Test Bank For Foundations of Respiratory Care 2nd Edition by Wyka – Test Bank A+

$35.00
Test Bank For Foundations of Respiratory Care 2nd Edition by Wyka – Test Bank A+

Test Bank For Foundations of Respiratory Care 2nd Edition by Wyka – Test Bank A+

$35.00
Test Bank For Foundations of Respiratory Care 2nd Edition by Wyka – Test Bank A+

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. In the International System of Units (SI), deka- is a prefix that means which of the following?

a. 10-2 c. 103

b. 101 d. 106

____ 2. In SI, mass is expressed in which of the units?

a. grams c. liters

b. meters d. ohms

____ 3. Which of the following is an example of potential energy changing to kinetic energy?

a. blood flow c. systolic

b. inhalation (normal) d. exhalation (normal)

____ 4. The standard unit of force is which of the following?

a. newton c. pascal

b. joule d. ohm

____ 5. Normal exhalation is an example of which of the following laws?

a. Hooke’s c. Poiseuille’s

b. Charles’ d. Newton’s second

____ 6. Compliance is defined as which of the following?

a. pressure change per unit of flow change

b. pressure change per unit of volume change

c. flow change per unit of volume change

d. volume change per unit of pressure change

____ 7. All of the following can be classified as fluids except:

a. plasma c. liquids

b. solids d. gases

____ 8. Which of the following is the formula for flow?

a. volume ´ pressure c. mass ´ time

b. pressure¤density d. volume¤time

____ 9. Matter changes at which of the following?

critical volume

critical pressure

critical temperature

critical mass

a. 1, 3 c. 2, 3

b. 1, 3, 4 d. 3, 4

____ 10. Which of the following is the point at which liquid turns into gas?

a. vapor point c. dew point

b. freezing point d. melting point

____ 11. Electrical resistance is measured in which of the following?

a. watts c. volts

b. ohms d. amps

____ 12. Hertz refers to which of the following?

a. cycles per second c. resistance to current

b. flow of electrons in a circuit d. power generated

____ 13. Which of the following are common monitoring tools that depend on the ability to differentiate types of light waves?

capnometer

electrocardiograph

radiograph

pulse oximeter

a. 1, 2 c. 2, 3

b. 1, 4 d. 3, 4

____ 14. Which of the following is in the denominator of Poiseuille’s law?

a. flow c. viscosity

b. radius d. pressure

____ 15. The respiratory therapist is seeing a patient who is experiencing a serious asthma attack (in which the airways become narrowed through smooth muscle spasm and inflammation). According to Poiseuille’s law, what would be the most effective way to treat the patient?

a. increase the driving pressure c. decrease the viscosity of the inspired gas

b. dilate the airways d. decrease the density of the inspired gas

____ 16. According to the Reynolds number calculation, at what point does flow change from transitional to turbulent?

a. 1,000 c. 3,000

b. 2,000 d. 4,000

____ 17. In what part of the tracheobronchial tree is flow most turbulent?

a. trachea c. bronchioles

b. mainstem bronchi d. secondary lobules

____ 18. The pressure inside a closed empty box is 10 mm Hg. The volume of the box is 6 L. An object is placed in the box, and the pressure increases to 20 mm Hg. What is the new volume (of the gas molecules inside the box)?

a. 2 L c. 4,500 mL

b. 3,000 mL d. 4 L

____ 19. You throw an old aerosol can into a fire. After a few minutes, the can explodes. This is an application of which of the following?

a. combined gas law c. Poiseuille’s law

b. Boyle’s law d. Gay-Lussac’s law

____ 20. The molar concentration of an ideal gas is which of the following?

a. 10.6 L c. 22.4 L

b. 14.7 L d. 29.8 L

____ 21. According the Dalton’s law, if the barometric pressure is 760 mm Hg, what is the partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) if Na is 781 of the mixture and argon is 11?

a. 20.9 c. 120.1

b. 64.3 d. 159.6

____ 22. Henry’s law deals with which of the following?

a. solubility c. partial pressures

b. diffusibility d. concentrations

____ 23. According to Laplace’s law, at what point would an alveolus be most difficult to inflate?

a. fully inflated c. quarter inflated

b. half inflated d. completely collapsed

____ 24. The unit of measurement for radiation is which of the following?

a. KISS c. poise

b. curie d. pascal

____ 25. Generally, specific gravity is the ratio of the density of a substance to the density of which of the following?

a. oxygen c. water

b. hydrogen d. carbon dioxide

5

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. In the taxonomy of living things, which of the following is the name for the kingdom of bacteria?

a. Plantae c. Protista

b. Myceteae d. Prokaryotae

____ 2. Which of the following is NOT a basic shape for bacteria?

a. rectangular c. rod-shaped

b. spherical d. spiral-shaped

____ 3. The acid-fast stain is useful in identifying which of the following?

a. Streptococcus c. Legionella

b. Klebsiella d. Mycobacterium

____ 4. Which of the following sputum collection methods is best for obtaining anaerobic specimens and for cytology?

a. bronchoscopy c. nasotracheal suctioning

b. endotracheal suctioning d. coughing

____ 5. Which of the following are normally free of microorganisms?

skin

lungs

blood

liver

a. 1, 3 c. 2, 3, 4

b. 1, 3, 4 d. 3, 4

____ 6. Which of the following is an example of an opportunistic microorganism?

a. Candida c. Pseudomonas

b. Klebsiella d. Hemophilus

____ 7. Which of the following is a cellular secretion released in response to an infection?

a. prostaglandin c. interferon

b. antigen d. macrophage

____ 8. Which of the following are examples of phagocytes?

lymphocytes

macrophages

eosinophils

neutrophils

a. 1, 3 c. 2, 4

b. 1, 2, 3 d. 3, 4

____ 9. Antibodies are produced by which of the following?

a. basophils c. lymphocytes

b. macrophages d. neutrophils

____ 10. Placing a patient in a hyperbaric chamber is useful in killing Clostridium perfringens, the bacillus responsible for gas gangrene, because of which of the following?

a. high pressures c. sensitivity to light

b. increased oxygen d. isolation

____ 11. Which of the following is a common form of disinfection used by many respiratory therapy departments?

a. pasteurization c. ethylene oxide

b. autoclaving d. heat immersion

____ 12. Which of the following would be the best method for sterilizing a bronchoscope?

a. autoclave c. radiation

b. phenol d. gluteraldehyde

____ 13. Which of the following would be the best method for cleaning a mechanical ventilator after use?

a. expose to ethylene oxide c. cleanse with phenol solution

b. cleanse with bleach d. soak in gluteraldehyde

____ 14. Which of the following is the optimum temperature range for ethylene oxide?

a. 30oC–40oC c. 70oC–78oC

b. 50oC–56oC d. 80oC–86oC

____ 15. After sterilization with ethylene oxide, equipment should be:

a. aerated sufficiently c. unpackaged and inspected

b. stored for use d. resterilized

____ 16. Alkaline gluteraldehydes effectively kill everything but spores in what amount of time?

a. 5 minutes c. 15 minutes

b. 10 minutes d. 20 minutes

____ 17. Which of the following is recommended for disinfecting home equipment?

a. white vinegar c. phenol solution

b. isopropyl alcohol d. bleach

____ 18. While working the evening shift you receive a call from a patient asking how to disinfect her child’s nebulizer. You should recommend which of the following?

a. put in the microwave c. soak in ethyl alcohol

b. soak in white vinegar solution d. soak in bleach

____ 19. Which of the following precautions should be taken when processing equipment with gluteraldehyde?

mask

cross ventilation

gloves

eye covering

a. 1, 3

b. 1, 4

c. 2, 3

d. 3, 4

____ 20. Which of the following is a microorganism that has developed resistance to common antibiotics?

a. Streptococcus c. Candida

b. Klebsiella d. Staphylococcus

____ 21. Erythromycin works by which of the following methods?

a. inhibition of cell wall synthesis c. inhibition of metabolism

b. inhibition of protein synthesis d. disruption of cell membrane

____ 22. Which of the following is a drug used to kill mycobacterium?

a. penicillin c. isoniazid

b. erythromycin d. ribavirin

____ 23. You are seeing a patient with HIV who has been diagnosed with Pneumocystis pneumonia. Which of the following antimicrobials might you administer?

a. pentamidine c. ribavirin

b. tobramycin d. vancomycin

____ 24. Which of the following may be used to treat respiratory syncytial virus?

a. pentamidine c. ribavirin

b. penicillin d. rifampin

____ 25. Which of the individuals are most likely to develop an infectious disease such as pneumonia?

66-year-old with COPD

22-year-old athlete

84-year-old nursing home resident

2-month-old who was born premature

a. 1, 2 c. 2, 3

b. 1, 3, 4 d. 2, 3, 4

____ 26. You are seeing a patient who has developed pneumonia while in the ICU. Which of the following is the most likely mode of transmission?

a. contamination of food c. direct mucous membrane contact

b. multiple injections d. person-to-person contact

____ 27. Which of the following is the most important infection control process in health care?

a. sterilizing equipment c. handwashing

b. wearing personal protective equipment d. prophylactic antibiotics

____ 28. You are preparing to perform endotracheal suctioning on a patient. Just prior to inserting the catheter, it brushes up against your clothing. Which of the following is the best way to proceed?

a. replace the catheter with a new one

b. cleanse the catheter with isopropyl alcohol

c. insert the catheter and suction

d. abort the procedure

____ 29. HIV/AIDS is an example of which of the following?

a. endemic c. epidemic

b. prodemic d. pandemic

7

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. The time required for drug absorption, action, and distribution in the body is the:

a. pharmacological phase c. pharmacokinetic phase

b. pharmaceutical phase d. cumulative effect

____ 2. Which of the following does NOT play a factor in the distribution of a drug delivered by aerosol?

a. functional residual capacity c. respiratory rate

b. tidal volume d. particle size

____ 3. Increased enzymatic activity in the body over a period of time is known as which of the following?

a. tachyphylaxis c. synergy

b. tolerance d. cumulative effect

____ 4. Two drugs producing an effect that one could not achieve alone is known as which of the following?

a. synergy c. tachyphylaxis

b. cumulative effect d. additive effect

____ 5. In drug terminology 1,000 mg is equal to which of the following?

a. 10 g c. 100 g

b. 1 g d. 1,000 g

____ 6. If a solution has 1% strength, it is equal to which of the following?

1 g dissolved in 100 mL of water

10 g dissolved in 1,000 mL of water

1,000 mg in 100 mL of water

a. 1, 2

b. 1, 3

c. 2, 3

d. all of the above

____ 7. Adrenergic type bronchodilators do which of the following?

a. constrict smooth muscle in the bronchi c. relax smooth muscle in the bronchi

b. inhibit phosphodiesterase d. inhibit norepinephrine

____ 8. A patient with croup would benefit from which of the following?

a. beta-1 agent c. alpha agent

b. beta-2 agent d. mixed beta-1 and beta-2

____ 9. Which of the following is a common long-acting beta agonist drug?

a. Foradil c. Bronkosol

b. Atrovent d. albuterol

____ 10. Caffeine contains which of the following?

a. anticholinergic agents c. beta-1 agonists

b. xanthines d. epinephrine

____ 11. Which of the following anticholinergics is NOT delivered by aerosol?

a. Atrovent c. glycopyrrolate

b. Spiriva d. atropine

____ 12. Which of the following statements concerning bronchospasm is false?

a. will cause wheezing

b. is best treated by drugs with alpha properties

c. can be treated by anticholinergic agents

d. can be treated by adrenergic agents

____ 13. Which of the following should be the primary treatment for a patient who requires a fast-acting bronchodilator?

a. anticholinergics

b. xanthines

c. alpha agents

d. adrenergics

____ 14. Which of the following may be a side effect of bronchodilators?

somnolence

lethargy

tremors

headaches

a. 1, 3

b. 1, 2

c. 3, 4

d. all of the above

____ 15. In what situation could a continuous aerosol be indicated?

a. patient in status asthmaticus

b. patient in congestive heart failure

c. patient with tuberculosis

d. patient with symptoms indicative of pneumonia

____ 16. Which of the following statements concerning albuterol (Proventil or Ventolin) is false?

a. It is a short-acting beta-agonist. c. It is indicated in an acute asthma attack.

b. It is designed for long-term maintenance. d. It has a rapid onset.

____ 17. Aspergillosis is a side effect associated with:

a. beta-2 agonists c. xanthines

b. inhaled corticosteroids d. anticholinergic agents

____ 18. Which of the following may be used to help loosen pulmonary secretions?

a. Mucomyst

b. hypertonic saline

c. distilled water

d. all of the above

____ 19. Which patient group could benefit from aerosolized antimicrobials?

a. patients with cystic fibrosis c. patients with exercise-induced asthma

b. patients with an acute asthma attack d. patients in congestive heart failure

____ 20. Ethyl alcohol may be given to patients with which of the following?

a. asthma c. acute pulmonary edema

b. AIDS d. bronchiectasis

____ 21. When giving an aerosol treatment, what should the practitioner observe?

patient’s ventilatory pattern

general appearance

Glasgow Coma Scale

posture

a. 1, 3

b. 1, 2, 3

c. 1, 2, 4

d. all of the above

____ 22. Inotropic agents, nitrates, and vasopressors are all drugs that:

a. decrease cardiac output c. improve blood pressure

b. increase renal function d. increase red blood cell production

____ 23. When two drugs have the opposite effect, they are said to be which of the following?

a. synergistic c. additive

b. antagonistic d. cumulative

____ 24. Administering three aerosol treatments 20 minutes apart is indicated for which patient?

a. a patient with congestive heart failure

b. a patient in moderate respiratory distress

c. a patient who has AIDS

d. a patient whose peak flow is less than 50% predicted

____ 25. A short-acting beta-agonist will generally have how many hours of action?

a. 1–2 hours c. 4–6 hours

b. 12 hours d. 8–10 hours

9

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Which of the following is NOT a radiographic finding consistent with emphysema?

a. long, narrow heart c. wide intercostal spaces

b. low, flat hemidiaphragm d. butterfly pattern

____ 2. Which of the following arterial blood gas (ABG) values would be consistent with respiratory failure?

a. pH 7.29 c. PaO2 88

b. PCO2 65 d. PCO2 47

____ 3. What is a common bacterial organism cultured from the sputum of patients with bronchiectasis?

a. Staphylococcus aureus c. Mycoplasma pneumonia

b. Hemophilus influenzae d. Klebsiella

____ 4. Which of the following factors could cause an asthma attack?

a. dust mites c. beta blockers

b. exercise d. all of the above

____ 5. A reduced diffusion capacity is consistent with which of the following?

a. bronchiectasis c. emphysema

b. chronic bronchitis d. asthma

____ 6. Which of the following is associated with a stage 3 asthma attack?

a. normal arterial blood gas (ABG) levels c. ability to talk in complete sentences.

b. respiratory alkalosis d. prominent accessory muscle use

____ 7. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is characterized by which of the following?

a. emphysema c. chronic bronchitis

b. asthma d. all of the above

____ 8. What is cor pulmonale?

a. right heart failure secondary to lung disease

b. inflammation of the airways

c. chronic cough

d. destruction of alveoli

____ 9. What is ipratropium bromide classified as?

a. corticosteroid c. anticholinergic bronchodilator

b. long-acting beta-2 agonist d. long-acting beta-1 agonist

____ 10. Chronic gastric aspiration, foreign body aspiration, and end bronchial tumors are known causes of:

a. asthma c. chronic bronchitis

b. emphysema d. bronchiectasis

____ 11. When an asthma patient is being considered for discharge to home, what should the peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) be?

a. > 30% of predicted c. > 70% of predicted

b. 50% of predicted d. 90% of predicted

____ 12. What is the primary risk factor for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

a. dust mites c. cold air

b. bird feathers d. cigarette smoke

____ 13. What is the minimal improvement necessary in a patient’s forced vital capacity (FVC) required for maintenance bronchodilator therapy?

a. 40% c. 35%

b. 12% d. 10%

____ 14. Which of the following statements concerning alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is false?

a. It is a genetic disease.

b. Cirrhosis may also develop secondary to the disease.

c. Lung transplant is the only cure after damage has occurred.

d. People who are born with the disease and smoke develop emphysema in their 50s and 60s.

____ 15. What is the primary mediator in the acute phase response of asthma attacks?

a. histamine c. elastin

b. collagen d. white blood cells

____ 16. Which of the following is effective in reducing exposure in patients with asthma?

a. Use filters over air outlets.

b. Wash bedding once every 6 months in cold water.

c. Use a humidifier.

d. all of the above

True/False

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

____ 17. Corticosteroids are recommended for quick relief of acute asthma symptoms.

____ 18. Chronic bronchitis is the primary cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

____ 19. Asthma is the most common chronic childhood disease.

____ 20. Patients with emphysema generally have great improvement in expiratory flows after bronchodilator therapy.

____ 21. Chronic bronchitis is a productive cough lasting 3 or more consecutive months for 2 successive years.

____ 22. Ipratropium bromide can be used as a primary bronchodilator for people who do not respond to beta-2 agonists.

____ 23. Routine use of antimicrobials is effective for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) patients.

____ 24. Beta-2 agonists are indicated to control chronic airway inflammation.

____ 25. Patients can display combined symptoms associated with asthma, emphysema, and chronic bronchitis.

11

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. What type of atelectasis occurs because of increased surface tension secondary to surfactant loss?

a. cohesive c. obstructive

b. adhesive d. none of the above

____ 2. Which of the following is NOT a clinical finding associated with atelectasis?

a. tachypnea c. expiratory wheezing

b. dullness to percussion d. tracheal deviation

____ 3. A chest x-ray with free pleural air occupying at least 20% of the thoracic volume best describes:

a. pneumothorax c. hemothorax

b. empyema d. pleural effusion

____ 4. What type of pneumothorax is seen among male smokers between 20 and 40 years of age?

a. primary spontaneous c. traumatic

b. iatrogenic d. secondary spontaneous

____ 5. What is the most common cause of pleural effusion?

a. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) c. congestive heart failure

b. sarcoidosis d. foreign body in lung

____ 6. Chest tube drainage or decortication are treatment options for which of the following?

a. lung cancer c. empyema

b. primary spontaneous pneumothorax d. atelectasis

____ 7. Which of the following is associated with postoperative atelectasis?

a. increased secretions c. inability to take deep breaths

b. pain d. all of the above

____ 8. What percentage of people with lung cancer do NOT have symptoms at the time of diagnosis?

a. 15% c. 25%

b. 50% d. 40%

____ 9. Which of the following is NOT an underlying mechanism of pleural fluid formation?

a. decreased hydrostatic pressure c. impaired lymphatic drainage

b. increased capillary permeability d. decreased plasma oncotic pressure

____ 10. What percentage of people who smoke develop lung cancer?

a. 20% c. 35%

b. 15% d. 60%

____ 11. Pus in the pleural space is associated with:

a. pneumothorax c. atelectasis

b. lung cancer d. empyema

____ 12. The most common type of cancer found in nonsmokers is:

a. adenocarcinoma c. large cell

b. squamous cell d. small cell

____ 13. Treatment of small-cell lung cancer includes:

a. decortication c. thoracentesis

b. radiation d. bronchoscopy

____ 14. Patients receiving positive pressure ventilation can possibly develop:

a. catamenial pneumothorax c. tension pneumothorax

b. spontaneous pneumothorax d. iatrogenic pneumothorax

____ 15. The highest lung cancer mortality is found in:

a. African Americans c. Hispanics

b. Pacific Islanders d. Asian Americans

____ 16. Which of the following are tools that can be used to help diagnose lung cancer?

a. bronchoscopy

b. laboratory studies

c. mediastinoscopy

d. all of the above

____ 17. Which of the following can be a possible cause of obstructive atelectasis?

a. chest trauma c. endometriosis

b. mucous plug d. pleural effusion

____ 18. Which of the following is NOT a clinical symptom associated with pneumothorax?

a. cyanosis c. Cheyne-Stokes respirations

b. dyspnea d. subcutaneous emphysema

____ 19. Which of the following is the best treatment option for a tension pneumothorax?

a. decortication c. bronchoscopy

b. decompression with a 50 mL syringe d. brachytherapy

____ 20. Which of the following are treatment options for atelectasis?

a. hyperinflation therapy

b. bronchoscopy

c. thoracentesis

d. A and B only

____ 21. Which occupational group has the highest risk of contracting lung cancer?

a. health care workers c. truck drivers

b. stone masons d. asbestos workers

True/False

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

____ 22. Surgery provides the best 5-year survival rates in the treatment of non-small-cell lung cancer.

____ 23. Increased radio-opacity of the affected lung, air bronchograms, and a fissure line are x-ray findings associated with pleural effusions.

____ 24. Egophony can be heard in patients with a pleural effusion.

____ 25. A transudate has a high protein concentration.

13

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. When introducing him- or herself to the patient, the health care provider should include which of the following?

a. name

b. department

c. marital status

d. A and B only

____ 2. Past medical history includes:

a. immunizations

b. past surgeries

c. childhood illnesses

d. all of the above

____ 3. A patient’s level of consciousness is determined by:

a. Babinski’s reflex c. Glasgow Coma Scale

b. Apgar test d. egophony

____ 4. An abnormal heart sound with S3, S4, or both is:

a. gallop rhythm c. adventitious

b. lubb-dupp d. egophony

____ 5. Vibrations transmitted through the skin are known as:

a. murmur c. palpation

b. fremitus d. inspection

____ 6. A heart rate above the normal range is called:

a. tachypnea c. bradycardia

b. bradypnea d. tachycardia

____ 7. Clubbing can be found in patients with:

a. multiple sclerosis c. emphysema

b. scleroderma d. diabetes

____ 8. A lack of adequate peripheral circulation can be determined by:

a. adventitious breath sounds c. negative Allen test

b. capillary refill greater than 3 seconds d. none of the above

____ 9. A barrel-chested person has:

a. larger lateral than A-P diameter c. larger A-P diameter than lateral

b. equal lateral and A-P diameter d. sternal protrusion on chest

____ 10. Normal diaphragmatic movement is:

a. 5–7 cm c. 5–7 in.

b. 1–4 cm d. 3–10 cm

____ 11. A murmur can be caused by:

a. backflow of blood through a closed valve

b. blood flow through a valve that has stenosis

c. slow blood flow across a normal valve

d. all of the above

____ 12. Increased vocal fremitus is associated with:

a. pleural effusion c. pneumonia

b. pneumothorax d. emphysema

____ 13. Second heart sound, or S2, is heard when the:

a. aortic valve closes c. aortic valve opens

b. mitral valve closes d. mitral valve opens

True/False

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

____ 14. Personal space is generally between 4 and 12 feet from the patient.

____ 15. The actual physical examination takes place in the intimate space.

____ 16. During the interview, the patient’s privacy should be maintained at all times.

____ 17. How a question is framed can influence the success of the interview.

____ 18. Active listening requires a person’s full undivided attention.

____ 19. The chief complaint should be paraphrased by the health care provider for better clarity.

____ 20. Cigarette smoking is documented as packs per day.

____ 21. When performing percussion on a patient, air is generally quieter than tissue.

____ 22. Blue lips and mucous membranes are associated with central cyanosis.

____ 23. The presence of jugular venous distention is associated with renal failure.

____ 24. Wheezing and crackles are examples of adventitious breath sounds.

____ 25. Source-oriented charting is the most popular method of standardizing medical records.

15

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Which of the following are cations?

Na

Cl

NCO3

K

a. 1, 2, 3 c. 2, 3

b. 1, 4 d. 3, 4

____ 2. Which of the following is NOT a route for insensible water loss?

a. urine c. feces

b. perspiration d. lungs

____ 3. Which of the following is the most plentiful electrolyte in the body?

a. Ca c. K

b. Cl d. Na

____ 4. Which of the following can cause plasma Na concentrations to increase?

dehydration

increased antidiuretic hormone (ADH) production

increased mineralocorticoid production

increased saline administration

a. 1, 2 c. 2, 4

b. 1, 3, 4 d. 3

____ 5. Which of the following can exacerbate decreased plasma serum sodium levels?

a. hypoventilation c. vomiting

b. decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) d. saline infusion

____ 6. Which of the following enhances potassium secretions?

a. antidiuretic hormone (ADH) c. glucose

b. aldosterone d. calcium

____ 7. Serum calcium is most important in which of the following?

a. phagocytosis c. fluid balance

b. acid-base regulation d. contractility of muscles

____ 8. Which of the following methods is currently used to measure sodium and potassium?

a. ion-specific electrodes c. molecular assay

b. spectrophotometry d. flame photometry

____ 9. Blood gas analyzers are more likely to use which of the following methods of measurement?

a. flame photometry c. ion-specific electrode—direct

b. spectrophotometry d. ion-specific electrode—indirect

____ 10. Which of the following electrodes is considered a biosensor because it does NOT incorporate biorecognition?

a. sodium c. oxygen

b. pH d. potassium

____ 11. The pH electrode consists of a calomel electrode and which of the following?

a. HgCl2 c. Ag/AgCl

b. H2CO3 d. H2O

____ 12. The PO2 electrode consists of an Ag/AgCl anode and which cathode?

a. gold c. calomel

b. mercury d. platinum

____ 13. The ion-selective electrode (ISE) used for chloride measurement is which of the following?

a. gold c. platinum

b. silver d. mercury

____ 14. Which of the following is a potential cause of metabolic acidosis?

a. vomiting c. hyperkalemia

b. hyperventilation d. diarrhea

____ 15. The principal laboratory findings in metabolic alkalosis are which of the following?

increased pH

increased PO2

decreased PCO2

increased HCO3

a. 1, 2, 3 c. 2, 3

b. 1, 4 d. 2, 3, 4

____ 16. Metabolic alkalosis is frequently accompanied by which of the following?

a. increased sodium c. increased chloride

b. decreased potassium d. decreased bicarbonate

____ 17. Laboratory findings in compensated respiratory acidosis include which of the following?

a. decreased pH c. decreased carbon dioxide

b. increased sodium d. increased bicarbonate

____ 18. You note that a patient you are seeing has been ordered for serial troponin levels. On the basis of this, the patient has most likely experienced which of the following?

a. recent orthopedic surgery c. pulmonary embolism

b. recent blood loss d. myocardial infarction

____ 19. Given the following distribution of data, calculate the mean for 6, 9, 12, 13, and 18.

a. 9.3 c. 12

b. 11.6 d. 14.8

____ 20. In a Gaussian distribution of data, which of the following represents two standard deviations from the mean?

a. 52.3 c. 95.55

b. 68.3 d. 99.7

____ 21. By statistical design, nearly what percent of the control assays will fall outside the acceptable range?

a. 2% c. 8%

b. 5% d. 12%

____ 22. A coefficient of what percent is considered an acceptable analytical performance?

a. 5% c. 15%

b. 10% d. 20%

____ 23. Traditionally acceptable control limits for blood gas electrodes are how many standard deviations from the mean?

a. 1 c. 3

b. 2 d. 4

____ 24. In order to calculate the standard deviation interval, you need which of the following?

control lot number

control mean

laboratory mean

group mean

a. 1, 4 c. 2, 3, 4

b. 1, 2, 3 d. 3, 4

____ 25. Accuracy is a measure of which of the following?

a. repeatability c. adherence to consensus

b. validity d. interlaboratory reliability

17

Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Which of the following diseases is staged on the basis of spirometry data?

a. sarcoidosis c. cystic fibrosis

b. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) d. pneumonia

____ 2. Which of the following patients should have a pulmonary function test performed?

emphysema entering pulmonary rehabilitation

acute pneumonia

asthma placed on bronchodilators

55-year-old pre-op open heart surgery

a. 1, 2, 3 c. 2, 4

b. 1, 3, 4 d. 3, 4

____ 3. Which of the following is NOT assessed in pulmonary function testing?

a. SaO2 c. diffusing capacity

b. airway resistance d. inhaled flows

____ 4. Which of the following are likely to create airway obstruction?

loss of surfactant

accumulation of mucus

inflammation

edema in the alveoli

a. 1, 2, 3 c. 2, 3

b. 1, 4 d. 2, 4

____ 5. You are about to perform spirometry on a person during a health fair. Which of the following information items do you need to obtain prior to performing the test?

age

health history

height

body mass index

a. 1, 2, 3 c. 2, 3

b. 1, 4 d. 2, 4

____ 6. During spirometry a patient exhales gas that was at body temperature into the room. Because of this, corrections need to be made based on which law?

a. Charles c. Gay-Lussac

b. Boyle d. Laplace

____ 7. If you have a patient inhale to total lung capacity (TLC), then exhale to residual volume (RV), which of the following have you measured?

a. inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) c. inspiratory capacity (IC)

b. functional residual capacity (FRC) d. vital capacity (VC)

____ 8. The amount of air remaining in the lungs following a maximum exhalation best describes which of the following?

a. functional residual capacity (FRC) c. expiratory reserve volume (ERV)

b. residual volume (RV) d. tidal volume

____ 9. Which of the following can be performed at the bedside?

a. diffusing capacity c. closing volumes

b. functional residual capacity (FRC) measurement d. spirometry

____ 10. During a forced vital capacity (FVC) maneuver, the subject should blow hard for how long?

a. 3 seconds c. 5 seconds

b. 4 seconds d. 6 seconds

____ 11. Which of the following can be obtained from the volume-time graph?

FRC

FVC

FEF25-75

PEF

a. 1, 2, 4 c. 2, 3, 4

b. 1, 3 d. 2, 4

____ 12. According to the American Thoracic Society (ATS) recommendations, in evaluating the validity of pulmonary function test (PFT) results, the largest of the forced vital capacity (FVC) maneuvers should NOT vary by how much from the second largest?

a. 0.05 L c. 0.15 L

b. 0.1 L d. 0.2 L

____ 13. According to the American Thoracic Society (ATS), a change in FEV1 of how much is considered a significant response to a bronchodilator?

a. 8% c. 18%

b. 12% d. 24%

____ 14. In order to be considered normal, a pulmonary function test (PFT) parameter should be at least what percent of predicted?

a. 60% c. 80%

b. 70% d. 90%

____ 15. When a person is developing an obstructive lung problem, which of the following pulmonary function test (PFT) parameters will usually be decreased first?

a. PEFR c. FVC

b. FEV1 d. FEF25-75

____ 16. In a patient with a severe obstructive lung problem, which of the following is frequently increased?

a. residual volume (RV) c. inspiratory capacity (IC)

b. forced vital capacity (FVC) d. FEV1

____ 17. In interpreting pulmonary function test (PFT) data, you would suspect a restrictive lung on the basis of which of the following?

a. increased FVC c. decreased FRC

b. decreased FEV1% d. increased FEF25-75

____ 18. Which of the following can be obtained from a slow vital capacity (SVC) maneuver?

a. FEV1 c. residual volume (RV)

b. functional residual capacity (FRC) d. inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)

____ 19. During a helium dilution test, the normal equilibration time is usually around how long?

a. 2 minutes c. 5 minutes

b. 3 minutes d. 7 minutes

____ 20. The basic principle of body plethysmography is which of the following?

a. Laplace’s law c. Boyle’s law

b. Poiseuille’s law d. Charles’ law

____ 21. When performing the test for diffusing capacity, the subject should hold his or her breath for how many seconds after inhaling to total lung capacity (TLC)?

a. 5 c. 15

b. 10 d. 20

____ 22. In performing the maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) test, the subject should breathe deep and fast for a minimum of how many seconds?

a. 6 c. 10

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