

50) An autoimmune disorder that causes the skin and internal organs to become progressively hardened is called ________.

  1. A) xeroderma
  2. B) acne vulgaris
  3. C) scleroderma
  4. D) acne rosacea

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Xeroderma has dry skin, not hard skin.

  1. B) This does not describe acne vulgaris.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) This does not describe acne rosacea.

Page Ref: 338

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

51) In which disease are oily areas interspersed with patches of dry, scaly skin and dandruff?

  1. A) seborrheic dermatitis
  2. B) anhidrosis
  3. C) diaphoresis
  4. D) alopecia

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) This does not describe anhidrosis.
  2. C) This does not describe diaphoresis.
  3. D) This does not describe alopecia.

Page Ref: 340

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

52) Onychomycosis is a/an ________.

  1. A) fungal infection of fingernails or toenails
  2. B) bacterial infection of fingernails or toenails
  3. C) loss of the fingernails or toenails
  4. D) abnormal fusing together of the fingers and toes

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct! Onych/o– means “nail” and myc/o– means “fungus.”

  1. B) Onychomycosis is not a bacterial infection.
  2. C) There is no medical word that means loss of the fingernails or toenails.
  3. D) This is describing syndactyly, not onychomycosis.

Page Ref: 341

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Comprehension

Question Type: Diseases

53) Abnormally curved fingernails and stunted growth of the fingers associated with a chronic lack of oxygen in patients with cystic fibrosis is known as ________.

  1. A) urticaria
  2. B) curettage
  3. C) clubbing
  4. D) dermabrasion

Answer: C

Explanation: A) This does not describe urticaria.

  1. B) Curettage is a procedure, not a disease.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) Dermabrasion is a procedure, not a disease.

Page Ref: 341

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

54) The procedure that removes acne scars, wrinkles, or tattoos by means of chemical peel, dermabrasion, or laser treatments is called ________.

  1. A) skin resurfacing
  2. B) suturing
  3. C) biopsy
  4. D) skin graft

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) This does not describe suturing.
  2. C) This does not describe a biopsy.
  3. D) This does not describe a skin graft.

Page Ref: 345

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Medical and Surgical Procedures

55) A surgical procedure to remove all or part of a skin lesion for the purpose of diagnosis is called ________.

  1. A) biopsy
  2. B) dermatoplasty
  3. C) rhytidectomy
  4. D) skin grafting

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) Dermatoplasty is not done for diagnosis.
  2. C) Rhytidectomy is not done for diagnosis.
  3. D) Skin grafting is not done for diagnosis.

Page Ref: 345

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Medical and Surgical Procedures

56) What type of drug is used to treat ringworm?

  1. A) antiviral
  2. B) antibiotic
  3. C) antipruritic
  4. D) antifungal

Answer: D

Explanation: A) Antiviral drugs are not effective against ringworm, which is a fungal infection.

  1. B) Antibiotic drugs are not effective against ringworm, which is a fungal infection.
  2. C) Antipruritic drugs treat itching, but would not treat ringworm itself.
  3. D) Correct! Ringworm is a fungal infection of the skin.

Page Ref: 348

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Pharmacology

57) Which type of burn is NOT associated with blisters?

  1. A) first degree
  2. B) second degree
  3. C) third degree
  4. D) all burns cause blisters

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct! First-degree burns cause redness but not blisters.

  1. B) Second-degree burns are associated with blisters.
  2. C) Third-degree burns are associated with blisters.
  3. D) This statement is not true.

Page Ref: 330

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

58) Adipocere is formed ________.

  1. A) by lipocytes in the fat layer
  2. B) in a dead body
  3. C) by the ridges of a fingerprint
  4. D) in the adipose tissue

Answer: B

Explanation: A) Lipocytes do not make adipocere.

  1. B) Correct! Adipocere is formed when adipose tissue decomposes in a dead body buried in moist dirt.
  2. C) Adipocere is not related to a fingerprint.
  3. D) Adipocere is not in the adipose tissue.

Page Ref: 321

Learning Outcome: 7.1

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Anatomy

59) Any inflammation of the skin is known as ________.

  1. A) a lesion
  2. B) edema
  3. C) infection
  4. D) dermatitis

Answer: D

Explanation: A) A lesion does not always involve inflammation.

  1. B) Edema is swelling in the tissues, not inflammation.
  2. C) Inflammation does not always include an infection.
  3. D) Correct! Dermat/o– means “skin” and -itis means “inflammation of.”

Page Ref: 326

Learning Outcome: 7.6

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Building and Dividing

60) Which skin lesion is elevated and is semisolid or contains some fluid?

  1. A) pustule
  2. B) macule
  3. C) cyst
  4. D) fissure

Answer: C

Explanation: A) A pustule is elevated but contains pus, not fluid.

  1. B) A macule is not elevated.
  2. C) Correct! A cyst is an elevated mound that is semisolid or partly fluid filled.
  3. D) A fissure is not elevated.

Page Ref: 327

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

61) Scales would be seen in which skin disease?

  1. A) acne
  2. B) psoriasis
  3. C) tinea pedis
  4. D) shingles

Answer: B

Explanation: A) Scales are not characteristic of acne.

  1. B) Correct! Scales are flat, thin flakes seen in psoriasis and dandruff.
  2. C) Scales are not characteristic of tinea pedis.
  3. D) Scales are not characteristic of shingles.

Page Ref: 338

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

62) A sliding or scraping injury that mechanically removes the epidermis is known as a/an ________.

  1. A) abrasion
  2. B) callus
  3. C) hemorrhage
  4. D) abscess

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct! An abrasion is also known as a brush burn.

  1. B) This does not describe a callus.
  2. C) This does not describe a hemorrhage.
  3. D) This does not describe an abscess.

Page Ref: 330

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

63) Small or large blisters filled with tissue fluid that occur after a second-degree burn are called ________.

  1. A) wheals
  2. B) lacerations
  3. C) bullae
  4. D) ulcers

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Wheals are related to allergic reactions, not burns.

  1. B) Lacerations are not related to burns.
  2. C) Correct!
  3. D) Ulcers are not related to burns.

Page Ref: 330

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

64) The combining form kel/o- means ________.

  1. A) “tumor”
  2. B) “scrape off”
  3. C) “lice”
  4. D) “tearing”

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) Abras/o– means “scrape off.”
  2. C) Pedicul/o– means “lice.”
  3. D) Lacer/o– means “tearing.”

Page Ref: 331

Learning Outcome: 7.5

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Parts

65) Large abscesses with connecting channels under the skin form a/an ________.

  1. A) carbuncle
  2. B) ulcer
  3. C) laceration
  4. D) lipoma

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) This does not describe an ulcer.
  2. C) This does not describe a laceration.
  3. D) This does not describe a lipoma.

Page Ref: 332

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

66) Which herpes virus causes shingles?

  1. A) herpes simplex type 1
  2. B) herpes varicella-zoster
  3. C) herpes simplex type 2
  4. D) herpes whitlow

Answer: B

Explanation: A) This herpes causes cold sores and fever blisters.

  1. B) Correct! Herpes varicella-zoster causes chickenpox and shingles.
  2. C) This herpes causes genital herpes.
  3. D) This herpes only affects the skin around the nails.

Page Ref: 332

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

67) Spandex, latex gloves, soaps, and detergents all can produce ________.

  1. A) actinic keratoses
  2. B) contact dermatitis
  3. C) squamous cell carcinoma
  4. D) alopecia

Answer: B

Explanation: A) Actinic keratoses are not caused by these allergens.

  1. B) Correct! These allergens can produce contact dermatitis in sensitive people.
  2. C) Squamous cell carcinoma is not caused by these allergens.
  3. D) Alopecia is not caused by these allergens.

Page Ref: 334

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

68) A congenital growth composed of a mass of superficial, dilated blood vessels is known as a/an ________.

  1. A) hemorrhage
  2. B) hematoma
  3. C) hemangioma
  4. D) malignant melanoma

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Hemorrhage is not a growth.

  1. B) A hematoma is caused by trauma; it is not congenital.
  2. C) Correct! Hem/o– means “blood,” angi/o– means “blood vessel,” and –oma means “mass; tumor.”
  3. D) Malignant melanoma is not a congenital mass of blood vessels.

Page Ref: 335

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

69) Which of the following are examples of a nevus?

  1. A) keloid and lipoma
  2. B) cellulitis and an abscess
  3. C) tinea corpora and warts
  4. D) mole and birthmark

Answer: D

Explanation: A) A nevus is present at birth; these are not.

  1. B) A nevus is a benign skin lesion; these are infections.
  2. C) A nevus is a benign skin lesion; these are infections.
  3. D) Correct! A nevus is a mole or birthmark.

Page Ref: 335

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

70) AIDS patients often develop which skin malignancy?

  1. A) scleroderma
  2. B) Kaposi’s sarcoma
  3. C) basal cell carcinoma
  4. D) malignant melanoma

Answer: B

Explanation: A) Scleroderma is not malignant and is not associated with AIDS.

  1. B) Correct! Kaposi’s sarcoma is a rare cancer of the skin in patients with poor immune system function.
  2. C) Basal cell carcinoma is not associated with AIDS.
  3. D) Malignant melanoma is not associated with AIDS.

Page Ref: 337

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

71) A comedo is also known as a ________.

  1. A) whitehead
  2. B) wart
  3. C) blackhead
  4. D) freckle

Answer: C

Explanation: A) A pustule is a whitehead.

  1. B) A verruca is a wart.
  2. C) Correct! Sebum trapped in pores becomes black and forms a blackhead or comedo.
  3. D) A comedo is not a freckle.

Page Ref: 339

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

72) Severe acne rosacea can cause an erythematous, irregular enlargement of the nose that is known as ________.

  1. A) rhinophyma
  2. B) alopecia
  3. C) psoriasis
  4. D) lipoma

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct! Rhin/o– means “nose” and –phyma means “growth; tumor.”

  1. B) Alopecia affects the scalp, not the nose.
  2. C) Psoriasis and acne rosacea are two different diseases.
  3. D) A lipoma is not associated with acne rosacea.

Page Ref: 339

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Comprehension

Question Type: Diseases

73) Excessive sweating (due to a serious medical condition such as myocardial infarction) is known as ________.

  1. A) a lipoma
  2. B) diaphoresis
  3. C) psoriasis
  4. D) cellulitis

Answer: B

Explanation: A) A lipoma is not related to sweating.

  1. B) Correct!
  2. C) Psoriasis is not related to sweating.
  3. D) Cellulitis is not related to sweating.

Page Ref: 340

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

74) A lipoma is a tumor composed of ________.

  1. A) adipose tissue
  2. B) keratin
  3. C) blood vessels
  4. D) dermis

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct! Lip/o– means “fat; lipid” and –oma means “mass; tumor.”

  1. B) A lipoma is not composed of keratin.
  2. C) A lipoma is not composed of blood vessels.
  3. D) A lipoma is not composed of dermis.

Page Ref: 335

Learning Outcome: 7.6

LOD: Comprehension

Question Type: Word Building and Dividing

75) Male pattern baldness is a type of ________.

  1. A) acne rosacea
  2. B) dermatitis
  3. C) lesion
  4. D) alopecia

Answer: D

Explanation: A) Male pattern baldness is not a type of acne rosacea.

  1. B) Male pattern baldness is not a type of dermatitis.
  2. C) Male pattern baldness is not a type of lesion.
  3. D) Correct!

Page Ref: 340

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

76) Cryosurgery uses ________ to remove skin lesions.

  1. A) cold
  2. B) heat
  3. C) chemicals
  4. D) all of the above

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct! Cry/o- means “cold.”

  1. B) Cryosurgery does not use heat.
  2. C) Cryosurgery does not use chemicals.
  3. D) Cryosurgery uses only one of these to remove skin lesions.

Page Ref: 343

Learning Outcome: 7.6

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Building and Dividing

77) A skin laceration would be treated with ________.

  1. A) vitamin A-type drugs
  2. B) liposuction
  3. C) antiviral drugs
  4. D) suturing

Answer: D

Explanation: A) Vitamin A-type drugs are not used to treat a skin laceration.

  1. B) Liposuction is not used to treat a skin laceration.
  2. C) Antiviral drugs are not used to treat a skin laceration.
  3. D) Correct!

Page Ref: 345

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Medical and Surgical Procedures

78) A dermatome is ________.

  1. A) used to make a cut to form a skin graft
  2. B) a skin area that sends sensory information to a spinal nerve
  3. C) a surgical instrument
  4. D) all of the above

Answer: D

Explanation: A) This is true, but it is not the only correct answer.

  1. B) This is true, but it is not the only correct answer.
  2. C) This is true, but it is not the only correct answer.
  3. D) Correct! A dermatome is a surgical instrument used to make a skin graft, and it is a skin area that sends sensory information to a spinal nerve.

Page Ref: 321, 347

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Medical and Surgical Procedures

79) Which word is MISSPELLED?

  1. A) curettage
  2. B) eskar
  3. C) pruritus
  4. D) intradermal

Answer: B

Explanation: A) This word is spelled correctly.

  1. B) Correct! The correct spelling is eschar.
  2. C) This word is spelled correctly.
  3. D) This word is spelled correctly.

Page Ref: 330

Learning Outcome: 7.7

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Spelling and Pronouncing

80) Which word is MISSPELLED?

  1. A) rytidectomy
  2. B) vitiligo
  3. C) wheal
  4. D) cicatrix

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct! The correct spelling is rhytidectomy.

  1. B) This word is spelled correctly.
  2. C) This word is spelled correctly.
  3. D) This word is spelled correctly.

Page Ref: 346

Learning Outcome: 7.7

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Spelling and Pronouncing

81) Which two combining forms mean “nail”?

  1. A) ungu/o– and onych/o
  2. B) lip/o– and adip/o
  3. C) pil/o– and trich/o
  4. D) derm/o– and diaphor/o

Answer: A

Explanation: A) Correct!

  1. B) These combining forms mean “fat.”
  2. C) These combining forms mean “hair.”
  3. D) These combining forms mean “skin” and “sweat.”

Page Ref: 319

Learning Outcome: 7.6

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Parts

82) All of these combining forms mean “skin” EXCEPT ________.

  1. A) cutane/o-
  2. B) dermat/o-
  3. C) adip/o-
  4. D) integument/o-

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Cutane/o– does mean “skin.”

  1. B) Dermat/o– does mean “skin.”
  2. C) Correct! Adip/o– means “fat; lipid.”
  3. D) Integument/o– does mean “skin.”

Page Ref: 322

Learning Outcome: 7.5

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Parts

83) The epidermis is located ________ the dermis.

  1. A) below
  2. B) around
  3. C) within
  4. D) above

Answer: D

Explanation: A) The epidermis is not below the dermis.

  1. B) The epidermis is not around the dermis.
  2. C) The epidermis is not within the dermis.
  3. D) Correct! Epi- means “above; upon.”

Page Ref: 316

Learning Outcome: 7.6

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Word Building and Dividing

84) The normal, constant shedding of dead skin cells is known as ________.

  1. A) hypersensitivity
  2. B) exfoliation
  3. C) diaphoresis
  4. D) shingles

Answer: B

Explanation: A) This refers to an allergy, not a normal process.

  1. B) Correct! Exfoliation is similar to the falling of dead leaves (foliage) from trees.
  2. C) Diaphoresis is sweating, not shedding.
  3. D) Shingles is a viral disease, not shedding.

Page Ref: 316

Learning Outcome: 7.2

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Physiology

85) Alopecia is the opposite of ________.

  1. A) jaundice
  2. B) a cicatrix
  3. C) hirsutism
  4. D) anesthesia

Answer: C

Explanation: A) Jaundice is not the opposite of alopecia.

  1. B) A cicatrix is not the opposite of alopecia.
  2. C) Correct! Alopecia is baldness; hirsutism is excessive hairiness.
  3. D) Anesthesia is not the opposite of alopecia.

Page Ref: 341

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Comprehension

Question Type: Diseases

86) When oil in the skin pore becomes hardened and dark it is known as ________.

  1. A) a follicle
  2. B) a comedo
  3. C) sebum
  4. D) a lunula

Answer: B

Explanation: A) A follicle around a hair is not related to a pore with oil in it.

  1. B) Correct! A comedo is a blackhead.
  2. C) Oil is sebum.
  3. D) A lunula is the white half-moon at the base of the nail.

Page Ref: 339

Learning Outcome: 7.3

LOD: Knowledge

Question Type: Diseases

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