Name___________________________________
TRUE/FALSE. Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
1) If a patient does not pay his bill, and he is wearing a temporary crown, the dentist does not have to
give him his permanent crown.
1)
2) The terms “what should I do” and “what must I do” are synonymous. 2)
3) Once a dentist has earned her degree and passed the licensing exam in the state where she lives, the
license will be good for all 50 states in the U.S.
3)
4) The term “general supervision” allows the dental assistant to perform some tasks while the dentist
is not present in the room.
4)
5) Civil law is for non-criminal action suits that allow for compensation for pain and suffering. 5)
6) Express contracts are verbal or written words that are agreed upon in an established contract. 6)
7) Using an expired carpule of anesthetic could be called negligent. 7)
8) Defect, duty, direct cause, and damage are considered the “four Ds” of malpractice. 8)
9) If, while performing a root canal, the dentist breaks a file in the canal, leaves it there, and informs
the patient, the dentist has committed res ipsa loquitur.
9)
10) Informed consent gives the patient all the information relevant to the procedure to assist her in
making the correct choice of treatment.
10)
11) If a patient does not want to have x-rays taken at his recall appointment, he may sign an informed
consent that allows the dentist to continue to treat him without harm.
11)
12) A dentist may stop treating a patient at any time, without reservation. 12)
13) A patient’s health record information is protected by HIPAA laws. 13)
14) Per HIPAA law, keeping red stickers with notations such as ‘AIDS’ and ‘Hep A’ on the outside of a
patient’s chart is acceptable.
14)
15) Dental assistants should be aware of the laws regarding their duties for the state in which they
practice.
15)
1
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
16) What is the term for withdrawing from patient care without reasonable notice or a referral for
completion of dental treatment?
A) Criminal law B) Civil law
C) Abandonment D) Dental Practice Act
16)
17) What is the non-criminal legal action that deals with the relationships of individuals against a
dentist that can result in a composition lawsuit?
A) Civil law B) Criminal law
C) Abandonment D) Dental Practice Act
17)
18) What involves state or federal government intervention against individuals who perform non-legal
procedures or violations, resulting in disciplinary action?
A) Civil law B) Criminal law
C) Abandonment D) Dental Practice Act
18)
19) What is the term for the governing laws in the science of dentistry?
A) Dental care B) Dental Practice Act
C) Dental jurisprudence D) Abandonment
19)
20) What are legal restrictions set forth by each state legislative body describing the statutes regarding
performance guidelines of licensed and non-licensed members of practicing dental personnel
called?
A) Dental care B) Dental Practice Act
C) Dental jurisprudence D) Dentition
20)
21) What is the term for actions that any reasonable or prudent dental care professional would take
under similar circumstances?
A) Due care B) Dental Practice Act
C) Dental jurisprudence D) Criminal law
21)
22) What is the term for advanced tasks that require increased skill and training performed by dental
auxiliary when delegated by a dentist in accordance with their state dental practice act?
A) Implied contract B) Express contact
C) Expanded functions D) Criminal law
22)
23) What are verbal or written words that are agreed upon in an established contract called?
A) Implied contract B) Express contract
C) Expanded functions D) Dental Act
23)
24) What is a contract that is implemented by the patient’s actions, rather than verbally or in writing?
A) Dental contract B) Express contract
C) Implied contract D) Indicated contract
24)
25) What is the term for incorrect or negligent treatment by a professional?
A) Negligence B) Reciprocity
C) Malpractice D) Express contract
25)
2
26) What is the failure to use standard of care that a reasonable person would apply under similar
situations?
A) Negligence B) Malpractice
C) Reciprocity D) Express contract
26)
27) What allows an individual to obtain licensure, with the same rights, from one state to another
without having to retest?
A) Reciprocity B) Res geste
C) Res ipsa loquitur D) Respondeat superior
27)
28) Under what concept can statements made at a time of an alleged negligent act be admissible in a
court as evidence?
A) Res ipsa loquitur B) Res geste
C) Reciprocity D) Respondeat superior
28)
29) What is the term for “the act speaks for itself”?
A) Respondeat superior B) Res geste
C) Reciprocity D) Res ipsa loquitur
29)
30) What is the term for “the master answers”?
A) Res ipsa loquitur B) Res geste
C) Respondeat superior D) Reciprocity
30)
31) The act of an intention or unintentional wrong doing is called:
A) Tort law. B) Due care.
C) Dental Practice Act. D) Malpractice.
31)
32) Ethics deals with what four principles in dentistry?
A) Moral judgments, behaviors, wrong vs. right, and good vs. evil
B) Right vs. wrong, good vs. evil, beneficence, and justice
C) Good vs. evil, moral judgments, behaviors, and justice
D) Moral judgments, behaviors, autonomy, and beneficence
32)
33) Basic principles used in the health care profession by providers in helping to recognize, explain,
and rationalize moral and ethical choices include:
A) Non-malfeasance, veracity and justice.
B) Autonomy, veracity, and justice.
C) Veracity, beneficence, non-malfeasance, autonomy, and justice.
D) Non-malfeasance, justice, and autonomy.
33)
34) Which term means “self-governance”?
A) Autonomy B) Justice C) A and B D) Maleficence
34)
35) Which term means “do no harm”?
A) Justice B) Veracity
C) Non-malfeasance D) Autonomy
35)
36) Which term means “do good”?
A) Veracity B) Justice C) Beneficence D) Autonomy
36)
3
37) Which term means “fairness”?
A) Veracity B) Justice C) Autonomy D) Beneficence
37)
38) Which term means ‘truthfulness”?
A) Justice B) Veracity C) Autonomy D) Beneficence
38)
39) The dental team has the duty to refrain from:
A) Protecting the patient. B) Harming the patient.
C) Knowing the patient. D) All of the above.
39)
40) The State Board of Dentistry is an administrative board responsible:
A) For supervising, enforcing, and adhering to the Dental Practice Act.
B) Only for enforcing the Dental Practice Act.
C) Only for adhering the Dental Practice Act.
D) Only for supervising the Dental Practice Act.
40)
41) The board of dental examiners usually consists of:
A) Only dentists.
B) Public consumers and dentists.
C) Dental auxiliaries, public consumers, and dentists.
D) Only public consumers.
41)
42) Dental laws point out the minimum standard of behavior that a dental assistant must:
A) Memorize. B) Do. C) Be aware of. D) Not do.
42)
43) Dental ethics refers to the highest standard of care that a dental assistant should:
A) Expect from the dentist. B) Follow always.
C) Try to maintain. D) Follow if necessary.
43)
44) Dental jurisprudence is written by the:
A) State Dental Board. B) HIPAA.
C) American Medical Association. D) OSHA.
44)
45) Dental malpractice and negligence can occur due to a variety of circumstances, including:
A) Personal injury to an oral cavity, and wrongful death.
B) Wrongful death due to dental procedures, and personal injury.
C) Failure to properly detect an oral disease, wrongful death, and personal injury.
D) Failure to properly detect an oral disease.
45)
46) An example of malpractice is when the dentist:
A) Performs unnecessary procedures on a patient.
B) Does everything to make the patient comfortable.
C) Performs necessary procedures on a patient.
D) Processes accurate insurance claims.
46)
47) Malpractice occurs when four elements of malpractice are present. Elements include:
A) Direct cause; derelict B) Derelict; damage
C) Duty; damage; and direct cause D) Direct cause; damage
47)
4
48) An act of omission occurs when a reasonable person ________ do something that a similarly trained
individual would do under the same circumstances.
A) does not B) will not C) cannot D) must not
48)
49) A classic example of res ipsa loquitur would be when:
A) The dentist gives the patient a pain reliever.
B) A root canal file breaks, and is left inside the root.
C) The dentist performs a root canal with no damage.
D) A root canal file breaks, and is taken out of the mouth.
49)
50) It is generally accepted that complete informed consent includes a discussion of:
A) The nature of the diagnosis, reasonable options, and the cost of healing.
B) Reasonable options and the cost of healing.
C) The cost and healing time of proposed treatment, nature of diagnosis, and reasonable options.
D) Diagnosis and options.
50)
51) Written informed consent is mandatory in a variety of circumstances, including:
A) When a new drug is used.
B) When treatment requires more than three visits.
C) When treatment requires more than six months.
D) If the dentist uses a different material for treatment.
51)
52) When referring a patient, proper documentation placed in the patient’s file is important, and
should include:
A) Reason for referral and name of the specialist.
B) Name of the specialist being referred and description of the problem.
C) Description of the problem requiring referral, name of the specialist being referred, and the
reason for referral.
D) Description of the problem.
52)
53) A patient’s health information is protected through the:
A) CDC. B) HIPAA. C) OSHA. D) APA.
53)
54) PHI stands for:
A) Private Health Insurance. B) Protected Health Information.
C) Private Health Information. D) Protected Health Insurance.
54)
55) HIPAA was enacted in:
A) 1997. B) 1995. C) 1996. D) 1998.
55)
56) Federal HIPAA privacy requirements consist of what three categories?
A) Privacy standards, patients’ rights, and consent
B) Patients’ rights, privacy standards, and administrative knowledge
C) Administrative requirements, privacy standards, and consent
D) Patients’ rights, privacy standards, and administrative requirements
56)
57) As of what date does HIPAA require dental offices to provide a copy of the HIPAA privacy
standard to each patient on his first visit to the practice?
A) April 14, 2003 B) April 15, 2003 C) April 16, 2003 D) April 17, 2003
57)
5
58) Under HIPAA, the policy states that patients have rights over their own PHI. These rights include
the right to:
A) Amend PHI in their records.
B) Access and obtain digital photos of their PHI.
C) Access and obtain copies of their records.
D) Take the original PHI and leave a copy.
58)
59) The Health and Human Services Office of Civil Rights can levy fines up to:
A) $40,000 and 20 years’ imprisonment. B) $300,000 and 15 years’ imprisonment.
C) $250,000 and 10 years’ imprisonment. D) $500,000 and 5 years’ imprisonment.
59)
60) Dentists cannot terminate contracts with patients without:
A) 10 days’ notice. B) 30 days’ notice.
C) Reasonable notice. D) 5 days’ notice.
60)
61) If a dentist has treated a patient and then wants to terminate the patient, the termination must be
done in writing, and usually a ________-day notice is given to the patient.
A) 60 B) 45 C) 20 D) 30
61)
62) The patient record is a ________ document.
A) Written B) Legal C) Safe D) Typed
62)
63) Due to HIPAA, the patient has the right to ________ copies of her patient chart.
A) Hold B) Request C) Review D) Destroy
63)
64) Information in the patient record or file includes:
A) Exam records and radiographs.
B) Radiographs only.
C) Diagnostic and exam records only.
D) Exam records, radiographs, and diagnostic.
64)
65) If an error is entered in a manual record, the error should be corrected by:
A) Placing an X over the error and initialing.
B) Drawing a single line through the error and initialing.
C) Using Wite-Out on the error and initialing.
D) Scratching out the error and initialing.
65)
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
Match the following ethical principles in dentistry with the definitions.
A. Autonomy
B. Non-maleficence
C. Beneficence
D. Justice
E. Veracity
66) Involving patients in treatment decisions in a meaningful way, with due consideration
being given to the patient’s needs, desires, and abilities, and safeguarding the patient’s
privacy
66)
6
67) Respecting the position of trust inherent in the dentist-patient relationship,
communicating truthfully and without deception, and maintaining intellectual integrity
67)
68) Dealing with people justly, and delivering dental care without prejudice 68)
69) Keeping knowledge and skills current; knowing one’s own limitations, and when to refer
to a specialist or other professional; and knowing when and under what circumstances
delegation of patient care to auxiliaries is appropriate by the Dental Practice Act of one’s
specific state
69)
70) Service to the patient and the public at large 70)
Match the terms with their definitions.
A. Reciprocity
B. Respondeat superior
C. Civil law
D. Criminal law
E. Tort law
71) An act that has caused harm to another person, which might be intentional or
unintentional wrongdoing.
71)
72) Involves state or federal government intervention against individuals who perform illegal
procedures or violations, resulting in disciplinary action, fines and/or felony.
72)
73) The employer is responsible for all employee actions. 73)
74) Allows an individual to obtain licensure, with the same rights, from one state to another
without having to retest.
74)
75) Non-criminal legal action that can occur between a patient and a dentist when the patient
seeks compensation for pain, suffering, and loss of wages caused by a dental procedure
that is in question
75)
76) ________ is the governing laws that deal with ethical and legal principles for the dental
health care team.
76)
77) The ________ specifies legal restrictions by each state legislative body, describing
performance guidelines of licensed and non-licensed members of practicing dental
personnel.
77)
78) ________ are moral judgments and behaviors, which are standards of conduct learned
through one’s own personal values, education, and religion, and others’ behaviors.
78)
79) ________ consists of dentists, public consumers, and dental auxiliaries appointed by the
governor of the state to be responsible for implementation of rules and regulations of the
state Dental Practice Act.
79)
80) ________ is a system allowing individuals in one state to obtain a license in another state
without retesting.
80)
7
81) What type of supervision requires the dentist to remain in the office while procedures are
being performed, with work examined after completion? ________
81)
82) The Latin term for “let the master answer” is ________, meaning the dentist is responsible
for the actions of all employees.
82)
83) ________ is non-criminal law that occurs when legal charges are litigated between the
patient and the dentist.
83)
84) A contract that may be either written or verbal is called an ________. 84)
85) ________, known as professional negligence, consists of four components: duty, derelict,
direct cause, and damage.
85)
86) Managing the risk of lawsuits within the dental practice is referred to as ________. 86)
87) ________ is an explanation to the patient about his diagnosis, proposed treatment, and
reasonable outcome of all dental procedures.
87)
88) ________ provides protection and ensures the integrity and confidentiality of patient health
information.
88)
89) ________ is the failure or professional negligence of the dentist to provide a referral for
completion of dental treatment with reasonable notice.
89)
90) Reasonable or prudent care provided under similar circumstances is referred to as
________.
90)
91) What are the five ways that ethical principles are learned? 91)
92) Why is it important to have ethical principles in dealing with patient care? 92)
93) How does autonomy affect patient treatment? 93)
94) How does veracity affect dental practice advertising? 94)
95) What organization defines the written codes of ethics for the dental assistant? 95)
96) What is the difference between ethics and jurisprudence? 96)
97) What are the four elements of malpractice? 97)
98) Define informed consent. 98)
99) What information is included in the patient record or file? 99)
8
100) What information is NOT included in the patient record or file? 100)
9
76) Dental jurisprudence
77) Dental Practice Act
78) Ethics
79) The Board of Dental Examiners
80) Reciprocity
81) Direct supervision
82) Respondeat superior
83) Civil law
84) Expressed contract
85) Malpractice
86) Risk management
87) Informed consent
88) The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
89) Abandonment
90) Due care
91) Through 1) personal values, 2) education, 3) religion, 4) parents, and 5) others’ behaviors
92) Ethical principles help guide the dental team in actions and decisions made in patient care.
93) Emphasizes the duty of the dental team to treat the patient according to the patient’s desires, within the bounds of
accepted treatment, and to protect the patient’s confidentiality.
94) Any information that is not true will negatively impact the reputation of the practice.
95) The American Dental Assistants Association (ADAA)
96) Dental ethics refers to what the dental assistant should doa highest standard of behavior. Dental jurisprudence
points out what the dental assistant must dominimum standard of behavior.
97) Duty (relationship), derelict (negligence), direct cause (injury), and damage (loss)
11
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED3
98) The procedure of fully informing a patient about the choices the patient has regarding her dental care and addressing
any concerns the patient might have
99) Chart notes; exam records; radiographs; informed consent forms; medical histories; copies of diagnostic tests,
prescriptions, diagnoses, treatment plans and acceptance records; and copies of referrals and communications
pertaining to the patient’s care.
100) Financial records
12
Exam
Name___________________________________
TRUE/FALSE. Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
1) There are 22 facial bones. 1)
2) The alveolar process is the thickest and spongiest part of the maxillary bone, and contains sockets
for the teeth.
2)
3) The most posterior portion of the mandibular alveolar bone, behind the molars, is a rounded
projection of bone called a tuberosity.
3)
4) The smallest bones of the face are called the lacrimal bones. 4)
5) The mandible is the longest and strongest bone of the face. 5)
6) The word mandible is derived from the Latin word mandere, meaning “chin.” 6)
7) The TMJ is formed by the union of the condyle of the mandible with the glenoid fossa and the
articular eminence of the temporal bone.
7)
8) The maxilla is the moving joint of the TMJ. 8)
9) Bruxism is the term used for grinding of the teeth. 9)
10) Mastication is the process of chewing food and mixing it with saliva in preparation for swallowing
and digestion.
10)
11) The medial pterygoid is a thick, powerful muscle of mastication that closes the jaw during chewing. 11)
12) The orbicularis oris muscle is sometimes known as the kissing muscle because it closes the mouth
and puckers the lips when it contracts.
12)
13) The average amount of saliva secreted by a person daily is 1-1.5 liters, or 4-6 cups. 13)
14) Stensen’s duct is located in the inner surface of the cheek, opposite the second molar of the upper
jaw.
14)
15) A calcified stone in the ducts of salivary glands is called a sialolith. 15)
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
16) ________ is the study of the structure of organisms.
A) Physiology B) Philosophy C) Anatomy D) Microbiology
16)
17) ________ is the study of the function of organisms.
A) Physiology B) Philology C) Anatomy D) Microbiology
17)
1
18) The ________ is where the frontal region joins with the frontal bone.
A) Facial region B) Forehead C) Oral region D) Occipital
18)
19) The occipital region is located at the:
A) Front of the skull. B) Base of the skull.
C) Back of the skull. D) Side of the skull.
19)
20) The area around the mouth is called the ________.
A) Oral region B) Facial region
C) Occipital region D) Parietal region
20)
21) The ________ area encompasses the eyes.
A) Oral B) Facial C) Occipital D) Orbital
21)
22) The zygomatic region corresponds to the:
A) Cheekbone. B) Chin. C) Forehead. D) Facial.
22)
23) The ________ region includes the mylohyoid and hypoglossus muscles.
A) Occipital B) Buccal
C) Submandibular D) Zygomatic
23)
24) The bones of the skull consist of the cranium and the:
A) Bones of the foramen. B) Bones of the head.
C) Bones of the face. D) Bones of the mastoid.
24)
25) ________ bones make up the skull vs. facial region.
A) Twenty B) Twenty-one C) Twenty-two D) Twenty-three
25)
26) The ________ houses and protects the brain.
A) Pterygoid process B) Glenoid fossa
C) Maxillary D) Cranium
26)
27) The ________ bone forms the anterior potion of the skull.
A) Cranial B) Frontal C) Parietal D) Occipital
27)
28) The frontal is connected to both parietal bones by the:
A) Pterygoid. B) Glenoid fossa.
C) Coronal suture. D) Foramen magnum.
28)
29) There is/are ________ parietal bone(s).
A) Three B) Two C) Four D) One
29)
30) The opening for the outer ear is called the:
A) Styloid processes. B) External mastoid.
C) Articular eminence. D) External auditory meatus.
30)
31) The sphenoid bone is also called the ________ bone.
A) Butterfly B) Wing
C) Bat D) Wedge-shaped
31)
2
32) The ________ bone forms the anterior portion of the base of skull, and the floors and sides of the
eye orbits.
A) Ethmoid B) Sphenoid C) Temporal D) Occipital
32)
33) In Greek, pterygoid means:
A) Butterfly bone. B) Wedge-shaped bone.
C) Wing-shaped bone. D) Bat bone.
33)
34) The ________ is a light, spongy bone that is situated between two orbits of the eyes, and forms the
bony wall of the nasal septum.
A) Occipital bone B) Sphenoid bone C) Ethmoid bone D) Temporal bone
34)
35) The ________ bone is situated at the back and base of the cranium.
A) Sphenoid B) Occipital C) Ethmoid D) Temporal
35)
36) There are ________ stationary bones in the face.
A) Thirteen B) Ten C) Twelve D) Eleven
36)
37) ________ bones are small, oblong bones that form the bridge of the nose.
A) Facial B) Septum C) Nasal D) Nare
37)
38) The ________ bone is the second largest bone of the face.
A) Maxilla B) Nasal C) Facial D) Occipital
38)
39) The ________ process is the thickest and spongiest part of maxillary bone.
A) Cancellous B) Alveolar C) Membranous D) Periosteum
39)
40) Another term for spongy bone is:
A) Membranous. B) Alveolar. C) Cancellous. D) Maxillary.
40)
41) The ________ bone is the smallest and most fragile bone of the face.
A) Maxillary B) Lacrimal C) Zygomatic D) Alveolar
41)
42) The ________ is a paired bone that is located on each side of the human skull.
A) Maxillary B) Alveolar C) Zygomatic D) Lacrimal
42)
43) The term articulate means to:
A) Join together. B) Run together. C) Meet together. D) Move together.
43)
44) The outer wall of the nasal fossa has a thin layer of curled bone called the:
A) Inferior turbinate. B) Condyloid process.
C) Maxillary tuberosity. D) Glenoid fossa.
44)
45) The________ bone is situated at the back of the nasal fossa, and forms a part of the septum.
A) Mandible B) Vomer C) Zygomatic D) Lacrimal
45)
46) The ________ is the longest and strongest bone of the face.
A) Vomer bone B) Zygomatic bone
C) Mandible bone D) Lacrimal bone
46)
3
47) The mandible bone is a ________-shaped bone.
A) T B) U C) L D) V
47)
48) The ________ is the posterior section of the alveolar process.
A) Retromolar area B) Retroflexion area
C) Retrocecal area D) Retroclusion area
48)
49) The term TMJ stands for:
A) Temporomidline joint. B) Temporomandibular joint.
C) Temporomaxillary joint. D) Temporomovable joint.
49)
50) The word mandible is derived from the Latin word mandere, which means:
A) To sing. B) To eat. C) To swallow. D) To chew.
50)
51) The word mental is derived from the Latin word mentum, meaning:
A) Chin. B) Cheek. C) Chew. D) Chest.
51)
52) The hyoid bone is a ________-shaped bone.
A) U B) T C) L D) V
52)
53) ________ is another term for grinding of the teeth.
A) Masseter B) Crepitus C) Bruxism D) Sialolith
53)
54) When dealing with TMJ, the crackling or grinding sound of the teeth is also called:
A) Masseter. B) Crepitus. C) Bruxism. D) Sialolith.
54)
55) The end of a muscle that is attached to a fixed structure is called the:
A) Origin. B) Orimune. C) Orifice. D) Orinase.
55)
56) ________ is the process of chewing food and mixing it with saliva.
A) Mastialgia B) Mastiplexy C) Masticatory D) Mastication
56)
57) The ________ is a thick, powerful muscle of mastication.
A) Sialolith B) Masseter C) Crepitus D) Bruxism
57)
58) The main muscles of facial expressions are the frontalis, orbicularis oris, buccinators, and the:
A) Mentalis. B) Zygomatic. C) Pterygoid. D) Maxilla.
58)
59) The orbicularis oris muscle is sometimes known as the:
A) Smiling muscle. B) Swallowing muscle.
C) Frowning muscle. D) Kissing muscle.
59)
60) The largest and primary neck muscles are the sternocleidomastoid, platysma, and the:
A) Trapezius muscle. B) Serratus posterior muscle.
C) Teres major muscle. D) Spinalis muscle.
60)
61) The word parts gloss, glossa, and glossal mean:
A) Cheek. B) Tongue. C) Ear. D) Mouth.
61)
4
62) The average amount of saliva secreted by a person each day is:
A) 2.6 liters. B) 1.6 liters. C) 2.5 liters. D) 1.5 liters.
62)
63) The parotid gland produces about ________ of daytime saliva.
A) 50% B) 30% C) 40% D) 20%
63)
64) ________ control(s) all functions of the body.
A) Nerves B) The brain
C) Nodes D) The respiratory system
64)
65) ________ is a chemical reaction that gives off heat.
A) Dehydration B) Crystallization C) Syneresis D) Exothermic
65)
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
Match the following facial bones with their function.
A. Temporalis
B. Masseter
C. Medial pterygoid
D. Lateral pterygoid
66) Protrudes the jaw and opens the mouth. 66)
67) Closes the jaw and pulls the mandible forward and backward (retrude). 67)
68) Pulls the mandible upward and forward, and closes the mouth. 68)
69) Closes the jaw and retrudes the mandible. 69)
Match the following muscles of mastication or facial bones with their functions.
A. Frontalis
B. Orbicularis oris
C. Buccinator
D Zygomatic
E. Mentalis
F. Vomer
70) Compresses the cheeks and lips. 70)
71) Raises and lowers the eyebrows. 71)
72) Puckers the lips. 72)
73) Pulls the corner of the lips up, back, and outward. 73)
74) Pushes the lower lip up. 74)
75) On the nasal septum 75)
5
76) The eight bones of the ________ consist of the frontal, parietal, temporal, ethmoid,
sphenoid, and occipital.
76)
77) The upper jaw, or ________, is made up of the zygomatic, frontal, palatine, and alveolar
processes, which hold all the upper dentition.
77)
78) The longest and strongest bone of the face, which holds the teeth in the lower jaw, is the
________.
78)
79) The ________ allows the mandible to move in a hinge-and-glide motion, rotating the
condyle, permitting movement up and down, and forward and backward.
79)
80) The principal muscle of mastication that allows the mandible to open and close during
mastication is called the ________.
80)
81) The fluid that contains enzymes, proteins, and amino acids, aids in breaking down food
starches in the mouth, and remineralizes enamel is called ________.
81)
82) The parotid gland located below the ear is the largest salivary gland, and secretes saliva
through ________ duct.
82)
83) ________, or dry mouth, is a common disorder in which the salivary glands decrease saliva
production.
83)
84) The system in the body that aids in defending the body against bacteria and viruses is the
________.
84)
85) The ________ is the primary source of innervation of the tissues for the oral cavity. 85)
86) The ________ artery supplies the blood to the head and neck region. 86)
87) The two primary veins in the neck that ________ deoxygenated blood to the heart are the
external and internal jugular veins.
87)
88) The ________ is the part of the mandible and maxilla containing the tooth sockets made
from cancellous bone.
88)
89) The ________ muscle located in the zygomatic area contracts the cheeks and lips to keep
food in contact with teeth.
89)
90) The ________ is a rounded, bony prominence located posterior to the maxillary molars. 90)
91) Name the paired cranial bones. 91)
92) Which cranial bone is essential for jaw function? 92)
93) Name the facial bone(s) that move(s). 93)
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94) Name the bone in the head/neck region that is attached only by muscles. 94)
95) What hard tissue structures form the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)? 95)
96) Name the four muscles of mastication. 96)
97) Which lymph nodes are palpated as a part of an extraoral examination? 97)
98) Name the twelve cranial nerves. 98)
99) Which division of the trigeminal nerve supplies the muscles of mastication? 99)
100) What is the main artery supplying the head/neck region? 100)
Exam
Name___________________________________
TRUE/FALSE. Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
1) The anatomical crown is the portion of the tooth visible in the oral cavity. 1)
2) Osteoblasts are bone-deforming cells. 2)
3) The first stage in embryonic development is the zygote stage that begins with the union of the
sperm and ovum.
3)
4) The dentin, pulp, and cementum of the teeth arise from the endoderm layer. 4)
5) The hard and soft palates are evident as early as the fourth week of pregnancy. 5)
6) The “bud stage” of tooth development generally occurs during the eighth week of pregnancy. 6)
7) The enamel organ is formed during the “bud stage.” 7)
8) The dental papilla becomes the cementum of the tooth. 8)
9) The succedaneous teeth are the permanent teeth that replace the primary teeth in the oral cavity. 9)
10) The first of the permanent teeth to erupt into the oral cavity are the mandibular first molars. 10)
11) The apical foramen allows blood, lymph, and nerve supply to the tooth. 11)
12) The pulp of the tooth is hard and dense. 12)
13) Enamel, dentin, cementum, and pulp are the tissues comprising a tooth. 13)
14) Enamel is the hardest tissue of the body. 14)
15) Dentinal tubules are the pathways from enamel to the pulp of the tooth. 15)
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
16) The ________ is the tissue from the mesoderm layer that will form dentin and pulp.
A) Dental lamina B) Dental sac
C) Dental papilla D) Dentinal tubules
16)
17) ________ is the study of the composition and function of tissues.
A) Biology B) Chronology C) Microbiology D) Histology
17)
18) Composition of cementum is approximately ________% inorganic matter and ________% organic
matter.
A) 50; 50 B) 60; 40 C) 30; 70 D) 80; 20
18)
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19) Dentin is composed of ________% inorganic matter and ________% organic matter.
A) 60; 40 B) 50; 50 C) 70; 30 D) 80; 20
19)
20) ________ is/are a microscopic canal that runs through dentin.
A) Dental lamina B) Dentin sac
C) Dentinal tubules D) Dental papilla
20)
21) The highest peak in the alveolar process is the:
A) Alveolar crest. B) Alveolar bone.
C) Alveolar cleft. D) Alveolar socket.
21)
22) ________ contain(s) cementum-forming cells.
A) Cementoclasts B) Cementoblasts
C) Cementoblastoma D) Cementocyte
22)
23) Enamel is composed of ________% inorganic matter and ________% organic matter.
A) 3; 97 B) 60; 40 C) 96; 4 D) 5; 95
23)
24) Enamel is able to withstand crushing forces up to ________ pounds per square inch.
A) 300,000 B) 200,000 C) 500,000 D) 100,000
24)
25) ________ is/are enamel-forming cells.
A) Ameloblastic carcinoma B) Ameloblasts
C) Ameoblastoma D) Amelantoic
25)
26) Tissues that make up the bulk of the tooth, and are covered by cementum on the root and enamel
on the crown, are called:
A) Dentinal tubules. B) Dentin.
C) Dental sac. D) Dental papilla.
26)
27) The four types of tissues that make up a tooth are:
A) Cementum, pulp, apex, and enamel organ.
B) Enamel, dentin, apex, and enamel organ.
C) Enamel, dentin, cementum, and pulp.
D) Dentin, cementum, dental papilla, and dental sac.
27)
28) ________ produces permanent teeth that replace primary teeth.
A) Successional lamina B) Succus
C) Stomodeum D) Lamina dura
28)
29) A reparative dentin that forms in response to injury or irritation is known as:
A) Dentin eburnation. B) Dentate fracture.
C) Dental stone. D) Tertiary dentin.
29)
30) ________ is composed of blood and lymph vessels, nerve and connective tissues, and odontoblasts.
A) Pulp B) Dentin C) Enamel D) Dental stone
30)
31) Dental-forming cells are known as:
A) Osteoblasts. B) Odontoblasts. C) Osteoclasts. D) Cystoblasts.
31)
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32) Once eruption has taken place, the tooth continues to erupt until reaching the opposing tooth on
the opposite arch. This is known as ________ eruption.
A) Passive B) Non-active C) Non-passive D) Active
32)
33) The bell stage begins with a process known as ________.
A) Hypodifferentiation B) Hystodifferentiation
C) Cystodifferentiation D) Hyperdifferentiation
33)
34) The ________ is a picked tip at the end of a root.
A) Apex B) Dentin C) Dental sac D) Enamel
34)
35) The enamel and cementum of the tooth come together at a junction. This junction is called the:
A) Stomodeum junction. B) Nevus junction.
C) Cementoenamel junction. D) Anatomical junction.
35)
36) The first stage in embryonic development:
A) Fertilization B) Gestation C) Embryology D) Zygote
36)
37) The ________ is the capsule that contains the developing tooth, and forms the cementum,
periodontal ligament, and some alveolar bone.
A) Dental papilla B) Dentin
C) Dental sac D) Dentinal tubules
37)
38) ________ is another term for stomodeum.
A) Primitive sac B) Primitive mouth
C) Primitive groove D) Primitive fold
38)
39) During the eighth week of embryonic development, the outer portion of the bud becomes concave,
giving the bud a ________-shaped appearance.
A) Crystal B) Crown C) Cap D) Concave
39)
40) ________ is the study of how a human being develops before birth.
A) Embryology B) Embryoctony C) Embryogenesis D) Embryocidal
40)
41) ________ is another term for when permanent teeth succeed or replace primary teeth.
A) Stoma B) Stomodeum C) Succedaneous D) Stomata
41)
42) ________ are cells that are responsible for destroying cementum, bone, and dentin.
A) Osteoblasts B) Osteoclasts C) Odontoclasts D) Odontoblasts
42)
43) Dentin formed prior to tooth eruption is called:
A) Primary dentin. B) Secondary dentin.
C) Tertiary dentin. D) None of the above.
43)
44) The opening in the apex of each root is known as:
A) Apical periodontitis. B) Apical foramen.
C) Apical stomodeum. D) Apical bifurcation.
44)
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45) During the fourth week of prenatal development, two small concave areas appear on the lower
frontal prominence. These areas are called:
A) Nasal sinuses. B) Nasal airways. C) Nasal pits. D) Nasal cavities.
45)
46) When viewing the embryo from a frontal position, a large prominence is apparent. This area is
known as the ________ prominence.
A) Medial B) Proximal C) Distal D) Frontal
46)
47) ________ is the innermost embryonic layer.
A) Endoderm B) Ectoderm
C) Mesoderm D) None of the above
47)
48) The ________ is a thin, delicate tissue that covers the areas inside of the cheeks, the vestibule, the
soft palate, under the surface of the tongue, and the floor of the mouth.
A) Premaxilla mucosa B) Dental mucosa
C) Masticatory mucosa D) Lining mucosa
48)
49) The ________ is the portion of the crown that is visible in the oral cavity.
A) Dental crown B) Clinical crown C) Dentin crown D) Dentinal crown
49)
50) The average human gestation period lasts between ________ weeks after the last menstrual period.
A) 38 and 40 B) 35 and 40 C) 36 and 40 D) 39 and 40
50)
51) The sperm and the ovum each have brought to the union 23 chromosomes that will join together
for a total of 46 chromosomes. This merging of chromosomes is known as:
A) Meiogenic. B) Conception. C) Meiosis. D) Fertilization.
51)
52) The ________ is the outermost embryonic layer.
A) Ectoderm B) Mesoderm
C) Endoderm D) None of the above
52)
53) The third and final stage of development is known as the fetal phase. This phase begins at the
________week of gestation.
A) 7th B) 6th C) 9th D) 5th
53)
54) The ________ is the tissue that arises from the ectoderm layer and will form the enamel.
A) Enamel organ B) Enamel niche C) Enamel matrix D) Enamel stage
54)
55) The ________ is formed after the tooth erupts, and continues through the life of the tooth.
A) Primary dentin B) Reparative dentin
C) Secondary dentin D) Tertiary dentin
55)
56) The ________ is the tissue that surrounds and supports the teeth.
A) Endodontium B) Periodontium C) Mesodontium D) Periodontitis
56)
57) The first indications of tooth formation are evident during the ________ week of embryonic
development.
A) 6th B) 7th C) 5th D) 4th
57)
4
58) During the 8th week of embryonic development, the dental ________ continues to thicken.
A) Enamel B) Lining C) Lamina D) Mucosa
58)
59) As the enamel organ and dental papilla continue to develop, the ________ compresses and encases
the voided area, creating a capsule called the dental sac.
A) Alveolar B) Periodontal ligament
C) Mesoderm D) Mesenchyme
59)
60) ________ molars are the first of the permanent teeth to erupt into the oral cavity.
A) Frontal B) Mandibular C) Distal D) Maxillary
60)
61) The first permanent molars erupt ________ to the last primary molar in each quadrant.
A) Medial B) Lateral C) Proximal D) Distal
61)
62) The basic anatomic structure of each tooth consists of a crown and a/n ________.
A) Apex B) Root C) Pulp D) Socket
62)
63) A cellular cementum covers the upper ________of the root.
A) Two-thirds B) Third C) Three-quarters D) Half
63)
64) Pulp tissue is located in the ________ of the tooth.
A) Inside B) Outside C) Center D) Around
64)
65) The periodontal ligament contains fibers that are imbedded into the cementum. These fibers are
called ________.
A) Meiosis B) Sharpey’s C) Collagenous D) Shear
65)
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
Match the terms associated with oral embryology and histology with the definitions.
A. Embryology
B. Endoderm
C. Mesoderm
D. Ectoderm
E. Dental lamina
F. Ameloblasts
G. Odontoblasts
H. Cementoblasts
I. Succedaneous
J. Osteoclasts
66) The study of how a human being develops through three stages before birth 66)
67) Growth of the oral epithelium; is the predecessor that will form the teeth. 67)
68) The cells from the inner portion of the dental sac will become cells that specifically form
the cementum.
68)
69) The innermost primary embryonic layer 69)
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70) These cells were part of the dental papilla, and become cells that will specifically form the
dentin.
70)
71) The cells responsible for destroying cementum, bone, and dentin, therefore playing a vital
role in exfoliation of the primary teeth
71)
72) These were epithelial cells that became cells that specifically form the enamel. 72)
73) The middle primary embryonic layer 73)
74) The outer primary embryonic layer 74)
75) The permanent teeth that succeed or replace the primary teeth in the oral cavity 75)
76) ________ occurs with the union of the sperm and the ovum. 76)
77) The first stage in embryonic development that begins with the union of the sperm and
ovaries is the ________ stage.
77)
78) The endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm make up the three primary ________ layers. 78)
79) During the third week of the embryonic phase, the frontal prominence and the ________,
or primitive mouth, are apparent.
79)
80) The three stages of ________ are referred to as the bud, cap, and bell. 80)
81) ________ results from the formation of three specialized cells, becoming specific tooth
structures called ameloblasts, odontoblasts, and cementoblasts.
81)
82) ________ teeth are permanent teeth replacing primary teeth. 82)
83) ________ are the cells that remove or destroy the cementum, bone, and dentin during the
exfoliation of the primary teeth.
83)
84) The ________ junction is the line near the cervix of the tooth where the enamel and the
cementum come together.
84)
85) The ________ is the portion of the tooth covered with enamel. 85)
86) The opening at the apex of the tooth that allows blood, lymph, and nerve tissues to enter
the tooth is the ________.
86)
87) ________ is a bonelike connective tissue covering the dentin, and joins the enamel at the
cementoenamel junction (CEJ).
87)
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88) The ________ is considered the lifeline of the tooth, and is composed of blood and lymph
vessels.
88)
89) The ________ ligament supports, stabilizes, and nourishes the teeth. This ligament also
separates the root from the bone.
89)
90) The ________ covers the gingiva, hard palate, and the dorsum, or upper surface, of the
tongue.
90)
91) Name the primary embryonic layers. 91)
92) Why is the embryonic period a crucial time in the development of the embryo? 92)
93) What facial structures develop from the first pharyngeal arch? 93)
94) At what stage of prenatal development do the hard and soft palates begin? 94)
95) What are the morphological stages of tooth development? 95)
96) What teeth are designated as the non-succedaneous teeth? 96)
97) Which permanent teeth in the maxillary and mandibular arches should be present in a
10-year-old child?
97)
98) Which permanent teeth in the maxillary and mandibular arches should be present in an
8-year-old child?
98)
99) What are the four types of tissues that make up a tooth? 99)
100) What are the four components of the attachment unit of the tooth? 100)
