Test Bank Human Physiology 15th Edition By Stuart Fox

$35.00
Test Bank Human Physiology 15th Edition By Stuart Fox

Test Bank Human Physiology 15th Edition By Stuart Fox

$35.00
Test Bank Human Physiology 15th Edition By Stuart Fox

Test Bank Human Physiology 15th Edition By Stuart Fox

Human Physiology, 15e (Fox)

Chapter 1 The Study of Body Function

1) Physiology ________.

A) emphasizes cause-and-effect mechanisms

B) includes the fields of chemistry and psychology

C) ignores the scientific method

D) ultimately strives to understand the structures of individual cells

2) The study of how disease or injury alters physiological processes is termed ________.

A) comparative physiology

B) the scientific method

C) pathophysiology

D) anatomy

3) The study of disease processes aids in the understanding of normal functions.

4) The first step in the scientific method involves the formation of a(n) ________.

A) theory

B) law

C) experiment

D) hypothesis

5) Phase IV clinical drug trials involve testing a drug only on the specific human population who have the condition that the drug is intended to treat.

6) Phase ________ clinical trials maximize the number of test participants and include human participants of both sexes, different ethnic groups, and those who have health problems besides the one that the drug is designed to treat.

A) I

B) II

C) III

D) IV

7) Phase I clinical trials do NOT involve ________.

A) testing on the target human population

B) testing how the drug is metabolized

C) testing how rapidly the drug is removed from the body

D) testing the most effective administration of the drug

8) When a scientist performs measurements in an experiment and does not know if the subject is part of the experimental or the control group, it is known as a ________ measurement.

A) blind

B) qualitative

C) null

D) statistical

9) A hypothesis is scientific if it ________.

A) supports other hypotheses

B) can be tested

C) refutes other hypotheses

D) uses observational analyses

10) For a theory to be scientific and accepted, it must be based on ________.

A) reproducible data

B) the support of the scientific community

C) a proven hypothesis from a well-designed research study

D) the word of a professional scientist

11) Negative feedback results in a response that opposes the original deviation from normal.

12) Blood clotting is an example of positive feedback since the action of the effector opposes that of the stimulus.

13) A patient takes a daily thyroid hormone replacement medication to maintain normal thyroid hormone levels.

14) The normal range of blood glucose concentration after fasting is approximately ________.

A) 50 to 80 mg/100 ml

B) 50 to 110 mg/100 ml

C) 75 to 110 mg/100 ml

D) 75 to 150 mg/100 ml

15) The normal range of arterial blood pH is ________.

A) 6.50–7.50

B) 7.35–7.45

C) 6.95–7.05

D) 7.15–7.25

16) In a feedback loop, the integrating center sends information to the ________.

A) sensor

B) effector

C) brain region

D) thermostat

17) Both ________ and ________ are the regulators of effectors in most feedback loops.

A) enzymes, nerve impulses

B) hormones, paracrines

C) neurotransmitters, enzymes

D) hormones, nerve impulses

E) enzymes, hormones

18) Homeostatic regulatory mechanisms known as ________ are "built-in" to the organs being regulated.

A) intrinsic

B) extrinsic

C) exothermic

D) passive

19) The endocrine and nervous systems are considered ________ homeostatic regulatory mechanisms.

A) intrinsic

B) active

C) extrinsic

D) passive

20) When blood glucose levels rise, the pancreatic islets are stimulated to release insulin, which acts on target cells to uptake glucose from the blood. Thus, the islets serve as the ________ in the feedback loop.

A) effectors

B) integrating center

C) sensors

D) All of the choices are correct.

21) A decrease in mean arterial pressure is detected by ________.

A) an effector

B) an integrating center

C) a sensor

D) a chemical messenger

22) When a vessel is damaged, chemicals are released from the vessel walls that attract platelets to the site of the damage. As they accumulate, more chemicals that attract more platelets to the area until the bleeding stops. This represents ________ feedback, with the platelets acting as the ________.

A) negative; sensors

B) positive; integrating center

C) negative; integrating center

D) positive; effectors

23) Dynamic constancy is a term used to describe homeostasis. Which of the following is NOT an example of dynamic constancy?

A) Sweating or shivering as you move from inside air-conditioned stores to outside on a hot, humid day

B) Administering IV fluids to a person who presents to the emergency room with dehydration

C) The pancreas releasing insulin when blood glucose levels are significantly elevated

D) Adjusting the depth and rate of breathing if blood pH levels change

24) Estrogen levels cause both increased and decreased hormone secretions from the anterior pituitary and hypothalamus at various points in the menstrual cycle. This indicates that ________.

A) estrogen is secreted in consistent amounts from the ovaries throughout the menstrual cycle

B) estrogen is not involved in any feedback loops

C) estrogen is involved in both positive and negative feedback with the anterior pituitary and hypothalamus

D) the ovaries serve as the integrating center in a feedback loop with the anterior pituitary and hypothalamus

25) The control of hormone secretion by its own effects is called ________.

A) positive feedback

B) negative feedback

C) negative feedback inhibition

D) antagonist effector

26) The primary stimulus for insulin secretion is ________.

A) increased blood glucose concentrations

B) increased blood calcium concentrations

C) increased body temperature

D) increased exposure to sunlight

27) If blood glucose levels decrease from normal, which of the following changes takes place to bring glucose levels back to normal?

A) Increase in insulin; increase in glucagon

B) Increase in insulin; decrease in glucagon

C) Decrease in insulin; increase in glucagon

D) Decrease in insulin; decrease in glucagon

28) Which of the following is NOT a primary tissue of the body?

A) Nervous

B) Epithelial

C) Muscular

D) Osseous

29) Contraction of ________ muscle can be consciously controlled.

A) cardiac

B) smooth

C) skeletal

D) striated

30) Intercalated discs couple ________ cells both mechanically and electrically.

A) smooth muscle

B) myocardial

C) skeletal muscle

D) both myocardial and skeletal muscle

31) You examine a sample of muscle tissue under the microscope, and it has a striped, or striated appearance. This sample could not have been taken from the ________.

A) muscle of the thigh

B) wall of digestive tract

C) wall of heart chamber

D) muscle of the forearm

32) Which of the following is a characteristic of smooth muscle?

A) Fibers are striated in appearance

B) Attached to the skeleton by tendons

C) Intercalated discs connect adjacent cells

D) Found in the walls of the digestive tract

33) Neuroglia are supporting cells present in the ________.

A) brain

B) spinal cord

C) effector organs

D) Both brain and spinal cord are correct.

34) Damage to the ________ of a neuron would interfere with its ability to receive sensory input from its surrounding environment.

A) dendrites

B) axons

C) cell body

D) telodendria

35) Which of the following is NOT a function of neuroglia?

A) Bind neurons together

B) Help nourish neurons

C) Conduct impulses to effectors

D) Modify the extracellular environment of neurons

36) Stratified epithelial tissue provides little protection, but transports substances between the internal and external environments.

37) The peritoneal membrane of the abdominal cavity secretes fluid to reduce friction between adjacent organs in the body. The tissue best suited to this description and function is ________.

A) stratified squamous

B) elastic connective tissue

C) simple columnar

D) simple squamous

38) Cells that are as wide as they are tall have a ________ shape.

A) squamous

B) cuboidal

C) columnar

D) rectangular

39) The ________ is a protein and polysaccharide layer that attaches epithelial tissue to the underlying connective tissue.

A) goblet cell

B) epidermis

C) basement membrane

D) plasma membrane

40) Which types of connections allow epithelial cells to form strong membranes?

A) Basement membranes

B) Intercalated discs

C) Junctional complexes

D) Keratinized

41) Keratinized epithelium ________.

A) has living cells in all layers

B) is a moist membrane

C) allows water to diffuse through

D) is a dry, mostly dead membrane

42) Epithelial tissues that are more than one layer thick are called ________.

A) simple

B) stratified

C) squamous

D) ciliated

43) Histological examination of a tissue shows several layers of keratinized flattened cells. This sample most likely came from ________.

A) the epidermis of the skin

B) the lining of the oral cavity

C) the lining of the urinary bladder

D) the lining of the digestive tract

44) Which type of epithelial tissue would be found lining the uterine tubes?

A) Simple ciliated columnar epithelium

B) Stratified cuboidal epithelium

C) Nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium

D) Simple cuboidal epithelium

45) Specialized unicellular glands found in columnar and pseudostratified columnar epithelium that secrete mucus are called ________.

A) cilia

B) keratin

C) transitional cells

D) goblet cells

46) A single layer of irregularly shaped epithelial cells found lining the respiratory tract is called ________.

A) simple columnar epithelium

B) stratified cuboidal epithelium

C) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

D) transitional epithelium

47) The epithelial tissue that lines the urinary bladder and allows distention is called ________.

A) transitional epithelium

B) stratified cuboidal epithelium

C) simple columnar epithelium

D) nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium

48) The entire epidermis is replaced every ________.

A) 2–3 days

B) 2 weeks

C) 2–3 hours

D) 2 months

49) Which of the following is a function of simple squamous epithelium?

A) Protection

B) Diffusion

C) Distention

D) Transport through ciliary action

50) Sebaceous glands are responsible for the lubrication of the skin.

51) Which of the following is NOT an example of an exocrine gland?

A) Mucous gland that secretes onto respiratory passages

B) Sweat gland that secretes onto the skin

C) Salivary gland that secretes into the mouth

D) Testes cells that secrete testosterone into the blood

52) Which glands are primarily responsible for thermoregulation?

A) Apocrine sweat glands

B) Endocrine glands

C) Eccrine sweat glands

D) Sebaceous glands

53) Enamel, which is harder than bone or dentin, cannot be regenerated.

54) Which tissue attaches skeletal muscles to bones?

A) Ligaments

B) Cartilages

C) Tendons

D) Adipocytes

55) Which of the following is the main characteristic of connective tissue?

A) Large amount of closely packed cells

B) Large amount of extracellular material

C) The ability to conduct a current

D) Small amount of extracellular material

56) Tendons are composed of ________.

A) adipose tissue

B) dense regular fibrous connective tissue

C) dense irregular fibrous connective tissue

D) loose connective tissue

57) What protein is present in large amounts in connective tissue proper?

A) Collagen

B) Keratin

C) Enamel

D) Mucin

58) Which type of connective tissue is characterized by a liquid extracellular matrix?

A) Bone

B) Blood

C) Adipose

D) Irregular dense connective tissue

59) The cells that secrete fibers and matrix that create bone tissue are known as ________.

A) osteocytes

B) osteoblasts

C) osteons

D) chondrocytes

60) Cartilage cells are known as ________.

A) osteocytes

B) osteoblasts

C) chondroblasts

D) chondrocytes

61) Units of bone composed of concentric rings of lamellae with trapped osteocytes are called ________.

A) canaliculi

B) osteons

C) haversian systems

D) Both osteons and haversian systems are correct.

62) By affecting the diameter of cutaneous blood vessels, motor nerve fibers in the skin can regulate the rate of blood flow.

63) Which of the following is NOT a function of the epidermis?

A) Acts as barrier against microorganisms

B) Prevents water loss

C) Protects against abrasion

D) Provides strength and elasticity

64) How does the skin protect a person from the ultraviolet rays of the sun?

A) Produces sweat

B) Produces vitamin D

C) Produces sebum

D) Produces melanin

65) What produces "goose bumps"?

A) Secretion of sweat

B) Contraction of the arrector pili muscle

C) Flow of sebum onto the skin

D) Dilation of cutaneous blood vessels

66) The ________ layer of the skin contains sweat glands, hair follicles, and sebaceous glands.

A) epidermal

B) dermal

C) hypodermal

D) subdermal

67) The hypodermis is primarily composed of ________.

A) adipose tissue

B) nervous tissue

C) blood vessels

D) hair cells

68) The zygote (fertilized egg) has the ability to produce all the various types of cells found in the body. Therefore, it is a(n) ________ cell.

A) pluripotent

B) multipotent

C) totipotent

D) omnipotent

69) Adult stem cells may be found in ________.

A) hair follicles

B) the brain

C) red bone marrow

D) skeletal muscle

E) All of the choices are correct.

70) Blood plasma and interstitial fluid are separated from each other; therefore, there is little communication and exchange between these fluids.

71) Which of the following is FALSE regarding the extracellular fluid compartment?

A) It is made up of blood plasma and interstitial fluid.

B) Its volume is regulated by the kidneys.

C) It makes up 65% of the total body water.

D) It communicates with the intracellular fluid compartment.

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