Test Bank Understanding Nutrition 12th Edition By Whitney

$45.00
Test Bank Understanding Nutrition 12th Edition By Whitney

Test Bank Understanding Nutrition 12th Edition By Whitney

$45.00
Test Bank Understanding Nutrition 12th Edition By Whitney
UNDERSTANDING NUTRITION 12TH EDITION BY WHITNEY – TEST BANK
SAMPLE QUESTIONS

Chapter 2 – Planning a Healthy Diet

An. Page(s)/difficulty K = knowledge-level, A = application level

Multiple Choice

Questions for Section 2.1 Principles and Guidelines

b 35(K) 01. The diet-planning principle that provides all the nutrients, fiber, and energy in amounts sufficient to maintain health is called

  1. variety.
  2. adequacy.
  3. moderation.
  4. kcalorie control.

d 35(K) 02. What are the principles of diet planning?

  1. Abundance, B vitamins, kcalories, diet control, minerals, and variety
  2. Abundance, balance, conservative, diversity, moderation, and vitamins
  3. Adequacy, bone development, correction, vitamin density, master, and variety
  4. Adequacy, balance, kcalorie control, nutrient density, moderation, and variety

b 36(A) 03. Which of the following is the most calcium-dense food?

  1. Whole milk
  2. Nonfat milk
  3. Low-fat milk
  4. Cheddar cheese

c 36(K) 04. Nutrient dense refers to foods that

  1. carry the USDA nutrition labeling.
  2. are higher in weight relative to volume.
  3. provide more nutrients relative to kcalories.
  4. contain a mixture of carbohydrate, fat, and protein.

d 36(K) 05. The concept of nutrient density is most helpful in achieving what principle of diet planning?

  1. Variety
  2. Balance
  3. Moderation
  4. kCalorie control

a 36(A) 06. Which of the following is an expression of the nutrient density of a food?

  1. 0.01 mg iron per kcalorie
  2. 110 kcalories per cup
  3. 0.5 mg iron per serving
  4. 110 kcalories per serving

d 36(A) 07. An empty-kcalorie food is one that contains

  1. no kcalories.
  2. an abundance of vitamins but little or no minerals.
  3. an abundance of minerals but little or no vitamins.
  4. energy and little or no protein, vitamins or minerals.

c 36-37(K) 08. Providing enough, but not an excess, of a food is a diet-planning principle known as

  1. safety.
  2. variety.
  3. moderation.
  4. undernutrition.

d 37(A) 09. Applying the principle of variety in food planning ensures the benefits of

  1. moderation.
  2. vegetarianism.
  3. nutrient density.
  4. dilution of harmful substances.

c 38(A) 10. Which of the following practices is not consistent with achieving a healthy diet?

  1. Intake of eggs
  2. Intake of nuts
  3. Emphasis on trans-fat
  4. Emphasis on low-fat milk products

d 38-39(K) 11. Which of the following is among the recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines for Americans?

  1. Practice good foot hygiene
  2. Reduce television viewing time
  3. Reduce computer Internet time
  4. Engage in regular physical activities

Questions for Section 2.2 Diet-Planning Guides

d 39(K) 12. The consumption of 2000 kcalories per day is sufficient to meet the energy needs of most

  1. teenage girls.
  2. most children.
  3. sedentary men.
  4. sedentary women.

c 39(K) 13. Which of the following is not a feature of a food group plan?

  1. Defines serving equivalents
  2. Considered a tool for diet planning
  3. Sorts foods of similar water content
  4. Specifies the number of servings from each group

b 39-41(A) 14. Consider the following menu from the point of view of the USDA Food Guide.

BreakfastLunchSupper
2 eggs

1 tsp margarine

2 slices enriched white bread

1 c whole milk

coffee

2 oz tuna fish

lettuce

1 tbsp mayonnaise

2 slices enriched white bread

1 apple

3 oz hamburger meat

1 oz cheese

½ c cooked rice

½ c carrots

coffee

Which of the following describes the nutritional value of the fruits and vegetables in this menu?

  1. A source of vitamin A is missing
  2. A source of vitamin C is marginal
  3. The daily amounts recommended for a 2000-kcalorie diet are met
  4. The daily amounts recommended for a 2000-kcalorie diet are exceeded

c 39-42(A) 15. Jamie is a vegetarian who is trying to plan a healthy diet according to the USDA Food Guide. Which of the following meat alternatives would be the best nutrient choices for one day?

  1. 2 pieces bacon, ½ can tuna, 2 pieces bread
  2. 3 oz. cheese, ½ sweet potato, 2 tbsp peanut butter
  3. ½ cup black beans, 2 tbsp peanut butter, 1 c spinach
  4. 1 skinless chicken breast, 2 egg whites, meal replacement bar

d 40(K) 16. Of the daily recommended intake of fruit servings, what maximum percentage may be supplied by fruit juice?

  1. 10
  2. 20
  3. 33
  4. 50

b 40(K) 17. What two major nutrients are supplied by the fruit and vegetable groups?

  1. Vitamins D and E
  2. Vitamins A and C
  3. Protein and calcium
  4. B vitamins and iron

b 40;41(A) 18. Which of the following is not characteristic of the USDA Food Guide?

  1. It places most foods into one of five groups
  2. Its nutrients of greatest concern include iron, chromium, and vitamin B12
  3. It can be used with great flexibility once its intent is understood
  4. It specifies that a certain quantity of food be consumed from each group, based upon energy intake

d 40;52(K) 19. All of the following are examples of legumes except

  1. peas.
  2. beans.
  3. peanuts.
  4. potatoes.

a 41(A) 20. Which of the following is an alternative choice for meats in the USDA Food Guide?

  1. Nuts
  2. Bacon
  3. Baked potatoes
  4. Sweet potatoes

a 41(K) 21. In which of the following food groups are legumes found?

  1. Meats
  2. Dairy
  3. Fruits
  4. Grains

b 42(A) 22. Which of the following foods could help meet the iron needs of vegetarians who consume dairy?

  1. Coconut
  2. Legumes
  3. Skim milk
  4. Potato salad

c 42(K) 23. How many subgroups comprise the vegetable food group?

  1. 1
  2. 3
  3. 5
  4. 7

b 42(K) 24. Legumes are used as meat alternatives for all of the following reasons except

  1. they are economical.
  2. they can be graded as prime, choice, and select.
  3. they can be processed to look and taste like meat.
  4. they contribute the same key nutrients, including zinc and protein.

a 42(A) 25. Approximately how many kcalories more per day are needed by an average college-age student who is active compared with her inactive counterpart?

  1. 400-500
  2. 600-800
  3. 1000-1200
  4. 1500-2000

a 42;52(K) 26. General features of legumes include all of the following except

  1. they are high in fat.
  2. they are low in cost.
  3. they are rich in fiber.
  4. they include peanuts.

c 43(K) 27. According to the principles of the USDA Food Guide, the foundation of a healthful diet should consist of

  1. dairy.
  2. fruits.
  3. nutrient-dense foods.
  4. meats and alternatives.

b 43-44(A) 28. Which of the following foods provides discretionary kcalories for the person on a weight reduction diet?

  1. Watermelon
  2. Canned pears in syrup
  3. Milk with all fat removed
  4. Chicken with the skin removed

a 43-44(A) 29. Which of the following foods’ kcalories would be considered as part of one’s discretionary kcalorie allowance?

  1. Jam
  2. Watermelon
  3. Raw carrots
  4. Brussels sprouts

b 44(A) 30. A cup of fresh blueberries is about the size of a

  1. golf ball.
  2. baseball.
  3. grapefruit.
  4. marshmallow.

d 45(K) 31. Which of the following is not descriptive of MyPyramid?

  1. An education tool that illustrates the concepts of the Dietary Guidelines and USDA Food Guide
  2. A graphic image designed to encourage consumers to make healthy food and physical activity choices every day
  3. A multi-colored pyramid that illustrates variety, with each color representative of the five food groups, plus one for oils
  4. A broad-based figure that conveys the message that grains should be abundant and form the foundation of a healthy diet

a 46(K) 32. What is the assessment tool designed to measure how well a diet meets the recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines and MyPyramid?

  1. Healthy Eating Index
  2. Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program
  3. Dietitian’s Comparative Effectiveness Plan
  4. U.S. Public Health Nutrient Assessment Barometer

d 46(K) 33. Which of the following is a main criticism of the use of the MyPyramid?

  1. It lacks a personalized approach
  2. The five food groups are not clearly identified
  3. There is no encouragement of physical activity
  4. Not enough information is readily available because there is no text

a 47(K) 34. Food exchange systems were originally developed for people with

  1. diabetes.
  2. terminal diseases.
  3. cardiovascular disease.
  4. life-threatening obesity.

d 47(A) 35. Which of the following is a feature of the exchange list system?

  1. Foods are grouped according to their source
  2. Adequate intakes of minerals and vitamins are virtually guaranteed
  3. A fat portion provides about twice the energy as a carbohydrate portion
  4. All foods are grouped according to their content of carbohydrate, protein, and fats

a 47(K) 36. In food exchange lists, to what group are olives assigned?

  1. Fat
  2. Meat
  3. Carbohydrate
  4. Meat substitute

b 48(A) 37. Whole-grain flour contains all parts of the grain with the exception of the

  1. bran.
  2. husk.
  3. germ.
  4. endosperm.

d 48(A) 38. Refined grain products contain only the

  1. bran.
  2. husk.
  3. germ.
  4. endosperm.

c 48(A) 39. The addition of calcium to some orange juice products by food manufacturers is most properly termed nutrient

  1. enrichment.
  2. restoration.
  3. fortification.
  4. mineralization.

c 48(K) 40. What nutrient makes up most of the endosperm section of grains such as wheat and rice?

  1. Fat
  2. Fiber
  3. Starch
  4. Protein

d 48(K) 41. The part of the grain that remains after being refined is the

  1. bran.
  2. germ.
  3. husk.
  4. endosperm.

d 48;50(A) 42. Which of the following breads has the highest fiber content?

  1. White
  2. Refined
  3. Enriched
  4. Whole-grain

a 48;50(K) 43. Which of the following is a characteristic of enriched grain products?

  1. They have all of the added nutrients listed on the label
  2. They have the fiber restored from the refining procedure
  3. They have virtually all the nutrients restored from refining procedure
  4. They have only 4 vitamins and 4 minerals added by the food manufacturer

b 48;50-51(K) 44. All of the following are features of the process of nutrient enrichment of flours except

  1. it includes products such as pastas.
  2. fiber levels are similar to those in the whole grains.
  3. it is required of all refined grain products that cross state lines.
  4. thiamin and riboflavin are added in amounts exceeding their levels in the whole grain.

c 50(A) 45. Approximately what minimum percentage of all grains consumed by a person should be whole grains?

  1. 20
  2. 35
  3. 50
  4. 100

a 50(K) 46. What mineral is added to refined flours in the enrichment process?

  1. Iron
  2. Iodine
  3. Calcium
  4. Magnesium

c 50(A) 47. Which of the following product labels always denotes a whole-grain product?

  1. Multi-grain
  2. 100% wheat
  3. Whole-wheat
  4. Stone-ground

c 50(K) 48. The enrichment of grain products in the United States was initiated in the

  1. 1840s.
  2. 1890s.
  3. 1940s.
  4. 1990s.

a 50(K) 49. Approximately how many years have grain products been subject to nutrient enrichment legislation?

  1. 70
  2. 100
  3. 175
  4. 225

b 51(K) 50. Which of the following is an enrichment nutrient for grains?

  1. Zinc
  2. Folate
  3. Protein
  4. Calcium

a 51(K) 51. The “More Matters” food campaign promotes increased consumption of

  1. fruits and vegetables.
  2. fish and skinless poultry.
  3. five to nine kcalories less per day.
  4. nonfat dairy products.

d 51(K) 52. The most highly fortified foods on the market are

  1. frozen dinners.
  2. imitation foods.
  3. enriched breads.
  4. breakfast cereals.

a 51(K) 53. Which of the following nutrients would be supplied in much greater amounts from whole-grain bread versus enriched bread?

  1. Zinc
  2. Folate
  3. Riboflavin
  4. Thiamine

d 51(K) 54. Which of the following nutrients is not supplied in about the same amount by a slice of enriched bread compared with one from whole-grain bread?

  1. Iron
  2. Niacin
  3. Thiamine
  4. Magnesium

c 52(A) 55. Cooking an 8-ounce raw steak will reduce the weight (ounces) to approximately

  1. 3 ½.
  2. 5.
  3. 6.
  4. 7.

a 52(A) 56. Textured vegetable protein is usually made from

  1. soybeans.
  2. corn stalks.
  3. a mixture of legumes.
  4. cruciferous vegetables.

b 52(A) 57. Which of the following terms is used to describe a cut of meat having a low fat content?

  1. End
  2. Round
  3. Prime
  4. Choice

d 52(A) 58. A meat described as “prime cut” means that it

  1. has an extended shelf life.
  2. usually carries a high price.
  3. is served only in restaurants.
  4. is higher in fat than other cuts of meat.

c 53(K) 59. Which of the following is not the same as fat-free milk?

  1. Skim milk
  2. No-fat milk
  3. 1% milk
  4. Non-fat milk

c 53(K) 60. What term describes a food that resembles and substitutes for another food but is nutritionally inferior to it?

  1. Faux food
  2. Pseudo food
  3. Imitation food
  4. Food substitute

d 53(K) 61. According to food labeling laws, acceptable synonyms for nonfat milk include all of the following except

  1. skim milk.
  2. no-fat milk.
  3. zero-fat milk.
  4. reduced-fat milk.

Questions for Section 2.3 Food Labels

d 53(A) 62. Which of the following is a feature of U.S. laws governing information on food labels?

  1. The term “fresh” can be used only for raw and moderately processed food
  2. Nutrition labeling must appear on virtually all processed as well as fresh foods
  3. Restaurant foods must provide nutrient content information on the menu
  4. Nutrition labeling is not required on foods produced by small businesses or products produced and sold in the same establishment

a 53(A) 63. A food scientist is developing a new and improved cereal bar. She consults with you to ask in what order the ingredients should be listed on the food label. The ingredients are: Sugar: 30 g, Puffed wheat: 28 g, Dry milk powder: 5 g, Red food coloring: 35 mg, Salt: 2 g. What is the appropriate order in which to list these ingredients on the food label?

  1. Sugar, puffed wheat, dry milk powder, salt, red food coloring
  2. Red food coloring, salt, dry milk powder, puffed wheat, sugar
  3. Dry milk powder, puffed wheat, red food coloring, salt, sugar
  4. Puffed wheat, sugar, dry milk powder, salt, red food coloring

a 55(K) 64. According to nutrition labeling laws, what two minerals mustbe listed on the package label as percent Daily Value?

  1. Calcium and Iron
  2. Zinc and Phosphorus
  3. Fluoride and Chloride
  4. Chromium and Magnesium

c 53(A) 65. A food label ingredient list reads in the following order: Wheat flour, vegetable shortening, sugar, salt, and cornstarch. What item would be found in the smallest amount in the food?

  1. Salt
  2. Sugar
  3. Cornstarch
  4. Wheat flour

b 54(A) 66. By law, a serving size on beverage food labels is

  1. 4-6 fluid ounces.
  2. 8 fluid ounces.
  3. 10-12 fluid ounces.
  4. 16 fluid ounces.

c 54(K) 67. Approximately how many milliliters constitute a fluid ounce?

  1. 10
  2. 20
  3. 30
  4. 40

c 54(K) 68. Approximately how many grams are in an ounce?

  1. 10
  2. 20
  3. 30
  4. 40

b 54(K) 69. All of the following are features of serving size information on food labels except

  1. serving sizes for solid foods are expressed in both ounces and grams.
  2. small bags of individually wrapped food items must contain only one serving.
  3. serving sizes on food labels are not necessarily the same as those of MyPyramid.
  4. for a given product, the serving size is the same, no matter how large the package.

c 54(K) 70. Which of the following is a characteristic of food serving sizes?

  1. Serving sizes for most foods have not yet been established by the FDA
  2. The serving size for ice cream is 2 cups and the serving size for all beverages is 12 fluid ounces
  3. Serving sizes on food labels are not always the same as those of the USDA Food Guide
  4. Serving sizes must be listed in common household measures, such as cups, or metric measures, such as milliliters, but not both

a 54-55(K) 71. Information that must be lawfully provided on food labels includes all of the following except

  1. the amount recommended for ingestion each day.
  2. the amounts of specified nutrients and food components.
  3. the net contents expressed by weight, measure, or count.
  4. the name and address of the manufacturer, packer, or distributor.

b 55(K) 72. According to nutrition labeling laws, the amounts of what two vitamins must be listed on the package label as percent Daily Value?

  1. Vitamins D and E
  2. Vitamins A and C
  3. Thiamin and riboflavin
  4. Vitamin B6 and niacin

a 55(K) 73. Food labels express the nutrient content in relation to a set of standard values known as the

  1. Daily Values.
  2. FDA Standards.
  3. Reference Dietary Intakes.
  4. Recommended Dietary Intakes.

c 55(K) 74. Population groups such as sedentary older men, sedentary younger women, and active older women have a daily energy need (kcalories) of approximately

  1. 1200.
  2. 1500.
  3. 2000.
  4. 2700.

b 55(K) 75. On a food label, the “% Daily Value” table compares key nutrients per serving for a person consuming how many kcalories daily?

  1. 1500
  2. 2000
  3. 2500
  4. 3000

b 55-56(A) 76. Which of the following foods qualifies as a “good source” of calcium?

  1. Cheese with 50 g of calcium
  2. Yogurt with 150 mg of calcium
  3. Ice cream with 90 mg calcium
  4. Whole milk with 300 mg of calcium

c 56(K) 77. Which of the following is a feature of the Daily Values found on food labels?

  1. They are updated every two years as mandated by the USDA
  2. They are expressed on a “per 1000-kcalorie intake” basis
  3. They assist people in determining whether a food contains a little or a lot of a nutrient
  4. They define a food as an excellent source of a nutrient if it contributes at least 50% of the dietary recommended intake

a 57(A) 78. A food label that advertises the product as a “rich source of fiber” is an example of a

  1. nutrient claim.
  2. lite-food claim.
  3. weight reduction claim.
  4. structure-function claim.

c 57-58(A) 79. Greg is trying to decide which brand of cereal to buy, but he is a somewhat confused by the health claims. Which of the following represents the highest level of significant scientific agreement?

  1. “Promotes a healthy heart”
  2. “This cereal supports heart health”
  3. “This product contains whole grains which have been proven to reduce the risk of heart disease and certain cancers”
  4. “Very limited and preliminary scientific research suggests this product can reduce risk for cancers, FDA concludes that there is little scientific evidence supporting this claim”

a 58(K) 80. Which of the following is descriptive of the FDA’s “A” list?

  1. A series of unqualified health claims on food labels
  2. A list of foods conforming to the USDA Food Guide
  3. The most nutrient-dense foods found within MyPyramid
  4. A list of foods that should be avoided to maintain a healthy diet

b 58(K) 81. Which of the following is a feature of the FDA’s regulations of food label health claims?

  1. The claims cannot be reviewed in a court of law
  2. There are four grades of health claim quality: A, B, C, and D
  3. There are three grades of health claim quality: prime, choice, and select
  4. All health claims must undergo careful and scientifically thorough evaluation to ensure accuracy

a 58(K) 82. According to U.S. food labeling regulations, clear and convincing evidence has been found for all of the following health claims regarding nutrition and disease except

  1. sugar and diabetes.
  2. sodium and hypertension.
  3. calcium and osteoporosis.
  4. lipids and cancer and cardiovascular disease.

b 58(K) 83. Which of the following is a characteristic of structure-function claims on food labels?

  1. They are allowed only for unprocessed food
  2. They can be made without any FDA approval
  3. They must conform to guidelines of the “A” list of health claims
  4. They must state the name of the disease or symptom for which a benefit is claimed

b 58(A) 84. According to the FDA, which of the following diet-health messages on food labels represents a qualified health claim?

  1. Fiber and cancer
  2. Lipids and obesity
  3. Calcium and osteoporosis
  4. Sodium and high blood pressure

Questions for Section 2.4 Vegetarian Diets

d 62(A) 85. Which of the following are allowed in the diet of a lactovegetarian?

  1. Plant foods only
  2. Eggs and plant foods only
  3. Meat, eggs, and plant foods only
  4. Milk products and plant foods only

a 62(K) 86. Tempeh is made from

  1. soybeans.
  2. any legume.
  3. fermented leafy vegetables.
  4. fermented yellow vegetables.

a 62(A) 87. Which of the following would not be permitted on a macrobiotic diet?

  1. Small amounts of dairy
  2. Small amounts of seeds
  3. Abundant amounts of legumes
  4. Abundant amounts of whole grains

b 62;63(A) 88. Which of the following ingredients found on a food label is a source of protein?

  1. BHT
  2. Tofu
  3. Corn starch
  4. Diglycerides

c 63(K) 89. Which of the following is a feature of people regularly eating meals based on tofu?

  1. They show less heart disease but more colon cancer than omnivores
  2. They show evidence of marginal protein intake compared with omnivores
  3. They have lower blood cholesterol and triglyceride levels than those eating meat
  4. They have lower sodium intakes but blood pressure is similar to those eating red meat

b 63(A) 90. All of the following are documented benefits for people following a vegetarian diet except

  1. lower body weights.
  2. lower rates of anemia.
  3. lower blood cholesterol levels.
  4. lower rates of certain types of cancer.

a 64(K) 91. In vegetarians, the RDA is higher for

  1. iron.
  2. folate.
  3. calcium.
  4. vitamin A.

a 64(A) 92. Which of the following is a feature of iron nutrition in vegetarians?

  1. Vegetarians absorb iron more efficiently
  2. Iron utilization is inhibited by the high zinc content in grains
  3. The absorption of iron is low due to the high vitamin C intake
  4. More iron deficiency is found in vegetarians than in people eating a mixed diet

a 64(K) 93. Textured vegetable protein is usually made of

  1. soy protein.
  2. fish protein.
  3. bean plus rice proteins.
  4. bean plus cheese proteins.

c 64-66(A) 94. For the most part, all of the following are advantages of vegetarian diets except

  1. fat intake is lower.
  2. fiber intake is higher.
  3. vitamin B12 intake is higher.
  4. intakes of vitamins A and C are higher.

c 65(A) 95. Which of the following is a feature of vitamin B12 nutrition in vegetarians?

  1. Vitamin B12 in fortified cereals has low bioavailability
  2. Vegan mothers need only infrequent intake of vitamin B12-fortified cereals
  3. The vitamin B12 in fermented soy products may be present in inactive form
  4. Infants born to vegan mothers are resistant to the development of vitamin B12deficiency

b 65-66(K) 96. All of the following are typical characteristics of vegetarians except

  1. they are no more iron deficient than are omnivores.
  2. their zinc absorption is efficient due to their high soy intake.
  3. they are at risk for iodine toxicity when consuming high amounts of seaweeds.
  4. their need for calcium can be met, in large part, from enriched soy milk, breakfast cereals, and fortified juices.

Chapter 4 – The Carbohydrates: Sugars, Starches and Fibers

An. Page(s)/difficulty K = knowledge-level, A = application level

Multiple Choice

Questions for Section 4.0 Introduction

a 97(A) 01. In which of the following are ample amounts of carbohydrates almost always found?

  1. Plant foods
  2. Health foods
  3. Animal products
  4. Protein-rich foods

a 97(K) 02. All of the following are sources of dietary carbohydrates except

  1. fish.
  2. milk.
  3. fruits.
  4. legumes.

Questions for Section 4.1 The Chemist’s View of Carbohydrates

d 97(K) 03. What type of nutrient is starch?

  1. Fiber
  2. Gluten
  3. Simple carbohydrate
  4. Complex carbohydrate

a 97-98(K) 04. Which of the following is not a simple carbohydrate?

  1. Starch
  2. White sugar
  3. Disaccharide
  4. Monosaccharide

b 98(K) 05. How many carbon atoms are found in most common dietary monosaccharides?

  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 8
  4. 12

c 98(K) 06. The types of atoms found in a glucose molecule include all of the following except

  1. carbon.
  2. oxygen.
  3. nitrogen.
  4. hydrogen.

a 98(K) 07. Which of the following is known as blood sugar or dextrose?

  1. Glucose
  2. Maltose
  3. Sucrose
  4. Fructose

c 98(K) 08. What component accounts for the usually sweet taste of fruits?

  1. Fats
  2. Fiber
  3. Simple sugars
  4. Complex carbohydrates

c 98(K) 09. Which of the following is known as fruit sugar or levulose?

  1. Maltose
  2. Glucose
  3. Fructose
  4. Galactose

d 98(A) 10. Which of the following is not a characteristic of glucose?

  1. It is soluble in water
  2. It is a monosaccharide
  3. It is part of the sucrose molecule
  4. It is sweeter tasting than sucrose

c 98(K) 11. What is the sweetest-tasting simple carbohydrate in the diet?

  1. Glucose
  2. Lactose
  3. Fructose
  4. Sucrose

d 98-99;102(K) 12. Typical dietary sources of carbohydrate include all of the following except

  1. starch.
  2. maltose.
  3. phytates.
  4. glycogen.

a 98;106(A) 13. Milk that has been treated with a commercially available lactase preparation undergoes which of the following changes?

  1. Increase in sweetness
  2. Decrease in sweetness
  3. Increase in carbohydrate content
  4. Decrease in carbohydrate content

d 99(K) 14. What is the reaction that links two monosaccharides together?

  1. Hydrolysis
  2. Absorption
  3. Disaccharide
  4. Condensation

a 99(A) 15. Which of the following is a byproduct of the condensation of two molecules of glucose?

  1. Water
  2. Oxygen
  3. Hydrogen
  4. Carbon dioxide

a 99(A) 16. The chemical reaction by which starch is split into monosaccharides is termed

  1. hydrolysis.
  2. condensation.
  3. gluconeogenesis.
  4. homeostatic balancing.

b 100(K) 17. The chief carbohydrate in beet sugar is

  1. starch.
  2. sucrose.
  3. glycogen.
  4. invert sugar.

b 100(K) 18. What is the composition of sucrose?

  1. Two fructose units
  2. One glucose and one fructose unit
  3. One glucose and one galactose unit
  4. One galactose and one fructose unit

a 100(K) 19. What is the composition of maltose?

  1. Two glucose units
  2. One glucose and one fructose unit
  3. One glucose and one galactose unit
  4. One galactose and one fructose unit

b 100(K) 20. Which of the following is a component of all three dietary disaccharides?

  1. Sucrose
  2. Glucose
  3. Fructose
  4. Galactose

d 100(K) 21. What is the composition of lactose?

  1. Two glucose units
  2. Two fructose units
  3. One glucose and one fructose unit
  4. One glucose and one galactose unit

a 100(K) 22. What is the principle carbohydrate of milk?

  1. Lactose
  2. Sucrose
  3. Maltose
  4. Glycogen

a 100(K) 23. What is another name for lactose?

  1. Milk sugar
  2. Fruit sugar
  3. Table sugar
  4. Artificial sugar

b 100(K) 24. Which of the following sugars is not found in plants?

  1. Glucose
  2. Lactose
  3. Sucrose
  4. Fructose

d 101(K) 25. What is the name of the animal polysaccharide composed of glucose units?

  1. Fiber
  2. Enzyme
  3. Dextrin
  4. Glycogen

a 101(K) 26. Glycogen is stored mainly in which of the following tissues?

  1. Muscle and liver
  2. Pancreas and kidneys
  3. Stomach and intestine
  4. Brain and red blood cells

c 101(K) 27. Which of the following is a feature of glycogen?

  1. It is found in plants
  2. It is important as a dietary nutrient
  3. It is virtually absent from animal meats
  4. It plays an insignificant role in the body

d 101(K) 28. What is the primary storage form of carbohydrate in the body?

  1. Fiber
  2. Starch
  3. Glucose
  4. Glycogen

b 101-102(A) 29. Which of the following is not a rich source of dietary starch?

  1. Grains
  2. Fruits
  3. Tubers
  4. Legumes

d 102(K) 30. What is the staple grain of Canada, the United States, and Europe?

  1. Oats
  2. Rice
  3. Corn
  4. Wheat

b 102(K) 31. What is the predominant grain product in much of South and Central America?

  1. Rice
  2. Corn
  3. Millet
  4. Wheat

a 102(K) 32. What are cellulose, pectin, hemicellulose, and lignin?

  1. Fibers
  2. Starches
  3. Sugar alcohols
  4. Artificial sweeteners

d 102(K) 33. Which of the following is described as a nonstarch polysaccharide?

  1. Lactose
  2. Phytates
  3. Glycogen
  4. Cellulose

d 102(A) 34. Which of the following is an example of the difference between the chemical bonds in starch and those in cellulose?

  1. Starch bonds are single
  2. Starch bonds are fatty acids
  3. Cellulose bonds release energy
  4. Cellulose bonds are not hydrolyzed by human enzymes

a 102(K) 35. Which of the following is a feature of the pectins?

  1. They are used to thicken jelly
  2. They are classified as insoluble fibers
  3. They are resistant to intestinal bacterial fermentation
  4. They are found in the small seeds of fruits such as strawberries

c 102(K) 36. Which of the following statements is not characteristic of fibers?

  1. Most fibers consist of linked monosaccharides
  2. An example of a nonstarch polysaccharide fiber is pectin
  3. An example of a nonpolysaccharide fiber is hemicellulose
  4. Most soluble fibers are easily digested by the bacteria in the colon

c 102(K) 37. A “functional fiber” is one that

  1. occurs naturally in the intact plant.
  2. performs a specific function in the plant.
  3. is extracted from plants and has a beneficial health effect.
  4. is a polysaccharide that is stored primarily in muscle and liver of animals.

a 102(K) 38. Which of the following plays a major role in the breakdown of certain types of dietary fiber in the large intestine?

  1. Bacteria
  2. Pancreas
  3. Colonic cells
  4. Small intestinal villus cell

d 102(K) 39. Which of the following is a characteristic of dietary fibers?

  1. They cause diverticulosis
  2. They raise blood cholesterol levels
  3. They are usually found in high-fat foods
  4. They are classified according to solubility in water

c 102(A) 40. With few exceptions, all of the following characteristics are shared by water-soluble and water-insoluble fibers except

  1. they are found only in plant-derived foods.
  2. they consist primarily of nonstarch polysaccharides.
  3. neither has an appreciable effect on glucose absorption.
  4. their consumption enhances stool formation and elimination.

d 102(K) 41. What type of fiber is readily digested by colonic bacteria?

  1. Lignans
  2. Phytates
  3. Cellulose
  4. Fermentable

d 102(A) 42. Which of the following is a common source of resistant starch?

  1. Apple
  2. Orange
  3. Baked potato
  4. Unripe bananas

c 102(A) 43. Which of the following is a feature of resistant starch?

  1. It is common in overripe bananas
  2. Excessive intake promotes constipation
  3. It resists hydrolysis by digestive enzymes
  4. It cannot be fermented by large intestinal bacteria

a 102(K) 44. Characteristics of dietary phytic acid include all of the following except

  1. it is classified as a fiber.
  2. it is found in the husks of grains.
  3. it is synonymous with the term phytate.
  4. it inhibits absorption of several minerals.

b 102(K) 45. Which of the following describes the compound phytic acid?

  1. Product of starch digestion
  2. Nonnutrient component of plant seeds
  3. Found in gastric juice and helps to lower pH of chyme
  4. Found in high concentrations in the blood of people with diabetes

c 102;120(K) 46. Which of the following fibers is water insoluble?

  1. Gums
  2. Pectins
  3. Cellulose
  4. Mucilages

c 102;120(K) 47. Water-soluble fibers include all of the following except

  1. gums.
  2. pectins.
  3. lignins.
  4. mucilages.

d 102;121(A) 48. Which of the following contains the least amount of fiber?

  1. Apples
  2. Prunes
  3. Potatoes
  4. White rice

Questions for Section 4.2 Digestion and Absorption of Carbohydrates

a 103(K) 49. Enzymatic digestion of starches takes place in the small intestine and also in the

  1. mouth.
  2. colon.
  3. stomach.
  4. pancreas.

c 103(K) 50. All of the following are properties of fiber except

  1. it delays gastric emptying.
  2. it provides a feeling of satiety.
  3. it elevates blood glucose levels.
  4. it contributes about 1.5-2.5 kcalories per gram.

d 103(K) 51. What is the name of the short chains of glucose units that result from starch breakdown?

  1. Sucrose
  2. Lignins
  3. Pectins

d Dextrins

c 103(K) 52. Which of the following enzymes does not act on simple sugars?

  1. Lactase
  2. Sucrase
  3. Amylase
  4. Maltase

c 103(K) 53. What is the primary absorption site for digestible carbohydrates?

  1. Mouth
  2. Stomach
  3. Small intestine
  4. Large intestine

d 103-104(A) 54. After you and your friend Dolores share pretzels and animal crackers, she announces that she wants to start digesting her food by watching television. You inform Dolores that

  1. she really should spend 10-15 minutes on the treadmill to help her body break down the carbohydrates faster.
  2. her body will not begin to break down the carbohydrates for a couple more hours until they reach the small intestine.
  3. the hydrochloric acid in her stomach breaks down all the carbohydrates and she need not rest while this occurs.
  4. carbohydrate digestion begins in the mouth through the action of amylase, so she has already begun digesting the snacks.

d 103-104(K) 55. The enzymes that digest dietary sugars are produced by the

  1. mouth.
  2. stomach.
  3. pancreas.
  4. small intestine.

a 105(K) 56. What is the primary organ that converts fructose to glucose following absorption?

  1. Liver
  2. Pancreas
  3. Skeletal muscle
  4. Small intestines

b 105(K) 57. What is the first organ to receive carbohydrates absorbed from the intestine?

  1. Heart
  2. Liver
  3. Pancreas
  4. Skeletal muscle

d 105-106(K) 58. All of the following are symptoms of lactose intolerance except

  1. bloating.
  2. diarrhea.
  3. cramping.
  4. constipation.

a 106(K) 59. What percentage of the world’s adult population shows good tolerance to lactose ingestion?

  1. 30
  2. 55
  3. 80
  4. 95

b 106(A) 60. Which of the following would least likely be connected with the development of lactose intolerance?

  1. Medicines
  2. Milk allergy
  3. Prolonged diarrhea
  4. Inherited lactase deficiency

c 106(A) 61. A person diagnosed with milk allergy would be sensitive to the milk’s

  1. fat.
  2. lactose.
  3. protein.
  4. minerals.

b 106(A) 62. For most of the world’s population, what is the effect of aging on the activity of lactase?

  1. Declines by 30-40%
  2. Declines by 90-95%
  3. Increases by 30-40%
  4. Increases by 90-95%

a 106(K) 63. Which of the following is a characteristic of yogurt?

  1. Bacteria in yogurt produce lactase
  2. Yogurt is poorly tolerated in lactose-intolerant people
  3. There are only trace amounts of lactose present in yogurt
  4. The lactose content of yogurt is about one-half that of milk

a 106(K) 64. What is the chief reason that many people with lactose intolerance can consume foods containing some lactose without suffering any symptoms?

  1. A change occurs in the GI bacteria
  2. Intestinal lactase enzyme can re-appear in adequate amounts
  3. The lactose-containing foods must be eaten only as part of a full meal
  4. The lactose-containing foods must first be heated to 100° C to degrade lactose

b 106(A) 65. Which of the following is a feature of kefir?

  1. Its low pH inactivates lactose
  2. It contains live bacterial organisms
  3. It contains half as much lactose as milk
  4. It is a recommended substitute for people with milk allergy

d 106(K) 66. Among the following foods, which contains the lowest amount of lactose per serving?

  1. Yogurt
  2. Ice cream
  3. Doughnut
  4. American cheese

b 106(K) 67. Why are hard cheeses lower in lactose than soft cheeses?

  1. The lactose molecules bond to casein
  2. More lactose is removed during manufacturing
  3. The bacterial culture is selected to degrade more of the lactose
  4. The lactose molecules condense to form a poorly digested oligosaccharide

c 106(K) 68. Which of the following is a feature of lactose?

  1. Its digestion begins in the mouth
  2. It is found in various amounts in most animal foods
  3. It is used as filler in one out of five prescription drugs
  4. It causes frequent allergies in certain population groups

d 106(A) 69. Which of the following provides the least amount of lactose per serving?

  1. Low-fat milk
  2. Cottage cheese
  3. Chocolate milk
  4. Cheddar cheese

d 106(K) 70. Among the following population groups, which shows the highest prevalence of lactose intolerance?

  1. Hispanics
  2. Caucasians
  3. Scandinavians
  4. African Americans

c 106;103(A) 71. Which of the following ingredients listed on food labels would be acceptable to the person who is highly intolerant to lactose in the diet?

  1. Whey
  2. Casein
  3. Dextrins
  4. Milk solids

Questions for Section 4.3 Glucose in the Body

b 107(A) 72. If you were to exercise continuously, about how long would glycogen stores last?

  1. A few minutes
  2. A few hours
  3. About 12 hours
  4. About 1 day

c 107(K) 73. What fraction of the body’s total glycogen content is found in the liver?

  1. 1/10
  2. 1/4
  3. 1/3
  4. 1/2

b 107(K) 74. In what organ is most of the body’s glycogen found?

  1. Liver
  2. Muscles
  3. Kidneys
  4. Intestines

b 107(K) 75. At rest, the typical body stores of glycogen can provide energy for a maximum of about

  1. 4 hours.
  2. 1 day.
  3. 3 days.
  4. 1 week.

b 108(K) 76. What is the minimum daily amount of dietary carbohydrate necessary to spare body protein from excessive breakdown?

  1. 10-25 g
  2. 50-100 g
  3. 150-175 g
  4. 200-400 g

b 108(K) 77. What is the primary function of insulin?

  1. Raises blood glucose levels
  2. Lowers blood glucose levels
  3. Stimulates glycogen breakdown
  4. Stimulates intestinal carbohydrate absorption

d 108(A) 78. The process by which an amino acid is used to make glucose is termed

  1. glycation.
  2. ketogenesis.
  3. protein sparing.
  4. gluconeogenesis.

d 108(A) 79. Gluconeogenesis is a term that describes the synthesis of

  1. amino acids from glucose.
  2. lactose from a source of sucrose.
  3. fat from excess carbohydrate intake.
  4. glucose from a noncarbohydrate substance.

c 108(A) 80. Which of the following values falls within the normal range (mg/dL) of blood glucose?

  1. 40
  2. 55
  3. 75
  4. 140

c 108-110(A) 81. You have just finished a light breakfast of toast and jelly. Which of the following series of events proceeds upon digestion/absorption of the meal until it is near time for lunch?

  1. Blood glucose rises, the pancreas releases glucagon, the pancreas releases insulin, blood glucose rises, glucose is taken up by the cells through the action of insulin, glucagon stimulates liver cells to break down glycogen and release glucose into the blood
  2. Blood glucose rises, glucose is taken up by the cells through the action of insulin, glucagon stimulates liver cells to break down glycogen and release glucose into the blood, the pancreas releases glucagon, the pancreas releases insulin, blood glucose rises
  3. Blood glucose rises, the pancreas releases insulin, glucose is taken up by the cells through the action of insulin, blood glucose levels decline, the pancreas releases glucagon, glucagon stimulates liver cells to break down glycogen and release glucose into the blood, blood glucose rises
  4. Blood glucose levels decline, the pancreas releases insulin, blood glucose levels rise, glucagon stimulates liver cells to break down glycogen and release glucose into the blood, the pancreas releases glucagon, blood glucose rises

d 109(A) 82. What is the first organ to respond to an increase in blood glucose concentration?

  1. Brain
  2. Liver
  3. Muscle
  4. Pancreas

b 109(K) 83. What is a normal range (mg/dL) for blood glucose?

  1. 60-80
  2. 70-110
  3. 120-140
  4. 140-180

b 109(A) 84. When blood glucose concentration falls, what pancreatic hormone is secreted to stimulate release of stored glucose?

  1. Insulin
  2. Glucagon
  3. Epinephrine
  4. Cholecystokinin

b 109(A) 85. Which of the following is a typical response of the body to changes in blood glucose?

  1. Blood glucose levels that fall too low signal the release of insulin
  2. Blood glucose levels that fall too low signal the release of glucagon
  3. Blood glucose levels that rise too high signal the release of glycogen
  4. Blood glucose levels that rise too high signal the release of epinephrine

a 108-110(A) 86. Which of the following blood glucose concentrations (mg/dL) is most consistent with hypoglycemia?

  1. 40
  2. 80
  3. 115
  4. 150

d 109(A) 87. When you are under physical stress, what hormone is released quickly to stimulate an increase in blood glucose concentration?

  1. Insulin
  2. Secretin
  3. Glucogen
  4. Epinephrine

a 109(A) 88. In the time between meals, what organ releases glucose to help maintain normal blood glucose levels?

  1. Liver
  2. Pancreas
  3. Intestines
  4. Skeletal muscle

b 110(A) 89. A person with a fasting blood glucose concentration of 129 mg/dL would be classified as

  1. normal.
  2. diabetic.
  3. prediabetic.
  4. hypoglycemic.

a 110(K) 90. What glycemic index category would include yogurt and cheese?

  1. Low
  2. Moderate
  3. High
  4. Very high

d 110(A) 91. A person eating lots of white bread, white rice, and ready-to-eat cereals would have a diet with a glycemic index that is

  1. very low.
  2. low.
  3. moderate.
  4. high.

d 110(K) 92. Which of the following is a feature of the condition hypoglycemia?

  1. It is treated with insulin injections
  2. It is aggravated by high-fiber foods
  3. It is classified as a pre-diabetic condition
  4. It occurs rarely in otherwise healthy people

d 110(K) 93. Which of the following is a feature of diabetes?

  1. Type 1 diabetes is more common than type 2
  2. Type 1 diabetes is also known as insulin overload diabetes
  3. Diabetes is caused by an excessive intake of dietary carbohydrates
  4. Dietary management should focus on total carbohydrate intake rather than the type of carbohydrate consumed

d 110(K) 94. What term describes how quickly glucose is absorbed from a food after ingestion, how high blood glucose rises as a result, and how quickly blood glucose returns to normal?

  1. Diabetes index
  2. Glycemic index
  3. Diabetes potential
  4. Glycemic response

b 110(A) 95. A person with a fasting blood glucose level of 101 mg/dL would be classified as

  1. normal.
  2. prediabetic.
  3. a type 1 diabetic.
  4. a type 2 diabetic.

d 110(K) 96. Which of the following are characteristic of the conditions diabetes and hypoglycemia?

  1. Neither has a genetic susceptibility
  2. Neither is associated with increases in body weight
  3. Both respond to insulin administration and chromium supplements
  4. Both benefit from the inclusion of fiber-rich foods and consumption of smaller, more frequent meals

b 110(A) 97. Your nephew Jimmy, who is 10 years old, has been giving himself a shot in the thigh every day for the past year. He confides in you that he craves candy but was told by his parents that he can only eat sugar-free snacks. From which of the following conditions does Jimmy most likely suffer?

  1. Hyperactivity
  2. Type 1 diabetes
  3. Type 2 diabetes
  4. Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus

a 110(K) 98. Which of the following is a feature of diabetes?

  1. Many people with type 2 diabetes are obese
  2. Most people who have diabetes require insulin therapy
  3. Diabetes results chiefly from excess dietary intake of simple carbohydrates
  4. People with type 1 diabetes fail to respond to the insulin made by the pancreas

a 110(K) 99. Which of the following statements describes the glycemic index of foods?

  1. A way of ranking foods according to their potential to increase blood glucose
  2. The newest, most practical means for planning diets for people with diabetes
  3. A well-utilized, highly valued mechanism to control the intake of simple sugars
  4. A measure of the percentage of digestible carbohydrates in relation to total energy content of the food

c 111(A) 100. In a person with type 2 diabetes, which of the following foods would ordinarily promote the least favorable glycemic effect?

  1. Chocolate
  2. Ice cream
  3. Baked potato
  4. Baked beans

Questions for Section 4.4 Health Effects and Recommended Intakes of Sugars

b 112(A) 101. What is the name of the sweetener consisting of a mixture of glucose and fructose formed by chemical hydrolysis of sucrose?

  1. Molasses
  2. Invert sugar
  3. Turbinado sugar
  4. High-fructose syrup

d 112(K) 102. What is the predominant sweetener used in formulating beverages?

  1. Glucose
  2. Sucrose
  3. Invert sugar
  4. High-fructose corn syrup

c 112(K) 103. Honey contains

  1. both fructose and lactose.
  2. both glucose and galactose.
  3. more kcalories per teaspoon than sucrose.
  4. abundant amounts of calcium and iron.

a 112(K) 104. Which of the following sweeteners contains a significant amount of calcium?

  1. Molasses
  2. Brown sugar
  3. Maple sugar
  4. Invert sugar

a 113(K) 105. All of the following are features of honey except

  1. it is the preferred sweetener in infant foods.
  2. it is known to relieve coughing at night in children.
  3. a teaspoon provides more energy than a teaspoon of table sugar.
  4. it is known to decrease the severity of mouth ulcers induced by chemotherapy in cancer patients.

c 114(A) 106. Which of the following is best known to result from regular ingestion of sugar?

  1. Ulcers
  2. Diabetes
  3. Dental caries
  4. Cardiovascular disease

d 114(K) 107. Which of the following recommendations will help to reduce the incidence of dental caries when the diet contains sugary foods?

  1. Eat sugary foods separate from meals
  2. Eat dried fruits in place of whole fruits
  3. Sip a sugary soft drink slowly rather than quickly
  4. Eat a sugary snack all at one time rather than in parts throughout the day

c 114(A) 108. Which of the following describes a relationship between carbohydrate intake and dental health?

  1. Starches cannot promote the formation of dental caries
  2. After exposure to a single snack, mouth bacteria produce acid for 50-60 minutes
  3. Eating a sugary dessert at the beginning of a meal, rather than the end, is less likely to promote dental caries
  4. Sugar consumed in a soft drink promotes more bacterial fermentation than the same amount of sugar in a doughnut

c 114(K) 109. Approximately how many pounds of added sugars are consumed by the average U.S. resident each year?

  1. 25
  2. 65
  3. 105
  4. 190

d 115(A) 110. You have just arrived at a lunch buffet and are faced with many choices. Although each of the following portions provides about 200 kcalories, which is most nutrient dense?

  1. 16-ounce soda
  2. 6 slices of avocado
  3. 8-ounce sports drink
  4. 3 slices of whole-wheat bread

c 115(A) 111. Approximately how many kcalories are provided by two teaspoons of sugar?

  1. 10
  2. 20
  3. 30
  4. 40

d 115(A) 112. Based on height, weight, age, and physical activity level, you have calculated that you should be consuming about 2200 kcalories per day. Which of the following portions is closest to the discretionary kcalories allowed in the USDA Food Guide for added sugars in your diet?

  1. 15 tsp honey
  2. 20 tsp hard candy
  3. 10 tsp corn starch
  4. 10 tsp brown sugar

d 115(K) 113. According to the current dietary recommendations, what is the maximum percentage of total energy intake that added sugar should contribute in the diet?

  1. 2
  2. 10
  3. 15
  4. 25

Questions for Section 4.5 Alternative Sweeteners

c 115-116(K) 114. All of the following are features of artificial sweeteners except

  1. there is a lack of scientific consensus on their benefits for weight reduction.
  2. there is an Acceptable Daily Intake which provides a wide margin of safety.
  3. they provide about one-half the energy of carbohydrates plus small amounts of vitamins and minerals.
  4. if used, the American Dietetic Association advises moderate intake and only in a well-balanced, nutritious diet.

a 115-116(K) 115. What is stevia?

  1. An herb-derived sweetener
  2. An FDA-approved sugar alcohol
  3. A poorly digested polysaccharide
  4. An inhibitor of lactase enzyme activity

a 115-116(K) 116. Which of the following artificial sweeteners has a composition similar to aspartame?

  1. Neotame
  2. Sucralose
  3. Saccharin
  4. Acesulfame-K

d 116(K) 117. All of the following components are part of the chemical structure of aspartame except

  1. aspartic acid.
  2. methyl group.
  3. phenylalanine.
  4. methanol group.

b 116(K) 118. Among the following approved sweeteners, which has the highest relative sweetness?

  1. Tagatose
  2. Sucralose
  3. Aspartame
  4. Acesulfame-K

b 116(K) 119. Among the alternative sweeteners available in the United States, which has a structure that integrates chlorine atoms?

  1. Tagatose
  2. Sucralose
  3. Aspartame
  4. Acesulfame-K

a 116(K) 120. Which of the following is a characteristic of the sugar replacers (sugar alcohols)?

  1. They have a low glycemic index
  2. They promote constipation in children
  3. They demonstrate fewer GI side effects than the alternative sweeteners
  4. They are less effective than alternative sweeteners in inhibiting dental caries

d 116-117(K) 121. Which of the following is not a classification for the food additives mannitol, sorbitol, and xylitol?

  1. Carbohydrates
  2. Sugar alcohols
  3. Sugar replacers
  4. Artificial sweeteners

b 116-117(K) 122. Which of the following is a characteristic of the sugar alcohols?

  1. They are not sweet
  2. They provide kcalories
  3. They are not metabolized
  4. They promote dental caries

c 116-117(K) 123. When consumed in excess, which of the following is most likely to lead to diarrhea?

  1. Fiber
  2. Sucrose
  3. Sorbitol
  4. Wheat starch

d 117(K) 124. Which of the following is a general feature of the sugar alcohols (sugar replacers)?

  1. They provide less than 1 kcalorie per gram
  2. They elicit a high glycemic index
  3. They are rapidly absorbed from the intestines
  4. They cannot be metabolized by cariogenic bacteria

b 117(K) 125. What is the approximate energy content (kcal/g) of most sugar alcohols?

  1. 0
  2. 2
  3. 4
  4. 7

Questions for Section 4.6 Health Effects and Recommended Intakes of Starch and Fibers

a 118(K) 126. Which of the following is known to correlate most strongly with reduced risk of deaths from heart disease?

  1. High fiber intake
  2. High sugar intake
  3. High levulose intake
  4. High corn syrup intake

d 118-119(K) 127. All of the following foods are rich sources of soluble fiber except

  1. barley.
  2. legumes.
  3. oat bran.
  4. wheat bran.

d 118-119(K) 128. Which of the following is not a feature of high-fiber foods?

  1. Effective in weight control
  2. Provide feeling of fullness
  3. Usually lower in fat and simple sugars
  4. Provide more energy per gram than processed foods

b 118-119(A) 129. In general, modifying a diet that by substituting complex carbohydrates for pure sugars results in a diet that is higher in

  1. fat.
  2. fiber.
  3. energy.
  4. refined foods.

b 118-120(A) 130. All of the following are characteristic of a high-fiber diet except

  1. there is a risk of not meeting energy needs.
  2. it may reduce risk of lung cancer but increase risk of breast cancer.
  3. it initially may cause bouts of gastrointestinal discomfort and diarrhea.
  4. it may precipitate mineral deficiency if the body’s mineral intake status is marginal.

c 120(K) 131. According to most dietary guidelines, what percentage of the day’s total energy intake should be furnished by carbohydrates?

  1. 10-15
  2. 30-35
  3. 45-65
  4. 90-95

c 120(K) 132. What is the RDA for carbohydrate?

  1. 10 g
  2. 45 g
  3. 130 g
  4. 250 g

d 120-121(A) 133. Allen is 20 years old and asks for help in selecting a fiber-rich diet. After he ranks the kinds of foods he likes to eat, you provide him with a list of food items consisting of

  1. 1 cup of cooked barley and 1 cup of garbanzo beans, 1 kiwi, and 1 slice whole-wheat bread.
  2. 3 slices of whole-wheat bread, 2 cups of black beans, 1 ounce 100% bran cereal, and 1 cup apple juice.
  3. 16 ounces of low-fat cheese, 3 medium apples, 2 cups blackberries, ½ cup spinach, and ½ cup of broccoli.
  4. 1 cup baked beans, 1 medium apple, 1 banana, 1½ cups oatmeal, 1 ounce 100% bran cereal, and ½ cup chopped raw carrots.

c 121(K) 134. According to the American Dietetic Association, what is the Daily Value for fiber when expressed in g per 1000 kcal?

  1. 5
  2. 8
  3. 11.5
  4. 16.5

c 121(K) 135. About how many grams of carbohydrate are contained in one ounce of foods in the grain group?

  1. 5
  2. 10
  3. 15
  4. 20

d 121(A) 136. What is the DRI for fiber for a person consuming 2500 kcalories?

  1. 5 g
  2. 15 g
  3. 25 g
  4. 35 g

c 121(K) 137. Which of the following provides the most fiber?

  1. 1 orange
  2. ½ cup oatmeal
  3. 1 cup split peas
  4. 1 slice whole-wheat bread

d 122(K) 138. All of the following provide about 15 g of carbohydrate per serving except

  1. ½ cup corn.
  2. ½ cup peas.
  3. ½ cup potatoes.
  4. ½ cup green beans.

b 123(K) 139. Which of the following is a feature of dairy products and carbohydrate?

  1. A cup of milk yields about 6 g of carbohydrate
  2. Most cheeses provide little, if any, carbohydrate
  3. Cottage cheese provides about 12 g of carbohydrate
  4. A serving of yogurt yields about 3 g of carbohydrate

Section 4.7 Carbs, kCalories, and Controversies

c 126-127(A) 140. Which of the following is a typical response in people following a low-carbohydrate diet?

  1. They often complain of diet-induced diarrhea
  2. They experience frequent bouts of hyperglycemia
  3. Total weight loss after one year is the same as in people on conventional diets
  4. They lose about the same amount of weight as people on conventional diets for the first 6 months

c 127-128(A) 141. Which of the following is not associated with the regular consumption of sugary beverages?

  1. It is easy to overconsume kcal
  2. It correlates with being overweight
  3. The fructose stimulates excessive release of insulin, which suppresses appetite
  4. Substitution of one can of regular soda with water every day could result in a weight loss of one pound per month

Chapter 6 – Protein: Amino Acids

An. Page(s)/difficulty K = knowledge-level, A = application level

Multiple Choice

Questions for Section 6.1 The Chemist’s View of Proteins

d 173(K) 01. What element is found in proteins but not in carbohydrates and fats?

  1. Carbon
  2. Oxygen
  3. Calcium
  4. Nitrogen

c 173(K) 02. In comparison to the composition of carbohydrates and fats, which element found in proteins makes them unique?

  1. Carbon
  2. Oxygen
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Hydrogen

a 173(K) 03. Which of the following is the primary factor that differentiates one amino acid from another?

  1. The side group
  2. The central carbon atom
  3. The number of oxygen atoms
  4. The number of nitrogen atoms

b 173(K) 04. Which of the following elements is found in certain amino acids?

  1. Iron
  2. Sulfur
  3. Calcium
  4. Potassium

c 173-175(K) 05. Terms used to classify amino acids in the diet include all of the following except

  1. essential.
  2. nonessential.
  3. partially essential.
  4. conditionally essential.

d 174(K) 06. How many different kinds of amino acids make up proteins?

  1. 8
  2. 10
  3. 14
  4. 20

c 174(K) 07. All of the following are contained in an amino acid except

  1. an acid group.
  2. an amino group.
  3. an aldehyde group.
  4. a central carbon atom.

c 174(A) 08. Approximately how many different amino acids are used in the synthesis of body proteins?

  1. 5
  2. 10
  3. 20
  4. 35

b 174(K) 09. What is the simplest amino acid?

  1. Valine
  2. Glycine
  3. Alanine
  4. Methionine

a 174(K) 10. Which of the following is not an essential amino acid in human nutrition?

  1. Proline
  2. Threonine
  3. Methionine
  4. Tryptophan

b 174-175(A) 11. Any of the following can be used by the body for the synthesis of a nonessential amino acid except

  1. a fragment of fat.
  2. an essential mineral.
  3. an essential amino acid.
  4. a fragment of carbohydrate.

b 175(A) 12. What amino acid is classified as conditionally essential when dietary intake of phenylalanine is insufficient or the body cannot normally metabolize phenylalanine?

  1. Cysteine
  2. Tyrosine
  3. Glutamine
  4. Isoleucine

b 175(K) 13. Which of the following is a feature of an essential amino acid?

  1. It is not necessary in the diet
  2. It must be supplied by the diet
  3. It can be made from fat in the body
  4. It can be made from glucose in the body

d 175(A) 14. What type of reaction is required to bind two molecules of glycine together and release a molecule of water?

  1. Hydrolysis
  2. Deamination
  3. Denaturation
  4. Condensation

a 175(K) 15. When two amino acids are chemically joined together, the resulting structure is called a

  1. dipeptide.
  2. diglyceride.
  3. polypeptide.
  4. disaccharide.

b 175(K) 16. What is the composition of a tripeptide?

  1. One amino acid with three carbons
  2. Three amino acids bonded together
  3. One amino acid with three acid groups
  4. Three small protein chains bonded together

c 175(K) 17. What is meant by the amino acid sequence of a protein?

  1. Number of side chains in the protein
  2. Folding arrangement of the peptide chain
  3. Order of amino acids in the peptide chain
  4. Order of only the essential amino acids in the protein

b 175(K) 18. A dispensable amino acid is one that

  1. is not needed by the body.
  2. can be synthesized by the body.
  3. can be used to synthesize an indispensable amino acid.
  4. cannot be synthesized by the body because of a genetic defect.

b 175(A) 19. In comparison to the well-defined structure of starch, which of the following is the most important factor that allows for the synthesis of thousands of different proteins?

  1. Number of cell ribosomes
  2. Number of different amino acids
  3. Availability of amino acids containing sulfur
  4. Availability of amino acids containing hydroxyl groups

d 175(A) 20. Which of the following would be classified as a polypeptide?

  1. 1 amino acid
  2. 3 amino acids bonded together
  3. 9 fatty acids bonded together
  4. 20 amino acids bonded together

b 175(A) 21. The following amino acids are linked together: glycine-lysine-valine. This compound is a

  1. dipeptide.
  2. tripeptide.
  3. polypeptide.
  4. oligopeptide.

b 176(K) 22. The weak electrical attractions within polypeptide chains account for the protein’s

  1. primary structure.
  2. secondary structure.
  3. tertiary structure.
  4. quaternary structure.

c 176(A) 23. Which of the following is a feature of hemoglobin?

  1. It has no tertiary structure
  2. It holds the mineral calcium
  3. It is constructed of 4 polypeptide chains
  4. It has no primary or secondary structure

c 176(A) 24. An example of a protein with quaternary polypeptide structures is

  1. insulin.
  2. tryptophan.
  3. hemoglobin.
  4. disulfide bridges.

c 176(K) 25. What is the process by which heat or acidity disrupts the normal shape of a protein chain?

  1. Digestion
  2. Condensation
  3. Denaturation
  4. Hydrogenation

c 176(K) 26. The application of heat or acid to a protein that causes its shape to change is known as

  1. stiffening.
  2. condensation.
  3. denaturation.
  4. destabilization.

b 176(A) 27. What process results in the hardening of an egg when it is exposed to heat?

  1. Solidification
  2. Denaturation
  3. Condensation
  4. Protein interaction

Questions for Section 6.2 Digestion and Absorption of Proteins

b 177(A) 28. After a hamburger is eaten, in what organ is the hydrolysis of its proteins initiated?

  1. Mouth
  2. Stomach
  3. Small intestine
  4. Large intestine

c 177(K) 29. What is the name of the inactive form of the protein-splitting enzyme in the stomach?

  1. Peptidase
  2. Propepsin
  3. Pepsinogen
  4. Propeptidase

a 177(A) 30. In what organ is pepsin active?

  1. Stomach
  2. Pancreas
  3. Small intestine
  4. Large intestine

a 177(A) 31. What digestive enzyme would be most affected in people who are unable to produce hydrochloric acid?

  1. Pepsin
  2. Transaminase
  3. Pancreatic protease
  4. Intestinal peptidase

a 177(K) 32. Protein-hydrolyzing enzymes are commonly known as

  1. proteases.
  2. hydrolyzers.
  3. prodigestins.
  4. denaturases.

a 177(K) 33. The function of a protease is to

  1. hydrolyze proteins.
  2. synthesize proteins.
  3. hydrolyze ribosomes.
  4. synthesize ribosomes.

d 177(K) 34. What is the chief function of pepsin?

  1. Emulsifies dietary proteins
  2. Activates hydrochloric acid
  3. Activates pancreatic proteases
  4. Cleaves proteins into smaller polypeptides

a 177(A) 35. What percentage of dietary protein is hydrolyzed in the mouth?

  1. 0
  2. 5-10
  3. 15-20
  4. 25-30

a 177(A) 36. Pepsinogen is also known as a(n)

  1. zymogen.
  2. oligopeptide.
  3. postenzyme.
  4. cofactor for pancreatic enzymes.

d 177-178(A) 37. After digestion of proteins, what products are absorbed into the circulation?

  1. Free amino acids only
  2. Free amino acids and oligopeptides
  3. Free amino acids and dipeptides only
  4. Free amino acids, and a few dipeptides and tripeptides

a 178(A) 38. What is the usual fate of orally ingested enzyme supplements?

  1. Digested by gastrointestinal proteases
  2. Rapidly degraded by salivary secretions
  3. Mostly absorbed in original form from stomach
  4. Completely absorbed in original form from jejunum

b 178(K) 39. What is an oligopeptide?

  1. A sulfur-containing amino acid
  2. A string of about 4-9 amino acids
  3. A carbohydrate-containing protein
  4. A protein containing only essential amino acids

d 178(K) 40. Which of the following statements is not characteristic of enzymes?

  1. They are all catalysts
  2. They have a protein structure
  3. They can be destroyed by heat
  4. They are involved in synthesis reactions only

b 178(A) 41. Which of the following describes the structure of pepsin?

  1. Lipid
  2. Protein
  3. Nucleic acid
  4. Carbohydrate

b 178(A) 42. All of the following are fates of amino acids in the intestinal tract except

  1. some may be used for energy by the intestinal cells.
  2. some may be used for synthesis of gastric protease.
  3. some may be used for synthesis of proteins by the intestinal cells.
  4. they may be transported across the intestinal cell membrane to the capillaries.

a 178(A) 43. Of the following sources of amino acids, which would be best absorbed in normal, healthy people?

  1. Whole proteins
  2. Predigested proteins
  3. Proteins from raw foods
  4. Mixture of free amino acids

b 178(A) 44. Your cousin Wanda was born with a genetic defect affecting her digestion, namely, a lack of intestinal villus tripeptidases and dipeptidases. Which of the following digestive processes would not take place?

  1. Protein → oligopeptides
  2. Peptides → amino acids
  3. Amino acids → peptides
  4. Polypeptides → tripeptides

Questions for Section 6.3 Proteins in the Body

c 178(K) 45. Approximately how many different proteins are present in the human body?

  1. 500
  2. 10,000
  3. 30,000
  4. 1 million

a 178-180(K) 46. Which of the following describes a process in protein synthesis?

  1. The code to make a protein is carried by a strand of messenger RNA
  2. The final step in completing the protein is carried out in the mitochondria
  3. The function of transfer RNA is to assist in absorption of amino acids into the cell
  4. The DNA binds to ribosomes and directs uptake of specific amino acids to form the peptide chain

b 178-180(K) 47. Which of the following is a characteristic of protein synthesis?

  1. Mitochondria are bound to DNA to initiate peptide bond synthesis
  2. Messenger RNA is constructed from a DNA template to carry instructions
  3. Hormones carry messages from RNA to DNA to direct peptide bond synthesis
  4. RNA transfers up to 6 amino acids simultaneously to the mitochondria for peptide elongation

c 180(K) 48. The process whereby messenger RNA is made from a DNA template is

  1. expression.
  2. sequencing.
  3. transcription.
  4. ribosome assembly.

c 180(K) 49. What is a ribosome?

  1. A template for protein synthesis
  2. A hard knot of subcutaneous protein mass
  3. A structure upon which proteins are assembled
  4. An antibody synthesized by specialized immune cells

c 180(K) 50. All of the following are features of protein in nutrition except

  1. the study of the body’s proteins in known as proteomics.
  2. protein synthesis requires messenger RNA and transfer RNA.
  3. most of the body’s thousands of proteins have been studied and characterized.
  4. the synthesis of a protein by following the genetic code is known as gene expression.

a 180(A) 51. Your college dormitory roommate, James, told you that he’s had anemia for quite some time and that it’s from having abnormally-shaped hemoglobin. What type of anemia does James have?

  1. Sickle-cell anemia
  2. Macrocytic anemia
  3. Iron-deficiency anemia
  4. Low oxygen-carrying anemia

d 180(K) 52. A common genetic variation which causes a change in the amino acid sequence in the structure of hemoglobin leads to the disease

  1. diabetes.
  2. marasmus.
  3. kwashiorkor.
  4. sickle-cell anemia.

c 180(K) 53. Which of the following is characteristic of sickle-cell anemia?

  1. The disorder can be serious but not fatal
  2. The disorder leads to depression of energy expenditure
  3. The abnormal structure of the hemoglobin alters the shape of the red blood cell
  4. The hemoglobin amino acid sequence is abnormal in all four of the polypeptide chains

b 181(K) 54. What is the structure of an enzyme?

  1. Lipid
  2. Protein
  3. Nucleic acid
  4. Carbohydrate

c 181(K) 55. What protein is intimately involved in the formation of scar tissue in wound healing?

  1. Albumin
  2. Thrombin
  3. Collagen
  4. Hydroxyproline

c 181(A) 56. What type of protein would the body make in order to heal a wound?

  1. Ferritin
  2. Albumin
  3. Collagen
  4. Hemoglobin

b 181(K) 57. Which of the following is a characteristic of hormones?

  1. Inactivate bacteria
  2. Act as messenger molecules
  3. Coordinate visual response
  4. Act as buffers in the bloodstream

a 181;182(K) 58. Which of the following do(es) not function as a transport protein?

  1. Collagen
  2. Transferrin
  3. Hemoglobin
  4. Lipoproteins

a 182(A) 59. What is the relationship between body proteins and water?

  1. Proteins attract water
  2. Water attracts proteins
  3. Water degrades proteins
  4. Proteins form polymers of water

c 182(A) 60. All of the following describe associations between protein nutrition and the body’s water balance except

  1. inadequate protein intake may lead to edema.
  2. insufficient protein synthesis by the liver may lead to edema.
  3. excessive protein losses by the kidney may lead to dehydration.
  4. excessive protein intake burdens the kidneys to excrete unused nitrogen.

a 182(A) 61. The conditions known as acidosis and alkalosis refer to a disruption of the body’s

  1. pH balance.
  2. protein balance.
  3. nitrogen balance.
  4. endogenous metabolism.

a 182(K) 62. Tissue swelling that results from water accumulating between cells is known as

  1. edema.
  2. acidosis.
  3. alkalosis.
  4. extravascularization.

b 182(A) 63. Proteins, because they attract hydrogen ions, can act as

  1. acids.
  2. buffers.
  3. enzymes.
  4. antibodies.

b 182(K) 64. What function does a buffer perform?

  1. Helps emulsify fats
  2. Helps maintain a constant pH
  3. Facilitates chemical reactions
  4. Helps protect against plaque buildup

a 182(K) 65. Which of the following processes is regulated primarily by the buffering action of proteins?

  1. pH balance
  2. Fluid balance
  3. Blood clotting
  4. Synthesis of visual pigments

d 182-183(A) 66. How do sodium and potassium travel into and out of cells?

  1. Antidiuretic hormone transports potassium and prodiuretic hormone carries sodium
  2. There are specific transport proteins in the blood that deliver the minerals to the cell cytoplasm
  3. The balance of insulin and glucagon determines the movement of these minerals into and out of cells
  4. There are transport proteins within the cell membrane that pick up and release the minerals across the membrane

c 183(K) 67. What is opsin?

  1. An antigen
  2. An antibody
  3. A light-sensitive protein
  4. A blood transport protein

d 183((K) 68. Which of the following proteins inactivates foreign bacteria and viruses?

  1. Enzymes
  2. Collagen
  3. Hormones
  4. Antibodies

b 183(A) 69. The body’s usual response to detection of antigens is to synthesize

  1. mutations.
  2. antibodies.
  3. erythrocytes.
  4. whey protein.

c 183(K) 70. Which of the following describes the structure of an antibody?

  1. Tripeptide
  2. Small nucleic acid
  3. Huge protein molecule
  4. Large peptide molecule

b 183(K) 71. Which of the following is involved in the clotting of blood?

  1. Opsin
  2. Fibrin
  3. Collagen
  4. Transferrin

d 184(A) 72. How many grams of nitrogen are contained in a 2500-kcalorie diet that provides 15% of the energy as protein?

  1. 2.5
  2. 5
  3. 10
  4. 15

b 184(A) 73. Which of the following may be used to determine protein utilization?

  1. Calorimetry
  2. Nitrogen balance
  3. Amino acid pool
  4. Supplementary value

c 184(A) 74. When nitrogen taken into the body exceeds nitrogen losses, we say the person is in

  1. a healthy state.
  2. nitrogen equilibrium.
  3. positive nitrogen balance.
  4. negative nitrogen balance.

b 184(K) 75. Which of the following defines protein turnover?

  1. The sum of protein in food and the body
  2. The sum of protein synthesis and degradation
  3. The amount of protein absorbed from the diet
  4. The amount of protein used to synthesize glucose

d 184(K) 76. What is the amino acid pool?

  1. The total amino acid content derived from a 24-hour dietary intake
  2. A measure of the circulating essential amino acid levels available for protein synthesis
  3. The total amount of free amino acids in the circulation destined for deamination and excretion
  4. A mix of essential and nonessential amino acids derived from protein breakdown and dietary protein intake

a 184(A) 77. Which of the following describes the state of nitrogen balance for a normal, healthy 35-year-old person who weighs 60 kg and consumes a diet that provides 75 g of protein and adequate energy?

  1. Equilibrium
  2. Positive balance
  3. Negative balance
  4. Endogenous balance

d 184(K) 78. The body’s amino acid pool consists of

  1. essential amino acids only.
  2. endogenous amino acids only.
  3. nonessential amino acids only.
  4. both essential and nonessential amino acids.

d 184(A) 79. What is the nitrogen balance of a person who consumed a 3500-kcalorie diet containing 10% protein and excreted a total of 12 grams of nitrogen?

  1. 0 g
  2. -3 g
  3. -1 g
  4. +2 g

c 184(A) 80. Which of the following would describe the state of nitrogen balance of a person who ingested 16 g of food nitrogen and lost 19 g of nitrogen?

  1. Equilibrium
  2. Positive balance
  3. Negative balance
  4. Exogenous balance

c 184(A) 81. What is the usual state of nitrogen balance for healthy infants, children, and pregnant women?

  1. Equilibrium
  2. Metabolic
  3. Positive
  4. Negative

d 184(K) 82. What amino acid is used to synthesize the neurotransmitter serotonin and the vitamin niacin?

  1. Glycine
  2. Tyrosine
  3. Methionine
  4. Tryptophan

c 184(K) 83. What is meant by protein turnover?

  1. Nitrogen equilibrium
  2. The antibody-antigen complex
  3. The synthesis and degradation of body proteins
  4. The secondary structure of proteins that initiates folding

b 184-186(A) 84. What is the fate of excess dietary protein?

  1. After absorption, the liver will store the extra amino acids
  2. After absorption, the extra amino acids will be rapidly degraded
  3. Digestion will be decreased by 30 to 60%, resulting in less absorption
  4. After absorption, extra proteins will be synthesized and stored for use when protein intake returns to normal

b 185(A) 85. When amino acids are deaminated, the immediate products are ammonia and often a

  1. uric acid.
  2. keto acid.
  3. folic acid.
  4. gluco acid.

c 185(A) 86. Protein sparing in the body is best achieved when a person ingests

  1. proteins of plant origin only.
  2. proteins of animal origin only.
  3. adequate levels of carbohydrate and fat.
  4. mixed protein sources on alternate days.

d 185(A) 87. A person who is starving is losing

  1. fat only.
  2. glycogen only.
  3. glycogen and fat only.
  4. glycogen, protein, and fat.

a 185(A) 88. Which of the following illustrates a deamination reaction?

  1. Removal of the amino group from an amino acid
  2. Separation of an amino acid from a peptide chain
  3. Addition of an amino group to form a new amino acid
  4. Addition of an amino acid to form a larger peptide chain

b 185(A) 89. Which of the following is the most likely side effect of a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet?

  1. Diarrhea
  2. Increased thirst
  3. Nitrogen toxicity
  4. Increased water retention in the body

d 185;186(A) 90. Which of the following compounds does not contain nitrogen?

  1. Urea
  2. Enzymes
  3. Ammonia
  4. Cholesterol

c 186(K) 91. Which of the following is a consequence of excess protein intake?

  1. Decreased excretion of calcium
  2. Decreased size of the liver and kidneys
  3. Increased production and excretion of urea
  4. Increased protein storage by the liver and kidneys

a 186(A) 92. Which of the following are precursors of urea synthesis?

  1. All amino acids
  2. Animal proteins only
  3. Essential amino acids only
  4. Nonessential amino acids only

c 186(K) 93. What is the process whereby an amino group is combined with a keto acid to form an amino acid?

  1. Deamination
  2. Ureagenesis
  3. Transamination
  4. Ammoniogenesis

a 186(K) 94. In the metabolism of amino acids for energy, what is the fate of the amino group?

  1. Excreted as urea
  2. Burned for energy
  3. Stored in the liver
  4. Converted to glucose

a 186(K) 95. The body’s need for water increases on a diet high in

  1. protein.
  2. carbohydrate.
  3. saturated fat.
  4. unsaturated fat.

a 186(A) 96. What is the most likely reason for a person to have abnormally high blood ammonia levels?

  1. Liver dysfunction
  2. Kidney dysfunction
  3. Protein intake twice the RDA
  4. Protein intake one-tenth the RDA

b 186(A) 97. Jason is 35 years old and was recently diagnosed with 2 failing kidneys. He was advised to decrease the amount protein he consumes. If Jason cheats by eating an 8-ounce steak for dinner tonight, shortly thereafter there would most likely be an increase in the urea levels of his

  1. urine.
  2. blood.
  3. stools.
  4. sweat.

b 186(A) 98. What is the most likely reason for having an abnormally high blood urea level?

  1. Liver dysfunction
  2. Kidney dysfunction
  3. Protein intake twice the RDA
  4. Protein intake one-tenth the RDA

b 186(A) 99. A prominent result of transamination reactions is the synthesis of

  1. essential amino acids.
  2. nonessential amino acids.
  3. neurotransmitters and hormones.
  4. both nonessential and essential amino acids.

a 187(A) 100. Your father, who has a high blood ammonia concentration, most likely has a poorly functioning

  1. liver.
  2. spleen.
  3. kidney.
  4. intestinal tract.

c 187(A) 101. Your mother, who has a high blood urea content, most likely has a poorly functioning

  1. liver.
  2. spleen.
  3. kidney.
  4. intestinal tract.

Questions for Section 6.4 Protein in Foods

a 187(A) 102. A reference protein equals or exceeds the essential amino acid requirements of all of the following population groups except

  1. infants.
  2. preschool aged children.
  3. adolescents.
  4. elderly.

c 187(K) 103. What is the percent digestibility of most plant proteins?

  1. 25-45
  2. 50-65
  3. 70-90
  4. 95-99

d 187(K) 104. What is the percent digestibility of most animal proteins?

  1. 50-65
  2. 70-75
  3. 80-85
  4. 90-99

a 187(A) 105. Which of the following food proteins has the best assortment of essential amino acids for the human body?

  1. Egg
  2. Rice
  3. Corn
  4. Gelatin

a 187(A) 106. Which of the following is related to the quality of a food protein?

  1. Essential amino acid balance
  2. Nonessential amino acid balance
  3. Total amino acids per gram of food
  4. Quantity of nonessential amino acids that can be converted to glucose

b 187(K) 107. What primary factor governs the quality of a food protein?

  1. Fat content
  2. Essential amino acid content
  3. Complex carbohydrate content
  4. Nonessential amino acid content

a 187(K) 108. In the study of protein nutrition, what term describes the amount of amino acids absorbed from a given amount of protein consumed?

  1. Digestibility
  2. Completeness
  3. Complementary Index
  4. Comparative Equivalence

c 187(A) 109. Which of the following is not considered to be a source of high-quality protein in human nutrition?

  1. Soy
  2. Egg
  3. Corn
  4. Fish

c 187(K) 110. Which of the following animal-derived proteins is classified as a poor-quality protein?

  1. Fish
  2. Cheese
  3. Gelatin
  4. Turkey

c 187(K) 111. What is a “limiting” amino acid in a protein?

  1. A nonessential amino acid present in high amounts, which inhibits protein synthesis
  2. An amino acid of the wrong structure to be utilized for protein synthesis efficiently
  3. An essential amino acid present in insufficient quantity for body protein synthesis to take place
  4. An amino acid that limits the absorption of other essential amino acids by competing with them for transport sites within the GI tract

b 187(A) 112. If the diet is lacking an essential amino acid, what will be the course of action?

  1. Body cells will synthesize it
  2. Protein synthesis will be limited
  3. Health will not be affected as long as other nutrients are adequate
  4. Proteins will be made but they will lack that particular amino acid

b 187;174(A) 113. Which of the following could not be a limiting amino acid in the diet?

  1. Lysine
  2. Glycine
  3. Threonine
  4. Tryptophan

d 188(A) 114. Alberta is a 20 year old who has been a vegetarian for 3 years. She comes to you for advice after reading some material online by the Meat Promoters of America organization. One of their statements is: “. . . vegetarians are at risk for protein deficiency because they cannot consume all of the essential amino acids necessary for healthy individuals.” How should Alberta be advised?

  1. She should consume dairy and egg products at every meal to protect herself against protein deficiency
  2. She should avoid the “limiting” amino acids because they are limiting her ability to maintain proper protein status
  3. Because the statement is basically true, she should consider eating small quantities of meat every day in order to avoid protein deficiency
  4. Although many foods don’t provide all the essential amino acids individually, she could consume complementary proteins throughout the day, which would provide all the essential amino acids she needs

d 188(K) 115. Which of the following is characteristic of protein nutrition in vegetarians?

  1. Vegetarians in general must practice complementary protein nutrition
  2. Most vegetarians should consume gelatin to ensure adequate tryptophan intake
  3. Healthy vegetarians typically consume protein sources of very high digestibility
  4. Most vegetarians eating a variety of foods need not balance essential amino acid intake at each meal

b 188(K) 116. What is the Daily Value for protein based on a 2000-kcalorie intake?

  1. 25 g
  2. 50 g
  3. 75 g
  4. 100 g

b 188(K) 117. What is complementary protein nutrition?

  1. A dietary program that involves eating vegetable and animal proteins on alternating days
  2. A strategy that combines plant proteins in the same day to improve the balance of essential amino acids
  3. A technique developed specifically for the elderly that involves optimizing the ratio of protein intake to energy intake
  4. A body process that involves synthesis of crucial proteins from amino acids made available by the breakdown of storage proteins

a 188(A) 118. In general, the protein quality in grains would be most improved by the addition of a plant protein rich in

  1. lysine.
  2. tryptophan.
  3. phenylalanine.
  4. glutamic acid.

c 188(A) 119. In general, the protein quality of legumes would be most improved by the addition of a plant protein rich in

  1. lysine.
  2. tyrosine.
  3. methionine.
  4. glutamic acid.

c 188(A) 120. Relative to animal proteins, which of the following amino acids is present in lesser amounts in proteins of legumes?

  1. Alanine
  2. Isoleucine
  3. Tryptophan
  4. Glutamic acid

Questions for Section 6.5 Health Effects and Recommended Intakes of Protein

c 188(A) 121. Approximately what percentage of children worldwide have protein-energy malnutrition?

  1. 1
  2. 5
  3. 25
  4. 50

c 188(A) 122. Acute protein-energy malnutrition in children is characterized by

  1. hyperactivity.
  2. shrunken liver.
  3. low weight for height.
  4. short height for weight.

c 188(A) 123. Chronic protein-energy malnutrition in children is characterized by

  1. hyperactivity.
  2. shrunken liver.
  3. short height for age.
  4. low weight for height.

c 188-189(K) 124. All of the following are characteristics of protein-energy malnutrition except

  1. it is found in hospitalized adults.
  2. it is found in elderly living alone.
  3. it almost always exhibits overt signs.
  4. it is common in people with anorexia nervosa.

b 189(K) 125. Marasmus occurs most commonly in children of ages

  1. 1-5 months.
  2. 6-18 months.
  3. 1½-3 years.
  4. 4-10 years.

c 189(A) 126. You are reading a case study from a researcher at World University. The researcher has traveled to the largest city in India and is reporting on an illness present in a 15-month-old boy. The researcher described the child as extremely thin and bony, with wrinkled skin and enlarged fatty liver. For the past year, this child has subsisted almost entirely on diluted cereal drink. Your first thought is that all of these observations are characteristic of marasmus except for the

  1. wrinkled skin.
  2. food intake pattern.
  3. enlarged fatty liver.
  4. extremely thin, bony appearance.

d 189;190(A) 127. Which of the following would you not expect to see in a person with kwashiorkor?

  1. Edema
  2. Dysentery
  3. Increased infection rate
  4. Increased physical activity

c 189-190(A) 128. Which of the following is associated with the presence of tissue edema in kwashiorkor?

  1. Inadequate intake of water
  2. Excessive intake of dietary protein
  3. Low concentration of blood protein
  4. High concentration of blood protein

b 189-190(K) 129. Which of the following is not a characteristic of marasmus?

  1. Results in a low resistance to disease
  2. Affects brain development only minimally
  3. Occurs most commonly in children aged 6 to 18 months
  4. Results in little or no fat under the skin to insulate against cold

a 190(K) 130. Which of the following is a feature of malnutrition?

  1. Dysentery is common and leads to diarrhea and nutrient depletion
  2. Intestinal villi grow slightly larger to provide additional absorptive surfaces for nutrients
  3. Digestive enzyme production increases in order to extract as much of the ingested nutrients as possible
  4. Infections are uncommon due to insufficient availability of nutrients in the body to support growth of bacteria and viruses

d 190(A) 131. At the end of your class presentation on “Protein-Energy Malnutrition,” a student asks you to clarify how the rapid onset of protein-energy malnutrition occurs in kwashiorkor. How should you respond?

  1. It is the result of an inborn error of metabolism
  2. It is usually synchronized with the drought season in each respective country
  3. It is typically seen in patients who are 2-5 years old due to the sudden change in diet arising from their dislike for breast milk as they grow older
  4. It is typically seen in patients who are 1-3 years old due to the sudden change in diet arising from their being weaned from breast milk after the birth of a sibling

b 190(A) 132. What term describes the illness a child develops when the next child is born?

  1. Marasmus
  2. Kwashiorkor
  3. Psychomalnutrition
  4. Postbirth malnutrition

c 190(A) 133. Which of the following conditions is associated with edema?

  1. Excessive use of certain drugs, which causes high excretion of water and amino acids
  2. Above-normal concentration of blood proteins, which causes fluid to leak from the blood vessels
  3. Diminished concentration of blood proteins and hormones, which causes fluid to leak from the blood vessels
  4. Excessive protein in the diet leading to increased retention of fluid, especially in the extravascular spaces

c 190(K) 134. Kwashiorkor typically develops in children of ages

  1. birth-6 months.
  2. 6-12 months.
  3. 18-24 months.
  4. 2½-5 years.

a 190(K) 135. In kwashiorkor, the loss of hair color is indirectly related to

  1. inadequate intake of tyrosine.
  2. elevated levels of blood homocysteine.
  3. excessive exposure to the sun’s UV rays.
  4. being nursed by a poorly-nourished mother.

a 190(A) 136. In kwashiorkor, what mineral is often present in an unbound form that promotes bacterial growth?

  1. Iron
  2. Iodine
  3. Arsenic
  4. Calcium

d 190(A) 137. What is the most likely explanation for the fatty liver that develops from protein deficiency?

  1. Increased uptake of circulating fats
  2. Increased absorption of dietary fats
  3. Inability of adipose tissue to remove circulating fats
  4. Inability of the liver to synthesize lipoproteins for fat export

d 190(K) 138. Which of the following is a feature of kwashiorkor?

  1. It makes the child appear grossly dehydrated
  2. It usually occurs prior to the onset of marasmus
  3. It is usually found in communities where marasmus is present
  4. It is typically precipitated in the undernourished child who has an infection

d 191(A) 139. What is the usual initial therapy for the treatment of kwashiorkor?

  1. Fat replacement
  2. Energy replacement
  3. Protein replacement
  4. Fluid balance restoration

c 191(K) 140. Excessive amounts of homocysteine in the blood are thought to increase the risk for

  1. cancer.
  2. diabetes.
  3. heart disease.
  4. protein-energy malnutrition.

a 191(K) 141. Supplements of which of the following amino acids are reported to lower blood pressure and reduce homocysteine levels?

  1. Arginine
  2. Cysteine
  3. Tryptophan
  4. Phenylalanine

d 191(A) 142. All of the following are known to raise homocysteine levels except

  1. alcohol intake.
  2. cigarette smoking.
  3. coffee consumption.
  4. excess arginine intake.

a 191(A) 143. What type of diet is advised to rehabilitate a severely malnourished child?

  1. Low protein
  2. High protein
  3. Liberal quantities of lactose-free powdered milk until growth rate is restored
  4. High energy until normal body mass index is achieved, then moderate energy thereafter

c 191(K) 144. Which of the following is a feature of homocysteine?

  1. It is found only in animal foods
  2. It is a risk factor for osteoporosis
  3. It is increased in the blood of coffee drinkers
  4. It is increased in the blood of vitamin C-deficient people

d 191(K) 145. Which of the following describes a relationship between protein/amino acids and heart disease?

  1. Substituting soy protein for animal protein raises blood cholesterol levels
  2. High blood levels of the amino acid arginine are a risk factor for atherosclerosis
  3. High levels of homocysteine in food promote elevation of blood low-density lipoproteins
  4. Elevated blood homocysteine levels are associated with smoking cigarettes and drinking alcohol

c 192(A) 146. What ratio (mg:g) of calcium to protein intake is believed to promote optimal bone health?

  1. 2:1
  2. 9:1
  3. 20:1
  4. 45:1

b 192(K) 147. Which of the following describes an association between protein intake and kidney function?

  1. Low-protein diets increase the risk for kidney stone formation
  2. Restricting protein intake may slow the progression of kidney disease
  3. High protein intakes over the long term represent a risk factor for kidney disease
  4. Liberal protein intakes result in high urea production, which increases the long-term efficiency of the kidneys

d 192(A) 148. In relation to the range of protein intake as a percentage of energy intake, what would be the highest safe level of protein intake for a 60-kg adult ingesting 2500 kcalories?

  1. 48 g
  2. 96 g
  3. 120 g
  4. 219 g

b 192(K) 149. Which of the following describes a relationship between protein intake and calcium metabolism?

  1. Calcium excretion falls with increasing intake of animal-derived proteins
  2. Calcium excretion rises with increasing intake of animal-derived proteins
  3. Calcium absorption declines with higher intakes of plant-derived proteins
  4. Calcium absorption increases with higher intakes of animal-derived proteins

c 192(A) 150. What is the RDA for protein for a 48-kg woman?

  1. 24 g
  2. 34 g
  3. 38 g
  4. 40 g

b 192(K) 151. What is the ratio of calcium to protein intake (mg to g) for most U.S. women?

  1. 3:1
  2. 9:1
  3. 15:1
  4. 21:1

b 192-193(K) 152. What would be the primary principle of wise diet planning as related to protein nutrition?

  1. Variety
  2. Moderation
  3. Nutrient density
  4. kCalorie control

a 192-193(A) 153. Which of the following is a feature of the protein RDA?

  1. The recommendations are generous
  2. It is highest proportionately for adult males
  3. It is established at 8 grams per kilogram of ideal body weight
  4. An assumption is made that dietary protein is from animal sources only

c 192-193(A) 154. If protein needs are expressed per kilogram of body weight, which of the following describes the requirements of infants?

  1. Less than adults
  2. Similar to adults
  3. Greater than adults
  4. Less than adolescents

b 193(A) 155. What is the range of daily protein intake, in g/kg, recommended for athletes?

  1. 0.8-1.1
  2. 1.2-1.7
  3. 1.8-2.4
  4. 2.5-3.0

c 193(A) 156. Your friend Jill has just joined her community college soccer team. How much protein should she consume each day?

  1. 0.8 g/kg
  2. up to 1.0 g/kg
  3. 1.2-1.7 g/kg
  4. 2.5-2.9 g/kg

c 193(A) 157. Which of the following is an assumption made in the formulation of the RDA for protein?

  1. Dietary protein is of high quality only
  2. Dietary protein is of animal origin only
  3. Dietary carbohydrate and fat intakes are adequate
  4. Dietary protein should represent 12% of total energy

c 193(K) 158. All of the following assumptions are made by the committee in setting the RDA for protein except

  1. adequate kcalories will be consumed.
  2. protein eaten will be of mixed quality.
  3. the fat content of the diet will be high.
  4. other nutrients in the diet will be adequate.

b 193(K) 159. Which of the following is a feature of protein nutrition?

  1. Protein in body tissues is preserved fairly well on low-energy diets
  2. The protein RDA assumes that dietary protein is from a mix of low- and high-quality sources
  3. Many people in the United States and Canada consume somewhat less protein than is needed
  4. Athletes in training benefit from increasing their protein energy intake to 45-50% of total daily energy

c 193(A) 160. What is the percentage of total energy derived from protein in a diet containing 50 grams of protein and 2000 kcalories?

  1. 2.5
  2. 5
  3. 10
  4. 20

b 193(A) 161. If a person consumes 65 grams of protein and a total of 2700 kcalories per day, approximately what percentage of energy would be derived from protein?

  1. 7
  2. 10
  3. 14
  4. 20

d 194(A) 162. Approximately how many grams of protein are found in one quart of milk?

  1. 5
  2. 12
  3. 25
  4. 32

c 195(K) 163. Which of the following is a feature of whey protein?

  1. It is a high-priced protein supplement
  2. It is chemically extracted from gelatin
  3. It is a waste product of cheese production
  4. Regular consumption by athletes enhances performance

d 195(A) 164. Jim, a college baseball player, tells you that he has started to take glutamine supplements. How would you advise him?

  1. As long as he keeps the dose under 10 g/day, the benefits outweigh the costs
  2. Since he plays baseball, he should consider taking alanine supplements instead
  3. Since he plays baseball, he should consider taking tryptophan supplements instead
  4. Since single amino acids do not occur naturally in foods, they offer no benefit to the body and may even be harmful

d 195(K) 165. Which of the following is a feature of the branched-chain amino acids?

  1. They are all dispensable amino acids
  2. Large doses may suppress ammonia production
  3. They represent the major energy source for muscle tissue
  4. They may be helpful in treatment of advanced liver failure

c 195(K) 166. What amino acid has been linked to the development of the rare blood disorder eosinophilia myalgia in people who took it as a supplement?

  1. Glycine
  2. Arginine
  3. Tryptophan
  4. Phenylalanine

a 195(K) 167. What amino acid supplement has been advertised in the popular media for treating herpes infections?

  1. Lysine
  2. Arginine
  3. Tryptophan
  4. Phenylalanine

Questions for Section 6.6 Nutritional Genomics

d 198(K) 168. The disease phenylketonuria is related chiefly to abnormal metabolism of

  1. lactose.
  2. omega-3 fats.
  3. soy polysaccharides.
  4. a certain amino acid.

a 198(K) 169. The study of how food interacts with genes is known as

  1. nutritional genomics.
  2. chromosomals.
  3. nucleotide expression.
  4. mutagenic expression.

a 199(K) 170. The study of how environmental factors influence the expression of genes without altering the DNA is known as

  1. epigenetics.
  2. nucleotide sequencing.
  3. microarray technology.
  4. epidemiological consequences.

d 200(K) 171. Approximately what percentage of a person’s genes are similar to that of an unrelated person?

  1. 20
  2. 50
  3. 75
  4. 99.9

b 201(A) 172. What dispensable amino acid becomes essential in people with PKU?

  1. Glycine
  2. Tyrosine
  3. Arginine
  4. Glutamine

a 201(K) 173. The incidence of PKU in infants in the United States is one in every

  1. 15,000 births.
  2. 100,000 births.
  3. 500,000 births.
  4. 1,000,000 births.

c 201(K) 174. All of the following are characteristics of phenylketonuria except

  1. it is a single-gene disorder.
  2. it leads to a dietary requirement for tyrosine.
  3. it is treated by total elimination of dietary phenylalanine.
  4. it results in mental retardation unless treatment is started in infancy.

d 201(A) 175. Dietary restriction of phenylalanine combined with adequate tyrosine is the usual treatment for people born with the disorder

  1. DNA.
  2. ALC.
  3. NLM.
  4. PKU.

Chapter 8 – Energy Balance and Body Composition

An. Page(s)/difficulty K = knowledge-level, A = application level

Multiple Choice

Questions for Section 8.1 Energy Balance

d 241-242(A) 01. What would be the approximate weight gain of a person who consumes an excess of 500 kcalories daily for one month?

  1. 0.5 lb
  2. 2 lbs
  3. 3 lbs
  4. 4 lbs

b 241-242(A) 02. When an adult gains an extra 10 pounds of body weight, approximately how much of this weight is fat?

  1. 5 lbs
  2. 7.5 lbs
  3. 9.5 lbs
  4. 10 lbs

d 242(A) 03. Approximately what percentage of weight loss during starvation is lean body mass?

  1. 0
  2. 20
  3. 35
  4. 50

c 242(A) 04. In an adult who gains 20 pounds of excess body weight, about how much of this is lean tissue?

  1. 0 lbs
  2. 2 lbs
  3. 5 lbs
  4. 10 lbs

Questions for Section 8.2 Energy In: The kCalories Foods Provide

c 242(K) 05. What instrument is used to measure the energy content of foods?

  1. Energy chamber
  2. Exothermic meter
  3. Bomb calorimeter
  4. Combustion chamber

d 242(A) 06. Which of the following describes an association between energy measurement and foods?

  1. Indirect calorimetry cannot be used to determine the energy value of alcohol
  2. A bomb calorimeter measures the amount of oxygen released when a food is oxidized
  3. Direct calorimetry and indirect calorimetry of the same food rarely give similar values
  4. The physiological fuel value of a food is almost always lower than the energy value of that food as determined by bomb calorimetry

b 242(A) 07. Which of the following represents an indirect measure of the amount of energy released from food?

  1. The increase in heat given off when the food is burned
  2. Quantity of oxygen consumed when the food is burned
  3. Quantity of carbon dioxide consumed when the food is burned
  4. The increase in heat retained by the food when it is slowly brought to 100° C

a 243(A) 08. A person who exhibits a physiological need to eat is most likely experiencing the sensation of

  1. hunger.
  2. appetite.
  3. stress eating.
  4. neuropeptide Y suppression.

d 243(K) 09. Which of the following identifies a specific food intake behavior?

  1. A physiological need to eat is called satiety
  2. A pleasurable desire for food is called hunger
  3. An intense feeling of hunger is called insatiable nervosa
  4. A desire to eat without feelings of hunger is called appetite

c 243(A) 10. After consuming a very large meal, the desire to eat a slice of chocolate cake is an example of behavior known as

  1. satiety.
  2. hunger.
  3. appetite.
  4. pigging out.

a 243(A) 11. A person who eats in response to arousal is most likely experiencing

  1. stress eating.
  2. sensory influences.
  3. physiological influences.
  4. postabsorptive influences.

a 243(K) 12. The feeling of satisfaction resulting from consumption of a meal is termed

  1. satiety.
  2. appetite.
  3. postabsorptive hunger.
  4. resting postabsorptive increment.

b 243(K) 13. External cues that may cause an obese person to respond to food typically include all of the following except

  1. TV commercials.
  2. outdoor exercises.
  3. availability of food.
  4. “time of day” patterns.

d 243(K) 14. Which of the following hormones is most responsible for signaling satiety as well as reducing food intake during a meal?

  1. Gastrin
  2. Adipokines
  3. Neuropeptide Y
  4. Cholecystokinin

c 243(K) 15. About how long does it take for a meal to be completely eliminated from the stomach?

  1. 30 minutes
  2. 1.5 hours
  3. 4 hours
  4. 8 hours

d 243-244(K) 16. Which of the following is not a characteristic of satiety or satiation?

  1. Satiety suppresses hunger
  2. Satiation signals the cessation of eating
  3. Satiation develops as food enters the GI tract
  4. Satiety but not hunger may be overridden by stress

d 243-245(A) 17. An emotionally insecure person might overeat for all of the following reasons except

  1. to relieve boredom.
  2. to ward off depression.
  3. in preference to socializing.
  4. to satisfy energy needs only.

a 244(A) 18. Among the following, which has the greatest power to suppress hunger?

  1. Apples
  2. Peanuts
  3. Doughnuts
  4. Potato chips

c 244(K) 19. What is the most satiating macronutrient?

  1. Fat
  2. Water
  3. Protein
  4. Carbohydrate

a 244-245(A) 20. The day after Thanksgiving, you and your sisters are a little hungry and want to eat leftovers before going shopping. Which of the following foods would most readily satisfy the feeling of hunger?

  1. Turkey
  2. Pecan pie
  3. Mashed potatoes
  4. Noodle casserole

c 244-245(A) 21. All of the following are characteristics related to the fat content in food except

  1. high-fat foods are energy dense.
  2. fat has a weak effect on satiation.
  3. eating high-fat foods typically leads to underconsumption of kcalories.
  4. in the small intestine fat triggers release of a hormone that inhibits food intake.

d 245(K) 22. The brain chemical neuropeptide Y is known to specifically enhance the craving for

  1. fat.
  2. salt.
  3. protein.
  4. carbohydrate.

b 245(K) 23. All of the following are characteristics of neuropeptide Y except

  1. it stimulates appetite.
  2. it reduces fat storage.
  3. it is synthesized in the brain.
  4. it increases carbohydrate cravings.

Questions for Section 8.3 Energy Out: The kCalories the Body Expends

c 245(K) 24. Which of the following describes the process of thermogenesis?

  1. Burning of fat
  2. Synthesis of fat
  3. Generation of heat
  4. Generation of water

d 246(A) 25. Why might the measurement of the resting metabolic rate in a person be somewhat higher than her basal metabolic rate?

  1. She was mildly malnourished
  2. She slept through the procedure
  3. She was wearing shorts and a tank top
  4. She ate right before the measurement was done

c 246(A) 26. What fraction of the day’s energy expenditure of the average person is represented by the basal metabolism?

  1. About 1/10
  2. Up to 1/2
  3. About 2/3
  4. Over 9/10

b 246(A) 27. What is the approximate daily basal metabolism of a 110-pound woman?

  1. 500 kcal
  2. 1000 kcal
  3. 1500 kcal
  4. 2000 kcal

d 246(K) 28. Which of the following factors has the most influence on the body’s metabolic rate?

  1. Age
  2. Gender
  3. Amount of fat tissue
  4. Amount of lean body tissue

a 246(K) 29. Which of the following may be used to calculate the amount of energy expended by the body?

  1. Oxygen consumed
  2. Total air exchanged
  3. Intestinal gas expelled
  4. Carbon dioxide consumed

c 246(K) 30. What method is used to measure the amount of heat given off by the body?

  1. Bomb calorimetry
  2. Basal calorimetry
  3. Direct calorimetry
  4. Indirect calorimetry

b 246(A) 31. Which of the following are all used to compute a woman’s BMR?

  1. Body fat, height, and age
  2. Body weight, height, and age
  3. Physical activity level, body weight, and height
  4. Energy intake, physical activity level, and body weight

a 246;247(K) 32. Which of the following does not decrease the metabolic rate?

  1. Fever
  2. Fasting
  3. Sleeping
  4. Malnutrition

b 246;248(A) 33. You are planning a diet for a hospitalized patient who cannot participate in physical activity because both of his legs are broken and he will be bedridden for 6 weeks. Which of the following would best assess the patient’s energy expenditure?

  1. Body composition
  2. Basal metabolic rate
  3. Physical activity level
  4. Adaptive thermogenesis

c 247(K) 34. Which of the following is a feature of the basal metabolic rate (BMR)?

  1. Fever decreases the BMR
  2. Fasting increases the BMR
  3. Pregnancy increases the BMR
  4. Females have a higher BMR than males on a body weight basis

b 248(A) 36. Which of the following diets promotes the greatest loss of body heat?

  1. High fat, low protein
  2. High protein, low fat
  3. High carbohydrate, low fat
  4. Balanced protein, fat, and carbohydrate

d 248(A) 36. What term describes the increase in energy expenditure that occurs in a person who fractures a leg?

  1. Febrile hyperthermia
  2. Physical hyperthermia
  3. Specific thermogenesis
  4. Adaptive thermogenesis

b 248(A) 37. What is the approximate value for the thermic effect of a 2500-kcalorie diet?

  1. 25 kcal
  2. 250 kcal
  3. 400 kcal
  4. 500 kcal

b 248(K) 38. What is the primary reason for not including the value for adaptive thermogenesis when calculating energy requirements?

  1. It is too costly to measure
  2. It is too variable to measure
  3. The value is too low to be meaningful
  4. The value is highly influenced by the dietary ratio of protein, fat, and carbohydrate

c 248-249(K) 39. Among the following groups, which has the highest metabolic rate?

  1. Females
  2. Older individuals
  3. Younger individuals
  4. People with smaller surface areas

d 248-249(A) 40. If a dancer and a typist are the same height and have the exact same body build, the dancer will be heavier because she has

  1. more body fat.
  2. stronger bones.
  3. stronger muscles.
  4. more muscle mass.

c 248-249(K) 41. What is the main explanation for the difference in basal metabolic rates between males and females of the same body weight?

  1. Males are usually taller than females
  2. Females have lower levels of thyroid hormones
  3. Males have a higher percentage of lean body mass
  4. Females have a lower percentage of adipose tissue

b 249(K) 42. For every decade beyond the age of 30, what is the percentage decrease in the need for total kcalories?

  1. 2
  2. 5
  3. 10
  4. 15

c 249(A) 43. If a normal 30-year-old woman has a daily energy expenditure of 2200 kcalories, what would be her expected output when she reaches 60 years of age?

  1. 1210 kcal
  2. 1450 kcal
  3. 1885 kcal
  4. 2275 kcal

a 249-250(K) 44. To estimate the energy requirements of individuals, which of the following is used in the equations?

  1. Weight
  2. Fat intake
  3. Surface area
  4. Fatfold thickness

c 250(K) 45. For almost all people who use the equations for calculating Estimated Energy Requirements, the actual values fall within a range of plus or minus

  1. 50-100 kcal.
  2. 125-200 kcal.
  3. 320-400 kcal.
  4. 500-750 kcal.

Questions for Section 8.4 Body Weight, Body Composition, and Health

b 249(K) 46. The weight of the body less the fat content is known as the

  1. cherubic index.
  2. lean body mass.
  3. body mass index.
  4. ideal body weight.

b 251(A) 47. Since year 2000, what has been the trend of the BMI of Miss America contest winners?

  1. It has remained steady at 19.0
  2. It has increased into the normal range
  3. It has continued a decline first recognized in 1975
  4. It has decreased slightly into the borderline-low range

a 252(A) 48. An index of a person’s weight in relation to height is called

  1. body mass index.
  2. height to weight index.
  3. ideal body weight index.
  4. desirable body weight index.

c 252(A) 49. A person is at high risk for signs of illness and diminished work capacity when the BMI first drops below

  1. 12
  2. 14
  3. 17
  4. 18.5

d 252(A) 50. Jim is a 45 year old who eats fast food at least 3 times a week and smokes a pack of cigarettes each day. He just had a physical examination and was told that his body mass index is 24. In what category would Jim’s BMI be classified?

  1. Obesity
  2. Overweight
  3. Underweight
  4. Healthy weight

c 252-253(K) 51. Which of the following is a significant factor associated with interpretation of body composition values?

  1. The values include fat and protein but not water
  2. It is rare that sedentary, normal-weight people are overfat
  3. It is possible that muscular people may be classified as overweight
  4. Body composition can be accurately assessed by measuring body weight

a 252;254(K) 52. Which of the following is a feature of the body mass index?

  1. It correlates with disease risks
  2. It decreases by 1 unit for every 10 years of life
  3. It provides an estimate of the fat level of the body
  4. It is defined as the person’s height divided by the square of the weight

b 254(K) 53. What is the range of body fat content for normal-weight men?

  1. 5-10%
  2. 13-21%
  3. 22-30%
  4. 32-40%

a 252;253(A) 54. What is the approximate body mass index of a woman who is 5’5” and 125 lbs?

  1. 21
  2. 26
  3. 31
  4. 36

c 252-253(A) 55. Jacki, who has a sedentary lifestyle, is 5’5” tall and weighs 165 lbs. She calculated her BMI to be 27.5. She recognizes that her body weight is unhealthy and vows to improve her eating habits and begin a regular program of physical fitness. Her goal is to achieve a BMI of 22. Approximately how much weight (lbs) must she lose?

  1. 21
  2. 27
  3. 33
  4. 41

c 252(K) 56. All of the following are features of using weight measures for the assessment of disease risk except

  1. they are easy to administer.
  2. they are inexpensive to obtain.
  3. they reveal the location of excess body fat.
  4. they are predictive of risk of degenerative diseases.

b 253-254(K) 57. Why does use of the BMI overestimate the prevalence of obesity in the African-American population?

  1. Blacks have a higher average height than whites
  2. Blacks have denser bones and higher body protein concentrations than whites
  3. Blacks tend to have different proportions of brown and white adipose tissue than whites
  4. The fat pads in blacks are situated primarily around the hips, whereas in whites the pads are primarily abdominal

b 254(A) 58. What is the weight classification assigned both to young women with 30% body fat and young men with 20% body fat?

  1. Obese
  2. Normal
  3. Mildly overweight
  4. Slightly underweight

b 254(K) 59. What is the range of body fat content for normal-weight women?

  1. 9-17%
  2. 23-31%
  3. 33-37%
  4. 38-44%

c 254(A) 60. Which of the following is not a known side effect of having insufficient fat stores?

  1. Infertility
  2. Clinical depression
  3. Elevated body temperature
  4. Abnormal hunger regulation

d 254(A) 61. Jenny is 34 years old and has a BMI of 28. Her body type could be described as “pear-like.” John is 55 years old with a BMI of 28, and a body type that is “apple-like.” Why is John more likely than Jenny to be at risk for degenerative diseases?

  1. He is male
  2. He is older
  3. He weighs more
  4. He has central obesity

c 254(K) 62. Which of the following is a characteristic of excess intra-abdominal fat?

  1. It is more common in women than men
  2. It is not as good an indicator of degenerative diseases as the BMI
  3. It is found in smokers more often than nonsmokers even though smokers have a lower BMI
  4. It is associated with increased risk for heart disease and diabetes in men but not in women

b 254(K) 63. Which of the following defines central obesity?

  1. Accumulation of fat during the mid-years of life
  2. Storage of excess fat around the trunk of the body
  3. Overfatness due to a large number of interacting behavioral problems
  4. Overfatness due to reliance on high-fat foods as a central part of the diet

c 254(A) 64. Research in obese people seems to show that there is less susceptibility to health problems provided that the excess body fat is distributed around the

  1. stomach.
  2. arms and chest.
  3. hips and thighs.
  4. neck and shoulders.

d 254(A) 65. Which of the following can be used to gauge the amount of a person’s abdominal fat?

  1. BMI
  2. Essential body fat
  3. Hydrodensitometry
  4. Waist circumference

b 254(K) 66. Intra-abdominal fat is the same as

  1. waist fat.
  2. visceral fat.
  3. lipid profile fat.
  4. subcutaneous fat.

c 254(A) 67. Waist circumference can best be used to assess

  1. BMI.
  2. total body water.
  3. abdominal fat stores.
  4. subcutaneous fat stores.

b 254-255(K) 68. In what region of the body is the storage of excess body fat associated with the highest risks for cardiovascular disease and diabetes?

  1. Neck
  2. Abdomen
  3. Hips and thighs
  4. Arms and shoulders

c 254-255(K) 69. A high risk of weight-related health problems is seen in women whose waist circumference begins to exceed

  1. 24 inches.
  2. 28 inches.
  3. 35 inches.
  4. 42 inches.

a 254-255(K) 70. There is a high risk of obesity-related health problems when a man’s waist circumference begins to exceed

  1. 40 inches.
  2. 45.5 inches.
  3. 50 inches.
  4. 52.5 inches.

d 255(K) 71. Which of the following is a characteristic of excess body fat that is distributed primarily around the abdomen?

  1. It is related directly to exercise
  2. Its presence lowers the risk for diabetes
  3. It is less common in women past menopause
  4. It is associated with increased mortality for both sexes

d 255-256(K) 72. Which of the following is a characteristic associated with using weight measures to assess risk of disease?

  1. They are expensive to perform
  2. They are complicated to perform
  3. They are able to quantitate total body fat
  4. They cannot reveal fat distribution and central obesity

b 256(K) 72. Which of the following is a property of specific methods used to assess body fat content?

  1. Weighing people underwater to assess body density is called flotation mass index
  2. Bombardment of the body with x-rays can differentiate between fat mass and lean body mass
  3. Bioelectric impedance cannot be used in subjects under 18 years old due to the risk of nerve damage
  4. Sitting inside a chamber to displace the air within the chamber as a means of determining body composition is a discredited technique

a 257(A) 74. A graph of the relationship between mortality (left axis) and body mass index is shaped like a(n)

  1. J.
  2. S.
  3. backslash.
  4. inverted U.

a 257(K) 75. The known health risks for being underweight include all of the following except

  1. diabetes.
  2. infertility in women.
  3. giving birth to unhealthy infants.
  4. increased cancer-induced wasting.

d 257(K) 76. The risks for dying prematurely are doubled when the body mass index first rises above

  1. 27.
  2. 30.
  3. 32.
  4. 35.

a 257(K) 77. The yearly death toll in the United States from obesity-related diseases is estimated at

  1. 300,000.
  2. 1 million.
  3. 10 million.
  4. 20 million.

c 257(K) 78. All of the following are features of the health risks associated with excessive body fat except

  1. obesity is classified as a disease.
  2. obese women have elevated levels of estrogen.
  3. the risks are higher in black women than in white women.
  4. people with a BMI higher than 35 have twice the risk of dying prematurely.

c 257-258(A) 79. Ben is worried that his family history of heart disease and his BMI of 28 are putting him at very high risk for developing cardiovascular disease. What would a clinician advise Ben to help lower his risk?

  1. Take steps to raise the LDL and lower the HDL
  2. Consider liposuction surgery for removing extra abdominal fat
  3. Lose weight as it can lower both blood cholesterol and blood pressure
  4. Obtain genetic testing to determine the exact percent chance of developing cardiovascular disease

c 258(K) 80. Inflammation is characterized by an increase in

  1. adipocytes.
  2. stress eating.
  3. immune cells.
  4. subcutaneous fat stores.

b 258(K) 81. Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic inflammation?

  1. It increases the risk for obesity by 50%
  2. It promotes the development of metabolic syndrome
  3. It is commonly found in people with a BMI less than 24
  4. It enhances insulin sensitivity leading to periodic bouts of hypoglycemia

d 258(K) 82. All of the following are an association between type 2 diabetes and body fat except

  1. people with the disease often have central obesity rather than lower-body obesity.

b a woman who has gained 12 pounds since age 18 has doubled her risk of developing the disease.

  1. an obese person is 3 times more likely to develop the disease than is a nonobese individual.
  2. overweight people with the disease who lose weight show no improvement in glucose tolerance and insulin resistance.

b 258(K) 83. What term best describes a failure of the body’s cells to respond to secretion of insulin?

  1. Central obesity
  2. Insulin resistance
  3. Thyroid insufficiency
  4. Hypothalamic impedance

c 258(K) 84. The major cause of insulin resistance is related to

  1. low-protein diets.
  2. high-protein diets.
  3. excess body weight.
  4. prolonged excess carbohydrate intake.

b 258(K) 85. Which of the following describes an association between body weight and mortality?

  1. Obesity is the fourth leading cause of premature death
  2. Overweight men who are physically fit have a lower mortality risk than normal-weight, unfit men
  3. Normal-weight men who are physically unfit have a similar mortality risk versus normal-weight fit men
  4. The amount of weight gain in adulthood that is not associated with increased mortality is 20 pounds or less

c 258(K) 86. Which of the following may best explain the relationship between excess body fat and higher risk for cancers of the female reproductive system?

  1. Obese women are more sedentary, which promotes cancer development
  2. The higher levels of body fat act as a reservoir of carcinogenic substances
  3. Excess body fat produces more estrogen, which may promote tumor development
  4. The greater food consumption of obese women provides a higher intake of naturally-occurring carcinogens

Questions for Section 8.5 Eating Disorders

a 261(K) 87. What term is given to the condition of a female athlete who has an eating disorder and develops amenorrhea and osteoporosis?

  1. Female athlete triad
  2. Triathlete medical disorder
  3. High stress tertiary disorder
  4. Nonadaptable training syndrome

c 261(K) 88. Among people with anorexia nervosa, approximately what percentage are males?

  1. 5
  2. 15
  3. 25
  4. 50

c 261(K) 89. What is the most common eating disorder in both males and females?

  1. Bulimia nervosa
  2. Anorexia nervosa
  3. Binge-eating disorder
  4. Athlete triad

c 261;266(K) 90. What is an emetic?

  1. An appetite-suppressant
  2. An inhibitor of intestinal lipase
  3. A substance that induces vomiting
  4. An over-the-counter weight loss product

a 261;266(K) 91. A cathartic is a

  1. strong laxative.
  2. drug that induces vomiting.
  3. device to measure skinfold thickness.
  4. device to measure the amount of intra-abdominal fat.

a 262(K) 92. Which of the following is a characteristic of amenorrhea?

  1. It induces prolonged bone loss
  2. It is a risk factor for women with bulimia
  3. It is a normal adaptation to strenuous physical training
  4. It is precipitated by high serum estrogen concentrations

c 262(K) 93. All of the following are typical characteristics of amenorrhea except

  1. infertility.
  2. bone mineral loss.
  3. muscle dysmorphia.
  4. low blood estrogen.

b 263(K) 94. All of the following are common behaviors of people afflicted with muscle dysmorphia except

  1. use of dietary supplements.
  2. use of cathartics and emetics.
  3. consumption of high-protein diets.
  4. weight training for hours at a time.

a 264-265(K) 95. All of the following are characteristics of anorexia nervosa except

  1. in those who recover, energy intakes return to normal.
  2. treatment with prescription drugs plays only a limited role.
  3. it has one of the highest mortality rates among psychiatric disorders.
  4. only one-half of women who are treated can maintain body weight at a near healthy level.

c 264-265(K) 96. Which of the following is a characteristic of people with anorexia nervosa?

  1. Most are aware of their condition and seek treatment
  2. Fewer than 200 women die each year from the disease
  3. Among those who are treated, many relapse into abnormal eating patterns
  4. During initial treatment, metabolism slows and appetite increases but thereafter subsides

b 265(K) 97. Approximately what fraction of people treated for anorexia nervosa show reasonable maintenance of their weight gain?

  1. 1/4
  2. 1/2
  3. 4/5
  4. 9/10

d 266(A) 98. Typical foods chosen by a person with bulimia nervosa during a binge include all of the following except

  1. bread.
  2. cookies.
  3. ice cream.
  4. vegetables.

c 265-266(K) 99. Which of the following is characteristic of the eating pattern of people with bulimia nervosa?

  1. Binge eating usually occurs during the daytime
  2. Binge eating is frequently done at restaurant buffets
  3. Binge eating typically occurs after a period of strict dieting
  4. A binge eating episode is usually completed within 20 minutes

c 266-267(K) 100. Diet recommendations for people with bulimia nervosa include all of the following except

  1. avoid skipping meals.
  2. include fiber-rich foods.
  3. eat cold foods to stimulate satiety.
  4. avoid “finger” foods to minimize overeating.

a 267-268(K) 101. What is the primary factor that differentiates bulimia nervosa from binge eating?

  1. Purging is rarely practiced in binge-eating disorder
  2. Higher rates of depression are reported in bulimia nervosa
  3. More food is consumed at one setting in binge-eating disorders
  4. Uncontrollable cravings for high-fat foods are seen only in bulimia nervosa

Chapter 10 – The Water-Soluble Vitamins: B Vitamins and Vitamin C

An. Page(s)/difficulty K = knowledge-level, A = application level

Multiple Choice

Questions for Section 10.1 The Vitamins—An Overview

d 312(A) 01. Which of the following is a feature of vitamins?

  1. Many serve in the role of enzyme inhibitors
  2. Structurally, many are found linked together
  3. Several may be oxidized to yield 4 kcalories per gram
  4. The quantities present in foods are measured in micrograms or milligrams

c 312(K) 02. What is a precursor?

  1. A conditionally essential vitamin
  2. A sign or symptom of a vitamin deficiency disorder
  3. A substance that is used to synthesize another compound
  4. A substance that is recycled through the liver and intestines

b 312(K) 03. What is meant by the bioavailability of a vitamin in food?

  1. The total amount available from plant and animal food
  2. The amount absorbed and subsequently used by the body
  3. The amount that escapes destruction from food processing
  4. The number of different chemical forms of the same vitamin

a 312-313(K) 04. General characteristics of the water-soluble vitamins include all of the following except

  1. they must be consumed daily.
  2. toxic levels in the body are rarely found.
  3. they are absorbed directly into the blood.
  4. excesses are eliminated from the kidneys.

a 312-313(K) 05. All of the following are general characteristics of the fat-soluble vitamins except

  1. excesses are eliminated from the kidneys.
  2. absorption is via the lymphatic circulation.
  3. several of them require protein carriers for transport.
  4. they can be stored in relatively large amounts in certain body tissues.

c 312-313(A) 06. Cooking a food in liberal amounts of water is least likely to affect the vitamin content of

  1. folate.
  2. thiamin.
  3. vitamin A.
  4. riboflavin.

b 313(A) 07. Which of the following vitamins would be removed in the production of skim milk?

  1. Thiamin
  2. Vitamin A
  3. Riboflavin
  4. Vitamin B12

b 313(K) 08. What is the primary excretory route for the water-soluble vitamins?

  1. Bile
  2. Kidney
  3. Intestine
  4. Perspiration

b 313(A) 09. When thiamin is consumed in excess of needs, how does the body treat the excess?

  1. Not absorbed
  2. Excreted primarily in the urine
  3. Excreted primarily in the feces
  4. Stored in liver, bone, and adipose tissue

Questions for Section 10.2 The B Vitamins—As Individuals

d 314(K) 10. What is a chief function of the B vitamins?

  1. Antioxidation
  2. Anticoagulation
  3. Antibody stabilization
  4. Coenzyme participation

d 314;315(A) 11. Which of the following explains why B vitamin deficiencies lead to lack of energy?

  1. B vitamins are a source of kilocalories
  2. Absorption of carbohydrates and fats is decreased
  3. Oxygen for energy metabolism cannot be transported to the cells
  4. Coenzymes needed for energy metabolism are produced in insufficient amounts

c 314;315(K) 12. Which of the following describes the basic function of a coenzyme?

  1. Attaches to RNA to assist in the synthesis of an enzyme
  2. Attaches to cell membranes to assist in uptake of an enzyme
  3. Attaches to an enzyme and allows a chemical reaction to take place
  4. Attaches to an enzyme, which allows for transport of the enzyme through the circulation

Questions for Section 10.2.1 Thiamin

c 315(A) 13. Which of the following functions has a requirement for thiamin?

  1. Blood coagulation
  2. Formation of red blood cells
  3. Energy release from energy-yielding nutrients
  4. Formation of epithelial cell mucopolysaccharides

d 315(K) 14. What is the primary chemical reaction in which thiamin participates as a coenzyme?

  1. Transfers amine groups in the synthesis of amino acids
  2. Transfers hydrogen atoms in the synthesis of erythrocytes
  3. Assists in addition of methyl groups to compounds involved in energy metabolism
  4. Assists in removal of one-carbon units from compounds involved in energy metabolism

b 315(K) 15. Which of the following is the coenzyme form of thiamin?

  1. Thiaminacide
  2. Thiamin pyrophosphate
  3. Thiamin adenine dinucleotide
  4. Thiamin flavin mononucleotide

b 315(K) 16. Beriberi results from a deficiency of

  1. niacin.
  2. thiamin.
  3. vitamin C.
  4. vitamin B12.

a 315(A) 17. Which of the following diets is most likely to lead to beriberi?

  1. High intakes of white rice
  2. Low intakes of whole grains
  3. High intakes of unrefined rice
  4. Low intakes of enriched grains

b 315(A) 18. The Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome may be treated with supplements of

  1. folacin.
  2. thiamin.
  3. vitamin C.
  4. vitamin B12.

d 315(K) 19. Which of the following is a characteristic of thiamin nutrition?

  1. The coenzyme contains pyrosulfate
  2. It is required for regeneration of folate
  3. It is required for regeneration of niacin
  4. It is an integral part of the nerve cell membrane

d 315(A) 20. Approximately what percentage of alcoholics exhibit thiamin deficiency?

  1. 20
  2. 40
  3. 60
  4. 80

c 315-316(K) 21. All of the following are characteristic of thiamin nutrition except

  1. severe deficiency may lead to edema.
  2. severe deficiency may occur without edema.
  3. recommended intakes are stated in “equivalents.”
  4. recommended intakes are based primarily on participation in enzyme activity.

a 316(K) 22. Which of the following provides the most thiamin per serving size?

  1. Ham
  2. Squash
  3. Whole milk
  4. Whole-grain breads

b 316-317(K) 23. Which of the following is a property of thiamin nutrition?

  1. Participates in activation of prothrombin
  2. Poor sources include seafood and cheeses
  3. Significant amounts are found in leafy vegetables
  4. Deficiency results in cheilosis and marked dermatitis

a 316-317(K) 24. How does the method of cooking affect thiamin stability?

  1. Microwaving the food conserves much of the thiamin
  2. Prolonged heating of the food has little, if any, effect on the thiamin
  3. Boiling the food tends to conserve thiamin by forming a stable, hydrated complex
  4. Steaming the food can lead to substantial thiamin loss due to the high heat needed to form the steam

a 317(A) 25. Which of the following contains the highest concentration of thiamin in muscle tissue?

  1. Pig
  2. Fish
  3. Steer
  4. Chicken

b 317(A) 26. Of the following, which is the richest food source of thiamin?

  1. Lettuce
  2. Soy milk
  3. Cow milk
  4. Refined rice

Questions for Section 10.2.2 Riboflavin

d 318(K) 27. Riboflavin in its coenzyme form functions in the transfer of

  1. methyl groups.
  2. 1-carbon units.
  3. 2-carbon units.
  4. hydrogen atoms.

c 318(K) 28. Which of the following vitamins is involved substantially in energy transformation reactions?

  1. Biotin
  2. Cobalamin
  3. Riboflavin
  4. Pyridoxine

d 318(K) 29. Which of the following is indicative of a dietary deficiency of riboflavin?

  1. Beriberi
  2. Diarrhea
  3. Keratomalacia
  4. Inflamed mouth membranes

d 318(K) 30. Which of the following food groups ordinarily contains the highest amount of riboflavin when expressed per kcalorie?

  1. Dairy
  2. Meats
  3. Fruits
  4. Vegetables

a 318(K) 31. What is ariboflavonosis?

  1. The vitamin B2 deficiency disease
  2. Food sources devoid of vitamin B2
  3. Ultraviolet destruction of vitamin B2
  4. Excessive heat destruction of vitamin B2

c 318(K) 32. The signs and symptoms of riboflavin deficiency are known collectively as

  1. pellagra.
  2. antiflavonosis.
  3. ariboflavinosis.
  4. flavin adenine dinucleosis.

d 318(A) 33. Riboflavin needs are more difficult to meet when the diet is low in

  1. meats.
  2. grains.
  3. vegetables.
  4. dairy foods.

d 318(K) 34. Riboflavin is most easily destroyed when exposed to

  1. heat.
  2. acid.
  3. alkali.
  4. ultraviolet light.

b 318(A) 35. What type of container is best for protecting the riboflavin content of milk?

  1. Airtight
  2. Cardboard
  3. Transparent glass
  4. Translucent plastic

d 318;319(K) 36. The coenzyme FAD is formed from what vitamin?

  1. Niacin
  2. Choline
  3. Thiamin
  4. Riboflavin

a 318;319(A) 37. Of the following commonly eaten foods, which makes the greatest contribution to riboflavin intake?

  1. Milk
  2. Potatoes
  3. Orange juice
  4. Peanut butter

c 318;319(A) 38. Milk and milk products provide liberal amounts of which of the following vitamins?

  1. Folate
  2. Biotin
  3. Riboflavin
  4. Pantothenic acid

c 319(K) 39. A deficiency of what vitamin produces a characteristic cracking and redness at the corners of the mouth?

  1. Biotin
  2. Niacin
  3. Riboflavin
  4. Ascorbic acid

a 319(K) 40. Which of the following is a property of riboflavin in nutrition?

  1. Stability to heat is good
  2. Deficiency leads to beriberi
  3. Requirements are proportional to body weight
  4. Significant amounts are found in citrus products

Questions for Section 10.2.3 Niacin

d 320(K) 41. Which of the following is a property of niacin in nutrition?

  1. It is susceptible to destruction in foods exposed to light
  2. It participates primarily in reactions involving amino acids
  3. It is soluble in both water and lipids depending upon its chemical form
  4. It can be synthesized in the body from the essential amino acid tryptophan

c 320(A) 42. Which of the following properties is shared by niacin and riboflavin coenzymes?

  1. Unstable to irradiation
  2. Unstable to metal cooking utensils
  3. Acceptance and transfer of hydrogen atoms
  4. Acceptance and transfer of carboxyl groups

c 320(A) 43. When the diet contains an adequate amount of protein, what amino acid can be used by the body to synthesize niacin?

  1. Lysine
  2. Valine
  3. Tryptophan
  4. Phenylalanine

a 320(A) 44. Which of the following nutrients functions to prevent the appearance of a bilateral, symmetrical dermatitis, primarily on areas exposed to the sun?

  1. Niacin
  2. Choline
  3. Inositol
  4. Riboflavin

a 320(K) 45. The vitamin deficiency disease pellagra means

  1. “rough skin.”
  2. “paralyzed limbs.”
  3. “demented behavior.”
  4. “flattened erythrocytes.”

a 320-321(A) 46. A low-protein diet in which corn is a principal food has been found to cause a deficiency of what vitamin?

  1. Niacin
  2. Thiamin
  3. Vitamin C
  4. Vitamin B12

b 320-321(K) 47. What vitamin deficiency disease appeared in people who had subsisted on a diet high in corn and low in protein?

  1. Scurvy
  2. Pellagra
  3. Wet beriberi
  4. Pernicious anemia

d 320;321(K) 48. Which of the following is not among the common signs of pellagra?

  1. Diarrhea
  2. Dementia
  3. Dermatitis
  4. Desiccation

b 320;321(K) 49. A general niacin deficiency is known to be manifested in abnormalities of all of the following organs/systems except

  1. skin.
  2. skeletal system.
  3. nervous system.
  4. gastrointestinal tract.

c 320;321(A) 50. Tryptophan can be used in the body to synthesize

  1. FAD.
  2. biotin.
  3. niacin.
  4. inositol.

c 320-321(A) 51. While researching your southern family history, you find that your grandmother had a sister who died fairly young. The symptoms leading up to her death included diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia. Because the family led a poor, corn-farming existence, you suspect this relative died of

  1. scurvy.
  2. cancer.
  3. pellagra.
  4. beriberi.

b 321(A) 52. Which of the following substances is found in corn and contributes to the development of pellagra?

  1. Avidin
  2. Leucine
  3. Phytates
  4. Phenylalanine

a 321(A) 53. What term identifies the characteristic tingling sensations and reddening of the skin after ingesting a pharmacologic dose of nicotinic acid?

  1. Niacin flush
  2. NAD dermatitis
  3. Niacin erythrema
  4. Bilateral symmetrical dermatitis

c 321(A) 54. Which of the following overt side effect(s) is likely to appear after a person ingests a high quantity of nicotinic acid?

  1. Constipation
  2. Mental confusion
  3. Painful, tingling, itching sensation
  4. Hair loss, bloating, and photophobia

a 321(A) 55. When taken in large doses, which of the following vitamins is associated with liver injury and peptic ulcers?

  1. Niacin
  2. Thiamin
  3. Vitamin B6
  4. Vitamin B12

d 321(K) 56. Large doses of nicotinic acid are known to result in all of the following except

  1. dilation of capillaries.
  2. increased HDL cholesterol.
  3. lowering of LDL cholesterol.
  4. disappearance of learning disorders in children.

b 321(K) 57. Which of the following is a feature of niacin nutrition?

  1. Low doses may lead to kidney stones
  2. High doses may lower blood cholesterol
  3. Low doses may lead to heartburn and low blood pressure
  4. High doses may elevate red blood cell count in mildly anemic individuals

a 321(A) 58. Your friend Jane just returned from the doctor who diagnosed her with a specific vitamin B toxicity. However, she doesn’t recall the name of the vitamin. Which of the following is the only possible culprit associated with toxicity symptoms?

  1. Niacin
  2. Biotin
  3. Riboflavin
  4. Vitamin B12

a 321(K) 59. What is the approximate niacin RDA for adults?

  1. 15 niacin equivalents
  2. 30 niacin equivalents
  3. 15 tryptophan equivalents
  4. 30 tryptophan equivalents

c 321;322(A) 60. Among the following, which would be the best source of niacin equivalents?

  1. Milk
  2. Broccoli
  3. Chicken
  4. Strawberries

Questions for Section 10.2.4 Biotin

d 322(A) 61. Your brother Bob is a competitive body builder. His trainer suggested that he consume 4 egg white omelets per day. Bob remembers a warning about a possible vitamin deficiency from consuming too many egg whites and asks if he should follow the prescribed diet. Your reply to Bob is that he should not

  1. be concerned as long as he consumes both the yolk and whites of the eggs.
  2. follow the diet, since the avidin in the egg whites could bind to niacin and prevent its absorption.
  3. follow the diet, since the avidin in the egg whites could bind to biotin and prevent its absorption.
  4. be concerned, because, when the eggs are cooked, the avidin protein is denatured, and thus does not pose a problem for deficiency disease.

d 322(K) 62. Features of biotin in nutrition include all of the following except

  1. it functions in the breakdown of amino acids and fatty acids.
  2. it functions as a carrier of carbon dioxide in energy metabolism.
  3. a deficiency can be induced by ingesting large quantities of raw egg whites.
  4. a deficiency can be induced by ingesting large amounts of thiamin and folic acid, which interfere with its absorption.

a 322(K) 63. Among the following compounds that serve as coenzymes in metabolism, which is considered a vitamin for human beings?

  1. Biotin
  2. Inositol
  3. Lipoic acid
  4. Orotic acid

c 322(K) 64. Which of the following foods contains a protein that decreases bioavailability of biotin?

  1. Aged wine
  2. Aged cheese
  3. Raw egg whites
  4. Raw cauliflower

b 322(K) 65. A protein that binds with biotin (thus inhibiting absorption) is found in which food?

  1. Aged cheese
  2. Raw egg whites
  3. Whole wheat bread
  4. Unhomogenized milk

b 322(K) 66. Which of the following vitamins is synthesized by intestinal bacteria?

  1. Folate
  2. Biotin
  3. Cyanocobalamin
  4. Pantothenic acid

d 322(K) 67. Biotin can be synthesized by

  1. avidin.
  2. the skin.
  3. the liver.
  4. intestinal bacteria.

b 323(K) 68. What is the adult Adequate Intake for biotin?

  1. 3 µg
  2. 30 µg
  3. 3 mg
  4. 30 mg

Questions for Section 10.2.5 Pantothenic Acid

d 323(K) 69. What vitamin forms a part of coenzyme A?

  1. Biotin
  2. Folate
  3. Riboflavin
  4. Pantothenic acid

c 323(K) 70. What is the AI for pantothenic acid for adults?

  1. 1 mg
  2. 3 mg
  3. 5 mg
  4. 8 mg

d 323(K) 71. Which of the following vitamins is known to sustain substantial losses during processing of food?

  1. Biotin
  2. Niacin
  3. Vitamin B12
  4. Pantothenic acid

Questions for Section 10.2.6 Vitamin B6

c 323(K) 72. Forms of vitamin B6 include all of the following except

  1. pyridoxal.
  2. pyridoxine.
  3. pyrimidine.
  4. pyridoxamine.

c 323(K) 73. Which of the following vitamins is stored primarily in muscle tissue?

  1. Biotin
  2. Folate
  3. Vitamin B6
  4. Pantothenic acid

a 323(K) 74. The chief symptoms of early vitamin B6 deficiency include

  1. confusion and depression.
  2. muscle cramps and stiffness.
  3. profound fatigue and anemia.
  4. hyperactivity and shortness of breath.

c 323(K) 75. What vitamin is involved intensively in amino acid metabolism?

  1. Biotin
  2. Vitamin A
  3. Vitamin B6
  4. Riboflavin

b 323-324(A) 76. Which of the following is not a characteristic of vitamin B6 in nutrition?

  1. It is stored in muscle tissue
  2. It is required in amounts proportional to energy expenditure
  3. It can lead to irreversible nerve damage when taken in large doses
  4. It functions, in part, in the synthesis of glycine and glutamic acid

d 323-324(K) 77. All of the following are features of vitamin B6 metabolism except

  1. a deficiency or toxicity leads to depression.
  2. its destruction and excretion are promoted by alcohol intake.
  3. it functions primarily as the coenzyme pyridoxal phosphate.
  4. it enhances physical performance when supplied at a level of l mg/g of dietary protein.

a 324(K) 78. What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for vitamin B6?

  1. 100 mg
  2. 500 mg
  3. 1000 mg
  4. 10,000 mg

a 324(A) 79. A common drug for the treatment of tuberculosis is known to markedly interfere in the metabolism of vitamin

  1. B6.
  2. B12.
  3. C.
  4. D.

c 324(K) 80. Irreversible nerve damage has been reported in people taking large doses of

  1. vitamin B1.
  2. vitamin B2.
  3. vitamin B6.
  4. vitamin B12.

a 324(K) 81. Which of the following statements reflects our knowledge of water-soluble vitamin toxicity?

  1. Toxicity symptoms for vitamin B6 can be severe and irreversible
  2. Toxicity symptoms for vitamin C include constipation and hyperactivity
  3. Toxicities of the B vitamins occur almost as often from foods as from supplements
  4. Toxicity of niacin has been reported in body builders taking large amounts of amino acid supplements

c 324(K) 82. In what major way does alcohol intake affect vitamin B6metabolism?

  1. It reduces acetaldehyde formation
  2. It increases fecal excretion of the vitamin
  3. It dislodges the PLP coenzyme from its enzyme
  4. It interferes with synthesis of the PLP coenzyme

a 324(K) 83. What is the adult RDA for vitamin B6?

  1. 1.3 mg
  2. 5.5 mg
  3. 15 mg
  4. 22 mg

d 324;326(A) 84. On a per-kcalorie basis, which of the following foods is richest in vitamin B6?

  1. Meats
  2. Fruits
  3. Legumes
  4. Vegetables

Questions for Section 10.2.7 Folate

a 325;333(K) 85. Which of the following is an essential nutrient for human beings?

  1. Folate
  2. Inositol
  3. Methoxatin
  4. Lipoic acid

a 325(K) 86. Pteroylglutamic acid is known as

  1. folate.
  2. choline.
  3. inositol.
  4. pyridoxamine.

b 325-326(K) 87. All of the following are properties of folate in nutrition except

  1. it is needed for proper functioning of vitamin B12.
  2. it functions primarily in the transfer of amino groups.
  3. the coenzyme of folate requires vitamin B12 to function properly.
  4. it requires enzymes on the intestinal mucosa to enhance its absorption from most foods.

a 325;330(A) 88. Which of the following characteristics is shared by vitamin B12and folate?

  1. Both are required for nucleic acid synthesis
  2. Both require intrinsic factors for their release from food proteins
  3. Both are found in significant amounts in green leafy vegetables
  4. Both are considered problem nutrients for strict vegetarians

a 326(K) 89. Which of the following vitamins undergoes significant enterohepatic circulation?

  1. Folate
  2. Niacin
  3. Thiamin
  4. Pyridoxine

a 326(K) 90. Which of the following vitamins is usually found in a form that is bound to one or more glutamic acid molecules in food?

  1. Folate
  2. Thiamin
  3. Vitamin B6
  4. Ascorbic acid

a 326(A) 81. A person with a disorder that limits absorption of bile is at increased risk for deficiency of

  1. folate.
  2. niacin.
  3. riboflavin.
  4. ascorbic acid.

b 326(A) 92. What is the most likely explanation for the impaired functioning of the GI tract resulting from folate deficiency?

  1. Since folate is required for bile synthesis, folate deficiency results in insufficient bile production, thereby promoting fat malabsorption and diarrhea
  2. Since folate functions, in large part, in the process of cell renewal, a deficiency slows mucosal cell replacement, thereby resulting in decreased GI functioning
  3. The anemia of folate deficiency results in decreased oxygen supply to body tissues, with the intestines being particularly affected because of their high metabolic activity
  4. Since folate functions, in part, in the synthesis of pancreatic digestive enzymes, a deficiency leads to decreased enzymatic capacity in the intestines, thereby resulting in malabsorption

d 326(K) 93. Which of the following is not a feature of folate nutrition?

  1. Most food folate is bound to a string of amino acids
  2. Folate is actively secreted back into the GI tract with bile
  3. Food folate must be hydrolyzed by intestinal cell enzymes prior to absorption
  4. Folate must be methylated by homocysteine prior to crossing the brush border membrane

c 326-327(K) 94. Approximately what percentage of dietary folate is bioavailable?

  1. 10
  2. 25
  3. 50
  4. 80

d 326-327(A) 95. The percent bioavailability of a folate supplement taken on an empty stomach is

  1. 5.
  2. 25.
  3. 50.
  4. 100.

d 327(A) 96. How many dietary folate equivalents are provided by 100 µg of a folate supplement?

  1. 50
  2. 70
  3. 133
  4. 170

c 327(K) 97. What fraction of women capable of becoming pregnant ingest the RDA for folate?

  1. ¼
  2. 1/3
  3. ½
  4. 2/3

b 327(A) 98. Research has shown that the risk for neural tube defects is lowered by taking supplements of

  1. niacin.
  2. folate.
  3. vitamin C.
  4. vitamin B12.

d 327(K) 99. Which of the following is a type of neural tube defect?

  1. Scurvy
  2. Beriberi
  3. Pellagra
  4. Spina bifida

d 327(K) 100. Which of the following is a feature of folate nutrition?

  1. The coenzyme form is FAD
  2. Dairy foods are a poor source of folate except for goat’s milk
  3. Insufficient folate intake results in deficiency of homocysteine
  4. Synthetic folate is 70% more available than naturally occurring food folate

d 327(A) 101. By law, what amount of folate (µg) must be added to 100 g of food products such as breads, flour, and rice?

  1. 5
  2. 50
  3. 100
  4. 140

d 327(A) 102. Nicole is pregnant and is trying to monitor her folate intake. She is eating foods high in folate as well as taking folate supplements, and she is having a hard time determining how many dietary folate equivalents she is consuming. Below is a list of her daily intake with respect to folate:

½ cup of cooked lentils (180 μg food folate)

½ cup of fresh orange juice (60 μg food folate)

folate supplement (200 μg)

How many DFEs is Nicole consuming?

  1. 440
  2. 480
  3. 540
  4. 580

c 328(A) 103. Because of adverse interactions with other vitamins, a safe daily folate intake is up to

  1. 400 µg.
  2. 600 µg.
  3. 1,000 µg.
  4. 2,000 µg.

a 328(K) 104. A deficiency of which of the following vitamins results in accumulation of homocysteine in the blood?

  1. Folate
  2. Biotin
  3. Niacin
  4. Vitamin K

a 328(A) 105. The appearance of vitamin B12 deficiency symptoms may be delayed due to high intake of supplements of

  1. folate.
  2. niacin.
  3. vitamin C.
  4. vitamin B6.

a 328-329(A) 106. What vitamin is involved mainly with the replacement of red blood cells and digestive tract cells?

  1. Folate
  2. Niacin
  3. Thiamin
  4. Riboflavin

c 329(K) 107. Which of the following substances is known to adversely affect folate utilization?

  1. Insulin
  2. Calcium supplements
  3. Regular use of antacids
  4. Vitamin B12 supplements

c 329(K) 108. Which of the following is representative of folate availability in foods?

  1. Good sources are dairy products and meats
  2. Poor sources are fruit juices and vegetable juices
  3. Much of the vitamin is lost due to heat and oxidation
  4. Only about 10% of the amount in foods is bioavailable

b 329(K) 109. Which of the following is known to significantly affect the body’s folate status?

  1. Sedentary lifestyle
  2. Some anticancer drugs
  3. Excess protein intake
  4. Insufficient fiber intake

b 329(A) 110. Physiological stresses such as blood loss, burns, measles, and cancer are known particularly to increase the risk of deficiency for

  1. biotin.
  2. folate.
  3. riboflavin.
  4. pantothenic acid.

d 329(K) 111. Which of the following is associated with a deficiency of folate?

  1. Hemolysis
  2. Hypoxemia
  3. Hemolytic anemia
  4. Macrocytic anemia

b 329(K) 112. Folate deficiency has been reported in infants fed

  1. soy milk.
  2. goat’s milk.
  3. chicken liver.
  4. infant formula.

a 329(K) 113. Among all the vitamins, which is believed to be most vulnerable to interactions with drugs?

  1. Folate
  2. Niacin
  3. Vitamin B6
  4. Vitamin B12

d 329(A) 114. What is the RDA for folate for a woman weighing 132 pounds?

  1. 180 μg
  2. 220 μg
  3. 242 μg
  4. 400 μg

c 329(K) 115. What is the adult RDA for folate (µg)?

  1. 100
  2. 200
  3. 400
  4. 800

d 329;330(K) 116. Which of the following foods is highest in folate?

  1. Meats
  2. Starches
  3. Dairy products
  4. Green, leafy vegetables

Questions for Section 10.2.8 Vitamin B12

c 330(K) 117. Which of the following is required for the absorption of dietary vitamin B12?

  1. Bile
  2. Lipase
  3. Intrinsic factor
  4. Carboxypeptidase

b 330(K) 118. What is the function of intrinsic factor in vitamin B12absorption?

  1. It catalyzes release of the vitamin from its protein-bound form
  2. It attaches to the vitamin, thereby allowing absorption from the intestines
  3. It acts as a storage protein for the vitamin within the intestinal epithelial cells
  4. It acts as a cofactor for mucosal enzymes involved in absorption of the vitamin

d 330(K) 119. All of the following are required for efficient dietary absorption of vitamin B12 except

  1. pepsin.
  2. intrinsic factor.
  3. hydrochloric acid.
  4. mucosal cobalaminase.

c 330-331(A) 120. What is the most likely reason for the development of a vitamin B12 deficiency?

  1. Inadequate intake
  2. Increased excretion
  3. Inadequate absorption
  4. Increased losses in food preparation

c 331(A) 121. Pernicious anemia results from a deficiency of

  1. folate.
  2. selenium.
  3. vitamin B12.
  4. iron and copper.

d 331(A) 122. The nasal spray route represents a safe and efficacious means for the supply of

  1. folate.
  2. vitamin B1.
  3. vitamin C.
  4. vitamin B12.

c 331(A) 123. The absorption of which of the following vitamins is most affected by the disorder atrophic gastritis?

  1. Choline
  2. Vitamin C
  3. Vitamin B12
  4. Pantothenic acid

a 331(K) 124. Which of the following is a property of vitamin B12?

  1. It is efficiently recycled by the body
  2. It is necessary for protection from pinpoint hemorrhages
  3. It requires attachment to fatty acids for transport in the circulation
  4. It is absorbed from the stomach with the aid of a special binding protein

b 331(A) 125. A similar type of anemia is produced when there is a deficiency of either

  1. riboflavin or niacin.
  2. vitamin B12 or folate.
  3. thiamin or riboflavin.
  4. vitamin B6 or vitamin B12.

a 331(A) 126. Which of the following is a common treatment for pernicious anemia caused by inadequate absorption?

  1. Injection of cobalamin
  2. Topical administration of liver extract
  3. Oral supplements of B-vitamin complex
  4. A diet high in liver and green, leafy vegetables

d 331(A) 127. If a person refrained from ingesting any of the water-soluble vitamins, deficiency symptoms would appear last for

  1. folate.
  2. vitamin C.
  3. vitamin B1.
  4. vitamin B12.

d 331(A) 128. Normally, the body’s storage and re-utilization of vitamin B12prevents a primary or secondary deficiency from occurring until after about

  1. 3 days.
  2. 3 weeks.
  3. 3 months.
  4. 3 years.

d 331(A) 129. In a person who loses the ability to absorb vitamin B12, approximately what period of time could elapse before deficiency signs develop?

  1. One month
  2. Six months
  3. One year
  4. Three years

b 331(K) 130. Pernicious anemia results from a combination of lack of intrinsic factor and

  1. ariboflavonosis.
  2. lack of hydrochloric acid.
  3. lack of pancreatic vitaminases.
  4. pharmacologic intakes of folate.

d 331(K) 131. Which of the following is not known to be a risk factor for development of atrophic gastritis?

  1. Age over 50 yrs
  2. Iron deficiency
  3. Helicobacter pylori infection
  4. Avoidance of leafy vegetables

a 331-332(K) 132. Which of the following is a feature of vitamin B12 bioavailability?

  1. Synthetic B12 in supplement form is highly utilizable
  2. Fermented soy products are optimal sources of the vitamin
  3. Yeast consumed by vegans is a good source of the vitamin
  4. Sea algae such as spirulina contain about 50% available vitamin B12

d 331-332(A) 133. Among the following water-soluble vitamins, a secondary deficiency would most likely be seen for

  1. biotin.
  2. thiamin.
  3. vitamin C.
  4. vitamin B12.

b 331-332(A) 134. Why are vegetarians at risk of developing a vitamin B12deficiency?

  1. Vegetarian diets inhibit absorption of the vitamin
  2. Vegetarian diets provide insufficient amounts of the vitamin
  3. The fiber content of vegetarian diets causes decreased storage by the liver
  4. The fiber content of vegetarian diets causes increased excretion of the vitamin

b 332(A) 135. Of the following foods, which would be the only source of vitamin B12?

  1. Pecans
  2. Hot dog
  3. Cauliflower
  4. Whole-grain bread

c 332(K) 136. Which of the following is a characteristic of vitamin B12?

  1. Toxicity symptoms are serious and irreversible
  2. Units in food are expressed as cobalamin equivalents
  3. It is inactivated when the food is heated in a microwave
  4. Bioavailable amounts are found in fermented soy products

c 332(K) 137. The adult RDA for vitamin B12 (µg) is

  1. 0.5.
  2. 1.25.
  3. 2.4.
  4. 4.0.

c 332-333(K) 138. Which of the following vitamins has an RDA?

  1. Biotin
  2. Choline
  3. Cobalamin
  4. Pantothenic acid

Questions for Section 10.2.9 Vitamin-Like Compounds

a 333(K) 139. Which of the following is known to perform an essential function in the human body?

  1. Carnitine
  2. Orotic acid
  3. Methoxantin
  4. Pangamic acid

b 333(K) 140. Which of the following is not known to be required in the diet of human beings?

  1. Folic acid
  2. Lipoic acid
  3. Ascorbic acid
  4. Pantothenic acid

b 333(K) 141. Which of the following is classified as a conditionally essential nutrient?

  1. PABA
  2. Choline
  3. Inositol
  4. Ubiquinone

a 333(K) 142. Which of the following is probably required in the diet of human beings?

  1. Choline
  2. Inositol
  3. Lipoic acid
  4. Pangamic acid

b 333(K) 143. Which of the following is not known to be a vitamin for human beings?

  1. Cobalamin
  2. Ubiquinone
  3. Pyridoxine
  4. Pantothenic acid

Questions for Section 10.3 The B Vitamins—In Concert

b 335-336(K) 144. Which of the following is frequently affected by deficiencies of the B vitamins?

  1. Bones
  2. Tongue
  3. Eyesight
  4. Hair and nails

b 335-336(A) 145. Which of the following is an overt sign of a possible B vitamin deficiency?

  1. Anemia
  2. Smooth tongue
  3. Abnormal liver function
  4. Abnormal heart function

Questions for Section 10.4 Vitamin C

b 337;325;343(A) 146. Which of the following characteristics is shared by vitamins B6, B12, C and folate?

  1. Required for glycolysis
  2. Consumption prevents anemia
  3. Required in microgram quantities
  4. Found in citrus products and legumes

d 338(K) 147. What is a free radical?

  1. An inactive vitamin
  2. An unphosphorylated vitamin
  3. A molecule of unbound cobalamins
  4. A molecule with at least one unpaired electron

d 338(K) 148. Which of the following is a general function of vitamin C?

  1. Antiviral agent
  2. Antifungal agent
  3. Anticancer agent
  4. Antioxidant agent

b 338(K) 149. In what capacity does vitamin C function?

  1. Coenzyme for energy release
  2. Cofactor in collagen formation
  3. Cofactor with calcium in blood coagulation
  4. Coenzyme in the formation of red blood cells

c 338(K) 150. The protein that requires ascorbic acid for its formation is

  1. keratin.
  2. albumin.
  3. collagen.
  4. hydroxyproline.

c 339(A) 151. Which of the following represents the results of well-controlled studies of vitamin C supplementation on the resistance to, and recovery from, colds?

  1. There was a reduction in the duration of colds by 50% on the average
  2. There was only a minor effect on reducing the number and severity of colds
  3. There was a significant reduction in the duration of colds in people who consumed at least one gram a day
  4. There was a significant reduction in the number of colds only in people who consumed more than three grams per day

a 339(A) 152. Why might vitamin C supplements be beneficial in treating the common cold?

  1. They deactivate histamine
  2. They reduce episodes of diarrhea
  3. They destroy intestinal pathogens
  4. They alter hypothalamic control of body temperature

c 339(K) 153. Which of the following vitamins is known to deactivate histamine, a substance that causes nasal congestion?

  1. Niacin
  2. Vitamin E
  3. Vitamin C
  4. Vitamin B12

a 340(A) 154. What is the minimum daily amount of ascorbic acid that will prevent the appearance of scorbutic symptoms in human beings?

  1. 10 mg
  2. 30 mg
  3. 50 mg
  4. 60 mg

d 340(A) 155. How much vitamin C is needed daily to raise blood ascorbic acid concentrations to a maximum?

  1. 10 mg
  2. 75 mg
  3. 125 mg
  4. 200 mg

a 340(K) 156. Which of the following is an early sign of vitamin C deficiency?

  1. Bleeding gums
  2. Pernicious anemia
  3. Appearance of a cold
  4. Hysteria and depression

c 340(K) 157. In the United States, what is the adult RDA for vitamin C?

  1. 10-20 mg
  2. 50-60 mg
  3. 75-90 mg
  4. 100-135 mg

b 340;343(A) 158. People who smoke require additional vitamin C in the amount of

  1. 5 mg.
  2. 35 mg.
  3. 100 mg.
  4. 200 mg.

d 340;343(K) 159. Which of the following symptoms is indicative of a deficiency of vitamin C?

  1. Hair loss
  2. Muscle spasms
  3. Bilateral symmetrical dermatitis
  4. Subcutaneous pinpoint hemorrhages

d 341(A) 160. People with the condition known as iron overload may be adversely affected from taking supplements of

  1. niacin.
  2. retinol.
  3. cobalamin.
  4. ascorbic acid.

c 341(K) 161. Which of the following food groups is a rich source of vitamin C?

  1. Milk group
  2. Meat group
  3. Fruit group
  4. Bread-cereal group

c 341(A) 162. What term is used to describe the outcome of a diagnostic test that apparently shows that you have mononucleosis when in reality you do not?

  1. True positive
  2. True negative
  3. False positive
  4. False negative

d 341(A) 163. What term describes the outcome of a diagnostic test that apparently indicates that you do not have an infection when in reality you do?

  1. True positive
  2. True negative
  3. False positive
  4. False negative

b 341-342(A) 164. John is looking to increase his dietary sources of vitamin C. However, he expresses a strong dislike for all citrus fruits. Which of the following shopping lists would you recommend?

  1. Liver, yogurt, milk
  2. Brussels sprouts, broccoli, strawberries
  3. Banana, peanut butter, canned tuna fish
  4. Whole grains, pork, fortified corn flakes

d 341-342(K) 165. Which of the following foods provides ample amounts of vitamin C?

  1. Tofu
  2. Yogurt
  3. Legumes
  4. Broccoli

a 341-342(A) 166. Which of these meals is lowest in vitamin C?

  1. Roast beef, carrots, noodles, and tea
  2. Hot dog, cabbage, french fries, and milk
  3. Roast beef, broccoli, noodles, and coffee
  4. Spaghetti with tomato sauce, meatball, garlic bread, and red wine

c 341-342(A) 167. Which of the following would be a very good source of vitamin C for the lacto-ovo-vegetarian?

  1. Milk
  2. Eggs
  3. Broccoli
  4. Whole-grain bread

c 341;343(A) 168. All of the following are consequences of ingesting excess vitamin C supplements except

  1. they frequently cause diarrhea.
  2. they appear safe at levels up to 2000 mg/day.
  3. they enhance the action of anticlotting medications.
  4. they interfere with laboratory urine tests for the diagnosis of diabetes.

a 342(A) 169. Moderate intakes of which of the following would provide sufficient amounts of vitamin C?

  1. Potatoes
  2. Brown rice
  3. Low-fat milk
  4. Whole-wheat bread

a 342(K) 170. What food makes a significant contribution to vitamin C intakes in the U.S. population despite the modest vitamin C concentration?

  1. Potatoes
  2. Organ meats
  3. Breaded fish
  4. Whole-grain cereals

c 342(A) 171. Which of the following would be the poorest dietary source of vitamin C?

  1. Liver
  2. Potatoes
  3. Whole grains
  4. Cruciferous vegetables

Questions for Section 10.5 Vitamin and Mineral Supplements

d 346(K) 172. A vitamin supplement labeled as “high potency” contains an amount that is

  1. 50% of the Daily Value.
  2. equal to the UL.
  3. up to 200% of the Daily Value.
  4. 100% or more of the Daily Value.

b 346(K) 173. Approximately what percentage of the U.S. population takes multinutrient supplements regularly?

  1. 5
  2. 33
  3. 50
  4. 80

d 346-349(K) 174. The known dangers of taking vitamin supplements include all of the following except

  1. vitamin toxicity.
  2. the taker may ignore warning signs of a disease.
  3. the taker may feel a false sense of security and consume a poor diet.
  4. pathogenic bacterial overgrowth of the large intestines leading to increased risk of infection.

c 347(A) 175. Which of the following statements is representative of vitamin supplementation practices?

  1. Most people who take supplements consume a poor diet
  2. Most people should take supplements daily because of the great difficulty in obtaining the needed amounts from food
  3. People who have low energy intakes or are pregnant are at risk for developing deficiencies and may benefit from supplementation
  4. People should take supplements daily because nutrition surveys in the U.S. and Canada have detected deficiencies in some population groups

d 347(A) 176. A person who shuns dairy and spends most of her time indoors would likely benefit from a supplement of

  1. vitamin A.
  2. vitamin B6.
  3. vitamin C.
  4. vitamin D.

c 347(A) 177. Those groups of people who are at risk for developing marginal nutrient deficiencies and may benefit from taking vitamin supplements include all of the following except

  1. vegans
  2. food faddists
  3. athletes who are engaged in intense competitive events
  4. people with low energy intakes, such as habitual dieters and the elderly

c 348(A) 178. All of the following are known to occur from a mild iron overdose except

  1. nausea.
  2. GI distress.
  3. black tongue.
  4. black diarrhea.Chapter 12 – Water and the Major Minerals

    An. Page(s)/difficulty K = knowledge-level, A = application level

    Multiple Choice

    Questions for Section 12.1 Water and the Body Fluids

    c 383(A) 01. Approximately how much water (lbs) is found in a 134-lb person?

    1. 34
    2. 65
    3. 80
    4. 105

    b 383(A) 02. What is the body’s most indispensable nutrient?

    1. Fat
    2. Water
    3. Protein
    4. Glucose

    d 383(K) 03. What fraction of lean tissue represents the water content?

    1. 1/10
    2. 1/3
    3. 1/2
    4. 3/4

    b 383(K) 04. Which of the following is not a function of water in the body?

    1. Lubricant
    2. Source of energy
    3. Maintains protein structure
    4. Participant in chemical reactions

    b 383(K) 05. Which of the following contributes most to the weight of the human body?

    1. Iron
    2. Water
    3. Protein
    4. Calcium

    b 383(K) 06. Among the following groups, which has the highest percentage of body water?

    1. Elderly
    2. Children
    3. Obese people
    4. Female adolescents

    b 384(K) 07. In the body, water that resides between cells is known as

    1. diuretic fluid.
    2. interstitial fluid.
    3. edematous fluid.
    4. intravascular fluid.

    d 384(K) 08. All of the following are mild symptoms of dehydrationexcept

    1. thirst.
    2. fatigue.
    3. weakness.
    4. spastic muscles.

    d 384(K) 09. Which of the following body structures helps to regulate thirst?

    1. Brain stem
    2. Cerebellum
    3. Optic nerve
    4. Hypothalamus

    b 384(K) 10. Where is interstitial water found?

    1. Within cells
    2. Between cells
    3. Within the lungs
    4. Within blood vessels

    a 384(K) 11. Which of the following is a feature of water and nutrition?

    1. Water intoxication is rare but can result in death
    2. Water losses from the body are highest through the feces
    3. Chronic high intakes increase the risk for bladder cancer
    4. Soft water has significant concentrations of magnesium and calcium

    b 384(A) 12. What minimum level of body weight loss as water impairs a person’s physical performance?

    1. 1-2%
    2. 3-4%
    3. 5-9%
    4. 10-15%

    a 384(K) 13. What minimum percentage of body weight loss as water results in fatigue, weakness, and loss of appetite?

    1. 1-2
    2. 3-4
    3. 5-6
    4. 7-8

    b 384(K) 14. Abnormally low blood sodium concentration is known specifically as

    1. hypertension.
    2. hyponatremia.
    3. hyperkalemia.
    4. water intoxication.

    d 384-385(K) 15. Which of the following is a feature of water?

    1. Not a vital nutrient
    2. Not found in foods
    3. Oxidized to yield energy
    4. Generated from oxidation of energy nutrients

    c 385(K) 16. The average daily loss of water via the kidneys, lungs, feces, and skin is approximately

    1. 0 to 0.5 liters.
    2. 0.5 to 1.5 liters.
    3. 1.5 to 2.5 liters.
    4. 3.0 to 4.0 liters.

    c 385(K) 17. What is the minimum amount of water (mL) that must be excreted each day as urine in order to carry away the body’s waste products?

    1. 100
    2. 250
    3. 500
    4. 1,000

    d 385(A) 18. What is the minimum water intake for a 65-kg adult with an energy expenditure of 2,500 kcalories?

    1. 250 mL
    2. 650 mL
    3. 1,250 mL
    4. 2,500 mL

    d 385(A) 19. Approximately how much water is in a loaf of bread?

    1. 2% of the loaf
    2. 5% of the loaf
    3. 20% of the loaf
    4. 35% of the loaf

    c 385(A) 20. The minimum amount of water that must be excreted by the body to dispose of its wastes is termed

    1. life supporting fluid loss.
    2. mandatory water fraction.
    3. obligatory water excretion.
    4. minimum daily water requirement.

    d 385(A) 21. The approximate percentage of water in pizza is

    1. 5.
    2. 15.
    3. 30.
    4. 45.

    b 385(A) 22. Approximately how many mL of water/day are produced by metabolism?

    1. 100
    2. 250
    3. 500
    4. 750

    a 386(K) 23. Which of the following is present in highest concentration in soft water?

    1. Sodium
    2. Calcium
    3. Magnesium
    4. Phosphorus

    c 386(A) 24. Habitual intake of soft water is most likely to aggravate

    1. scurvy.
    2. diabetes.
    3. hypertension.
    4. megaloblastic anemia.

    d 386(K) 25. Which of the following is a characteristic of caffeine intake and water balance?

    1. Caffeine inhibits water absorption from the GI tract
    2. Caffeine is known to act as a diuretic only when consumed as coffee or tea
    3. Regular intake of caffeine promotes an increase in water retention of the interstitial fluid volume
    4. Habitual consumers of caffeine lose almost no more fluid from the body than when ingesting noncaffeinated beverages

    d 386(K) 26. Which of the following types of drinking water contains the lowest amount of minerals?

    1. Soft water
    2. Hard water
    3. Natural water
    4. Distilled water

    c 387(A) 27. What organ provides the major control for homeostasis of body fluids?

    1. Liver
    2. Heart
    3. Kidneys
    4. Skeletal muscle

    c 387(K) 28. How does antidiuretic hormone function?

    1. It activates renin
    2. It activates angiotension
    3. It stimulates water reabsorption by the kidneys
    4. It stimulates sodium reabsorption by the kidneys

    d 387(K) 29. What pituitary hormone regulates kidney retention of water?

    1. Thyroxine
    2. Cortisone
    3. Epinephrine
    4. Antidiuretic hormone

    a 387-388(A) 30. Factors that are effective in regulating the body’s water balance include all of the following except

    1. adrenaline.
    2. aldosterone.
    3. angiotensin.
    4. antidiuretic hormone.

    b 388(K) 31. Aldosterone and renin each function to promote

    1. electrolyte balance.
    2. retention of sodium.
    3. excretion of calcium.
    4. constriction of blood vessels.

    b 388(A) 32. Among the following, which promotes constriction of blood vessels resulting in elevation of blood pressure?

    1. Phytates
    2. Angiotensin
    3. Aldosterone
    4. Carbonic acid

    a 388(A) 33. What is the function of renin?

    1. Activates angiotensin
    2. Activates antidiuretic hormone
    3. Stimulates the thirst mechanism
    4. Stimulates water absorption from the GI tract

    b 389(K) 34. Ions that carry a positive charge are called

    1. anions.
    2. cations.
    3. mineralytes.
    4. valence ions.

    a 389(A) 35. Which of the following describes a way to make an electrolyte solution?

    1. Dissolve a teaspoon of salt in a glass of water
    2. Vigorously shake a mixture of corn oil and water
    3. Dissolve a pinch of corn starch in a glass of water
    4. Vigorously shake a pinch of table sugar in warm water

    d 389(K) 36. What is the major extracellular anion?

    1. Sodium
    2. Lactate
    3. Sulfate
    4. Chloride

    c 389(K) 37. What is the major intracellular anion?

    1. Protein
    2. Sodium
    3. Phosphate
    4. Bicarbonate

    a 389(K) 38. What is the major extracellular cation?

    1. Sodium
    2. Sulfate
    3. Protein
    4. Potassium

    d 389(K) 39. What is the major intracellular cation?

    1. Sodium
    2. Calcium
    3. Phosphate
    4. Potassium

    d 389-390(A) 40. All of the following are properties of electrolytes except

    1. they attract water.
    2. they are charged particles.
    3. they carry electrical current.
    4. they include fat-soluble as well as water-soluble particles.

    c 390(K) 41. What is the term for the pressure that develops when two solutions of varying concentrations are separated by a membrane?

    1. Hypotension
    2. Hypertension
    3. Osmotic pressure
    4. Hypertonic pressure

    b 390(K) 42. What is the force that moves water into a space where a solute is more concentrated?

    1. Buffer action
    2. Osmotic pressure
    3. Permeable selectivity
    4. Electrolyte imbalance

    b 390(K) 43. What is the sodium-potassium pump?

    1. A cell membrane protein that uses energy to pump sodium into the cell
    2. A cell membrane protein that uses energy to pump sodium out of the cell
    3. A mechanism present throughout interstitial fluid for draining sodium from the circulation
    4. A mechanism present in the kidneys that exchanges sodium with lactic acid in order to regulate organic acid concentration

    a 391-392(A) 44. When a person loses fluid by sweating or bleeding, what minerals are lost in greatest quantity?

    1. Sodium and chloride
    2. Bicarbonate and sulfate
    3. Calcium and magnesium
    4. Potassium and phosphate

    d 392(A) 45. All of the following are typical ingredients in an oral rehydration therapy formula except

    1. salt.
    2. water.
    3. sugar.
    4. protein.

    c 392(A) 46. The normal blood pH range is approximately

    1. 6.80-7.15.
    2. 6.98-7.12.
    3. 7.35-7.45.
    4. 7.55-8.55.

    b 392-393(K) 47. All of the following are common participants in the regulation of body fluid pH except

    1. proteins.
    2. oxalic acid.
    3. bicarbonate.
    4. carbonic acid.

    a 392-393(A) 48. All of the following play important roles in acid-base balance except

    1. the liver.
    2. the lungs.
    3. the kidneys.
    4. blood buffers.

    c 393(K) 49. What organ is the chief regulator of the body’s acid-base balance?

    1. Skin
    2. Liver
    3. Kidneys
    4. Stomach

    d 393(K) 50. What is a chief function of carbonic acid in the body?

    1. Activates andiotensin
    2. Activates angiotensinogen
    3. Helps with gastric digestion
    4. Helps maintain acid-base balance

    Questions for Section 12.2 The Minerals—An Overview

    a 393-394(K) 51. Which of the following is a general property of the minerals?

    1. When a food is burned, all the minerals are found in the ash
    2. Absorption efficiency from foods is similar among the minerals
    3. Minerals in food can be degraded by certain processing methods
    4. Some minerals in food are destroyed by exposure to ultraviolet light

    c 394(K) 52. Which of the following does not serve as a major regulator of fluid balance in the body?

    1. Sodium
    2. Chloride
    3. Calcium
    4. Potassium

    Questions for Section 12.3 Sodium

    a 395(A) 53. Which of the following events is specific to a salt-sensitive individual?

    1. Blood pressure increases as salt intake rises
    2. Immune system is activated when salt intake increases
    3. Muscle cramps occur when body sodium becomes depleted
    4. Thirst response is activated upon consumption of a sodium-rich food

    a 395(A) 54. In a normal individual with a daily requirement of 500 mg sodium, what would be the sodium balance after an intake of 10 g of common salt?

    1. Equilibrium
    2. Slight positive balance
    3. Strong positive balance
    4. Moderate positive balance

    c 395(A) 55. Normally, what is the relationship of the amount of sodium excreted to the amount ingested that day?

    1. Intake is higher
    2. Excretion is higher
    3. Intake and excretion are equal
    4. Excretion is unrelated to intake

    b 395(K) 56. What is another term for hypertension?

    1. High blood sodium
    2. High blood pressure
    3. Excessive mental stress
    4. Excessive muscular contraction

    a 395(K) 57. Salt-sensitive population groups include all of the following except

    1. Caucasians.
    2. African-Americans.
    3. people with obesity.
    4. people with diabetes.

    d 395(K) 58. The DASH diet plan was devised to prevent

    1. dehydration.
    2. constipation.
    3. osteoporosis.
    4. hypertension.

    c 395(A) 59. How much sodium is contained in a fast-food deluxe hamburger that lists a salt content of 2.5 g?

    1. 100 mg
    2. 125 mg
    3. 1,000 mg
    4. 2,500 mg

    b 395(K) 60. Even in people with normal blood pressure, what percent are salt sensitive?

    1. 10
    2. 25
    3. 50
    4. 100

    a 395-396(A) 61. Sam has recently been diagnosed with high blood pressure. His doctor recommended adopting the DASH diet plan. Along with including more fruits, vegetables, and whole grains, he was also advised to reduce daily sodium intake to no more than 2000 mg. How much salt (g) would be allowed under Sam’s restriction?

    1. 5
    2. 6.5
    3. 8
    4. 9.5

    a 396(A) 62. What is the greatest single source of sodium in the diet?

    1. Processed foods
    2. Unprocessed foods
    3. Natural salt content of foods
    4. Salt added during cooking and at the table

    b 396(A) 63. What percentage of a person’s total sodium intake derives from naturally occurring food sodium?

    1. 0
    2. 10
    3. 50
    4. 80

    b 396(K) 64. Which of the following is a feature of sodium and health?

    1. Salt sensitivity is generally rare in African-Americans
    2. High sodium intake is known to promote calcium excretion
    3. High sodium intake over many years leads to hypertension in most people
    4. Sodium alone and sodium in salt have nearly equivalent effects on blood pressure

    c 396(K) 65. Which of the following is a general characteristic of sodium in processed foods?

    1. Instant chocolate pudding is a low-sodium food
    2. Processed foods contribute less than half of the sodium in our diets
    3. Salted peanuts contain less sodium than cereals on a per-gram basis
    4. Dairy products and meats represent major sources of sodium in our diets

    a 397(A) 66. Why are salt tablets generally not recommended for people engaged in physical activity?

    1. They can induce dehydration
    2. They suppress the thirst mechanisms
    3. They may lead to complete kidney failure
    4. They reduce blood glucose concentration

    b 397(K) 67. What is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level for salt?

    1. 0.5 teaspoons
    2. 1 teaspoon
    3. 0.5 tablespoons
    4. 1 tablespoon

    b 397(K) 68. Hyponatremia refers to low blood concentration of

    1. renin.
    2. sodium.
    3. chloride.
    4. aldosterone.

    b 397-398(A) 69. What adverse response is known to occur in people who drink copious amounts of water while participating in intense physical activity?

    1. Dehydration
    2. Hyponatremia
    3. Metabolic alkalosis
    4. Elevated blood sodium

    d 397;395(K) 70. Which of the following is a feature of sodium nutrition?

    1. It has no AI because diets rarely lack sodium
    2. It has no AI because the kidneys are highly efficient at regulating sodium balance
    3. The AI is 3 g, an amount that has been shown to have little or no effect on blood pressure
    4. The AI for young adults is only 1500 mg because the body possesses an unusually efficient retention mechanism

    Questions for Section 12.4 Chloride

    b 398(A) 71. Which of the following minerals would a bulimia nervosa patient be likely to lose in the greatest amount?

    1. Calcium
    2. Chloride
    3. Potassium
    4. Phosphorus

    b 398(K) 72. Which of the following is a major function of chloride?

    1. Participates in wound healing
    2. Helps maintain gastric acidity
    3. Acts as principal intracellular electrolyte
    4. Protects bone structures against degeneration

    d 398(K) 73. All of the following are characteristics of chloride in nutrition except

    1. deficiencies are extremely rare.
    2. intake is related, in large part, to sodium intake.
    3. it is necessary for maintaining electrolyte balance of body fluids.
    4. the recommended intake has recently been set at 10 mg/kg body weight.

    c 398-399(K) 74. Which of the following is the primary function of potassium?

    1. Participates in wound healing
    2. Helps maintain gastric acidity
    3. Acts as principal intracellular electrolyte
    4. Protects bone structures against degeneration

    Questions for Section 12.5 Potassium

    d 398-399(K) 75. Which of the following is not a feature of potassium deficiency?

    1. It leads to hyperglycemia
    2. It leads to higher blood pressure
    3. It can be prevented by consumption of potatoes
    4. It is common due to availability of only a few good food sources

    d 399(A) 76. Barbara has been healthy up to the past couple of weeks, but since then has been complaining of considerable muscle weakness. Her doctor just received the results of blood tests, which showed that she is deficient in potassium. If Barbara continues her current habits of consuming a diet low in potassium, for which of the following disorders is she most likely to be at risk?

    1. Rickets
    2. Arthritis
    3. Low blood pressure
    4. High blood pressure

    b 399(K) 77. Which of the following is a feature of potassium?

    1. It is unrelated to blood pressure
    2. Liberal intakes may correct hypertension
    3. Major dietary sources are processed foods
    4. Deficiencies are usually the result of deficient intakes

    b 399(K) 78. Which of the following is a symptom of potassium deficiency?

    1. Extreme thirst
    2. Muscle weakness
    3. Profound sweating
    4. Lowered blood pressure

    c 399(A) 79. Which of the following people are at known risk for potassium depletion?

    1. Athletes who are body-builders
    2. Construction workers in cold climates
    3. Those who ingest low amounts of fresh fruits/vegetables
    4. Those who consume insufficient amounts of salted foods

    a 399;400(A) 80. All of the following are features of potassium in nutrition except

    1. processed foods are a major source.
    2. high intakes may protect against stroke.
    3. per serving size, legumes are a rich source.
    4. per serving size, bananas are a rich source.

    a 399;400(A) 81. Which of the following is not among the common food sources of potassium?

    1. Cheeses
    2. Potatoes
    3. Fresh fruits
    4. Orange juice

    a 400(A) 82. Which of the following is a feature of potassium supplements?

    1. Can cause toxicity
    2. Should always be taken with diuretics
    3. Necessary in treatment of low blood pressure
    4. Absorption of the mineral decreases markedly as intake increases

    Questions for Section 12.6 Calcium

    a 400(K) 83. Approximately what percentage of the body’s calcium is found in the blood?

    1. 1
    2. 5
    3. 15
    4. 25

    b 400(A) 84. Almost all (99%) of the calcium in the body is used to

    1. provide energy for cells.
    2. provide rigidity for the bones and teeth.
    3. regulate the transmission of nerve impulses.
    4. maintain the blood level of calcium within very narrow limits.

    b 400(K) 85. What is hydroxyapatite?

    1. Abnormal cellular structures seen in osteoporosis
    2. The calcium-rich crystalline structure of teeth and bones
    3. A calcium regulatory hormone secreted from the trabeculae region of bone
    4. A compound in plant foods that binds to calcium and phosphorus and inhibits absorption

    a 400-401(A) 86. As far as is known, which of the following is not a process that directly involves calcium?

    1. pH regulation
    2. Blood clotting
    3. Nerve transmission
    4. Maintenance of heart beat

    a 401(K) 87. What is calmodulin?

    1. A calcium-binding protein
    2. A drug that treats osteoporosis
    3. A calcium supplement with high bioavailability
    4. A form of calcium used in fortifying soy products

    c 401(K) 88. Which of the following is a feature of calcium in the body?

    1. High blood calcium levels correlate with tetany
    2. Abnormal dietary calcium intakes promote calcium rigor
    3. Higher calcium intakes correlate with lower body fatness
    4. Efficiency of intestinal calcium absorption is similar for children and adults

    d 401(K) 89. Which of the following regulates the level of calcium in the blood?

    1. Dietary intake of calcium
    2. Glucagon and epinephrine
    3. Dietary intake of phosphorus
    4. Parathyroid hormone and calcitonin

    d 401-402(A) 90. Tiffany is a strict vegan and does not consume calcium-rich plant foods nor supplements of calcium. Which of the following is most responsible for maintaining her blood calcium levels in the normal range?

    1. Calcitonin
    2. Calmodulin
    3. Hydroxyapatite
    4. Parathyroid hormone

    c 401-402(A) 91. Which of the following represents the least likely cause for an abnormal blood calcium level?

    1. Diseases of the liver
    2. Diseases of the kidney
    3. Insufficient dietary intake
    4. Altered secretion of parathyroid hormone

    a 402(A) 92. The muscle stiffness that results from abnormally high calcium levels in the blood is termed

    1. calcium rigor.
    2. calcium tetany.
    3. myosinotoxicosis.
    4. calmodulin dysfunction.

    b 402(K) 93. Calcium absorption is facilitated by the presence of

    1. fiber.
    2. lactose.
    3. phytic acid.
    4. oxalic acid.

    b 402(K) 94. All of the following are known to enhance calcium absorption from the GI tract except

    1. lactose.
    2. oxalates.
    3. pregnancy.
    4. stomach acid.

    d 402(A) 95. Which of the following foods are significant sources of oxalates?

    1. Seeds and nuts
    2. Processed cheeses
    3. Fermented dairy products
    4. Spinach and sweet potatoes

    b 402(A) 96. How much calcium (mg) would typically be absorbed by a normal adult with a calcium intake of 1,000 mg?

    1. 100
    2. 300
    3. 600
    4. 950

    b 402(K) 97. All of the following dietary substances are known to adversely affect calcium balance except

    1. a high-fiber diet.
    2. lactose in the diet.
    3. phytic acid in the diet.
    4. phosphorus in the diet at a level 3 times that of calcium.

    b 402(A) 98. Calcium-binding protein acts within the

    1. kidneys.
    2. intestines.
    3. cortical bone.
    4. trabecular bone.

    d 402(A) 99. Which of the following is a risk of consuming calcium supplements above the UL?

    1. Calcium tetany
    2. Atrophic gastritis
    3. Vitamin D deficiency
    4. Kidney stone formation

    d 403(K) 100. Which of the following are good sources of dietary calcium?

    1. Fruits
    2. Breads
    3. Enriched grains
    4. Certain green vegetables

    b 403-404(K) 101. Which of the following green vegetables shows the lowestbioavailability of calcium?

    1. Kale
    2. Spinach
    3. Broccoli
    4. Mustard greens

    d 403-404(A) 102. On a per kcalorie basis, which of the following are the best sources of calcium?

    1. Meats
    2. Fruits
    3. Breads
    4. Vegetables

    c 403-404(K) 103. Which of the following shows the highest bioavailability for calcium?

    1. Milk
    2. Spinach
    3. Broccoli
    4. Pinto beans

    a 403-404(K) 104. All of the following are good plant sources of calcium for the body except

    1. spinach.
    2. almonds.
    3. corn tortillas.
    4. sesame seeds.

    b 404(A) 105. Which of the following ages (years) is typically associated with people having the densest bone?

    1. 15
    2. 28
    3. 35
    4. 46

    a 404(K) 106. At what age do adults normally begin to lose bone mass?

    1. 30-40 yrs
    2. 40-50 yrs
    3. 50-60 yrs
    4. 60-70 yrs

    d 404(K) 107. Approximately how many people in the United States are afflicted with osteoporosis?

    1. 500,000
    2. 5 million
    3. 25 million
    4. 50 million

    c 404(K) 108. Certain green leafy vegetables have a very low calcium bioavailability due to the presence of

    1. low calcium content.
    2. low vitamin D content.
    3. naturally occurring binders.
    4. high magnesium content, which lowers calcium absorption.

    b 405(K) 109. Which of the following is a feature of osteoporosis?

    1. It is most common in men over 45 years of age
    2. It has virtually no effect on blood calcium levels
    3. It results from short-term deprivation of dietary calcium
    4. It causes significant alterations in the blood levels of parathormone and calcitonin

    c 406(A) 110. What is the calcium Adequate Intake for young adults?

    1. 500 mg
    2. 800 mg
    3. 1000 mg
    4. 1500 mg

    Questions for Section 12.7 Phosphorus

    d 406(K) 111. All of the following are characteristics of phosphorus in nutrition except

    1. high dietary intakes have no adverse effects.
    2. about 85% of the body’s phosphorus is located in bones and teeth.
    3. the phosphoric acid in cola drinks has little effect on bone content.
    4. the ratio of phosphorus to calcium in the diet is important for bone maintenance.

    a 406(K) 112. Which of the following is a feature of phosphorus?

    1. Involved in energy exchange
    2. Activates fat-soluble vitamins
    3. Ranks lowest among the minerals in amount present in the body
    4. Ranks highest among the minerals in amount present in the body

    b 406(K) 113. Which of the following is a feature of phosphorus in nutrition?

    1. Dietary sources include fresh vegetables
    2. Dietary deficiencies are virtually unknown
    3. Absorption is known to be reduced by soft drink consumption
    4. Its participation in bone synthesis requires equivalent intake of dietary calcium

    d 406(K) 114. Which of the following minerals is involved in the transportation of lipids through the body’s lymph and blood systems?

    1. Iron
    2. Sodium
    3. Calcium
    4. Phosphorus

    d 406(A) 115. Which of the following minerals is least likely to be deficient in anyone’s diet?

    1. Iron
    2. Calcium
    3. Chromium
    4. Phosphorus

    Questions for Section 12.8 Magnesium

    c 406;409(A) 116. All of the following characteristics are shared by calcium and magnesium except

    1. both are involved in blood clotting.
    2. both are involved in bone formation.
    3. both are found in abundance in dairy products.
    4. both may result in tetany when blood levels become abnormally low.

    a 407(K) 117. Where is the majority of the body’s magnesium found?

    1. Bones
    2. Teeth
    3. Fatty tissue
    4. Cells of soft tissue

    c 408(K) 118. Which of the following is a major function of magnesium?

    1. Transport of oxygen
    2. Prevention of anemia
    3. Catalyst in energy metabolism
    4. Production of thyroid hormone

    c 408(A) 119. A friend shows you a newspaper article titled “Magnesium’s Role in ATP Synthesis.” You explain that

    1. magnesium does not play a role in ATP synthesis.
    2. it is not magnesium but manganese that plays the role in ATP synthesis.
    3. magnesium serves as a catalyst in the reaction that adds the last phosphate to ATP.
    4. there are three magnesium groups within the ATP structure that help it do its work.

    d 408(A) 120. Which of the following minerals is required in the enzymatic phosphorylation of ADP?

    1. Iron
    2. Copper
    3. Sodium
    4. Magnesium

    c 408(K) 121. Which of the following is a feature of magnesium nutrition?

    1. The average body contains about 100 g
    2. Blood is a major reservoir of the mineral
    3. Deficiency is associated with hypertension
    4. Dietary intake data are the sum of the amounts from food and water

    d 408(K) 122. Which of the following is a feature of magnesium in nutrition?

    1. Toxicity is common in people taking diuretics
    2. High intakes interfere with stability of tooth enamel
    3. The amounts present in hard water are poorly utilized
    4. Average intakes from food are below recommendations

    c 408(A) 123. The magnesium present in mineral water has a bioavailability of about

    1. 5%.
    2. 25%.
    3. 50%.
    4. 90%.

    d 408;409(K) 124. Magnesium is known to be involved in all of the following except

    1. blood clotting.
    2. muscle contraction.
    3. prevention of dental caries.
    4. production of red blood cells.

    Questions for Section 12.9 Sulfate

    b 409(K) 125. Sulfur is present in practically all

    1. vitamins.
    2. proteins.
    3. fatty acids.
    4. carbohydrates.

    a 409(K) 126. Some amino acids can link to each other by bridges made of

    1. sulfur.
    2. calcium.
    3. chloride.
    4. magnesium.

    b 409(K) 127. What is the major source of dietary sulfur?

    1. Fats
    2. Protein
    3. Mineral salts
    4. Carbohydrates

    c 409(A) 128. All of the following are known to have a high sulfur content except

    1. skin.
    2. hair.
    3. teeth.
    4. nails.

    Questions for Section 12.10 Osteoporosis and Calcium

    a 413(K) 129. The outer, hard shell of bone is called

    1. cortical bone.
    2. dolomitic bone.
    3. trabecular bone.
    4. hydroxyl bone.

    b 413(K) 130. All of the following are characteristics of dolomite supplements except

    1. efficiency of absorption is poor.
    2. they are usually sold as a very pure product.
    3. they contain both calcium and magnesium.
    4. they are commonly extracted from limestone.

    c 413(K) 131. Which of the following is a function of trabecular bone?

    1. Synthesis of vitamin D
    2. Synthesis of calcitonin
    3. Storage site for calcium
    4. Storage site for vitamin D

    d 413(K) 132. The incidence of death within 1 year of sustaining a hip fracture is about

    1. 2%
    2. 6%
    3. 14%
    4. 25%

    a 413(K) 133. In what decade of life does osteoporosis first begin in men and women?

    1. Fourth
    2. Fifth
    3. Sixth
    4. Seventh

    d 414(A) 134. For every man who has type I osteoporosis, about how many women have it?

    1. 2
    2. 3
    3. 4
    4. 6

    a 414(K) 135. The most common fracture sites of osteoporosis type I are

    1. spine and wrist.
    2. hip and femur.
    3. neck and shoulder.
    4. elbow and knee.

    a 414(A) 136. What does a DEXA scan measure?

    1. Bone density
    2. Severity of bone microfractures
    3. Bioavailability of calcium supplements
    4. Calcium absorption and excretion balance

    b 414-415(K) 137. Which of the following is a feature of type I osteoporosis?

    1. It shows onset after 70 years of age
    2. It can be prevented by taking estrogen
    3. It leads to formation of the “dowager’s hump”
    4. Its prevalence is similar between males and females

    c 415(K) 138. What percentage of hip fractures in men and women are due to osteoporosis?

    1. 40-50
    2. 60-75
    3. 80-90
    4. 100

    d 415(K) 139. All of the following are known to have a high correlation with risk for osteoporosis except

    1. being thin.
    2. being female.
    3. having anorexia nervosa.
    4. consuming a high-protein diet.

    b 415(K) 140. Protective factors for osteoporosis include all of the following except

    1. obesity.
    2. female gender.
    3. moderate alcohol intake.
    4. having African American heritage.

    b 415(A) 141. The strongest predictor for loss of bone density is a person’s

    1. sex.
    2. age.
    3. calcium intake.
    4. blood estrogen level.

    b 416(K) 142. The development of osteoporosis in men typically occurs at what age in relation to the appearance of osteoporosis in women?

    1. 3 years later
    2. 10 years later
    3. About the same
    4. 4 years earlier

    b 416(A) 143. A person’s highest bone density is achieved by around age (years)

    1. 18.
    2. 30.
    3. 55.
    4. 70.

    d 416(A) 144. What percentage of people with osteoporosis are female?

    1. 20
    2. 40
    3. 60
    4. 80

    a 416(K) 145. After age, what is the next strongest risk factor for osteoporosis?

    1. Sex
    2. Tobacco use
    3. Calcium intake
    4. Physical activity level

    d 416(K) 146. Antiresorptive drug treatments for osteoporosis work primarily by

    1. stimulating parathormone release.
    2. inhibiting kidney excretion of calcium.
    3. stimulating intestinal calcium absorption.
    4. inhibiting the activities of the bone-degrading cells.

    b 416(K) 147. Anabolic drug treatments for osteoporosis work chiefly by

    1. stimulating estrogen release.
    2. enhancing osteoblast activity.
    3. stimulating calcium absorption.
    4. reducing renal calcium excretion.

    a 416(A) 148. Estrogen therapy for osteoporosis is often rejected because it may increase risk for

    1. cancer.
    2. heart disease.
    3. hypertension.
    4. diverticulosis.

    a 417(K) 149. Which of the following is not known to be a risk factor for osteoporosis in men?

    1. High BMI
    2. Alcohol abuse
    3. Corticosteroid use
    4. Low testosterone levels

    d 417(K) 150. The primary mechanism by which soy consumption may lower the risk for osteoporosis is related to

    1. greater kidney retention of calcium.
    2. the presence of bioavailable calcium.
    3. more stable hydroxyapatite crystal formation.
    4. the estrogen-like activity of soy phytochemicals.

    d 417(K) 151. What component of soy is thought to account for most of its beneficial effects on bone health?

    1. Fiber
    2. Protein
    3. Calcium
    4. Phytochemicals

    c 417(K) 152. Among the following ethnic groups, which has the highest bone density?

    1. Japanese
    2. Caucasian
    3. African-American
    4. South American Hispanic

    b 417(A) 153. What is the incidence of bone fractures in African American women in comparison with Caucasian women?

    1. Same
    2. One-half as much
    3. Twice as much
    4. Three times as much

    c 417(K) 154. Which of the following is a feature of physical activity and bone health?

    1. Dancing is not an effective activity for helping maintain bone density
    2. Weight training improves bone density in young but not older women
    3. Working the muscles places stress on bones which promotes bone density
    4. Weight-bearing activities are effective in maintaining bone mass in adults but not in adolescents

    b 417(K) 155. Which of the following best explains why Asians from Japan and China show fewer bone fractures than do Caucasians and Hispanic people?

    1. They have denser bones
    2. They have small, compact, hips
    3. They have higher calcium intakes
    4. They use less tobacco and alcohol

    c 417-418(K) 156. Which of the following is not a feature of body weight and bone health?

    1. Weight loss adversely affects bone density
    2. Negative energy balance typically reduces calcium absorption
    3. A low-calcium diet promotes similar bone loss in normal and overweight people
    4. People with BMIs over 30 have denser bones than their counterparts with BMIs around 25

    d 418(K) 157. All of the following are features of bone health and smoking except

    1. bone density appears to recover in former smokers.
    2. older smokers have less dense bones than older nonsmokers.
    3. sedentary smokers have less dense bones than sedentary nonsmokers.
    4. smokers adapt by increasing their calcium absorption and reducing their bone resorption rate.

    c 418(K) 158. Which of the following is characteristic of calcium nutrition in teenagers?

    1. The recommended intake is higher for girls than boys
    2. The recommended intake is 800-1,000 mg for this population group
    3. The intake of calcium is higher in boys than girls because they eat more food
    4. The dietary intakes of calcium are similar for girls and boys of this population group

    a 418(K) 159. Which of the following is a feature of calcium supplements?

    1. Common antacids are used as a source of calcium
    2. The bioavailability of calcium from most supplements is significantly lower than from milk
    3. There are large differences in the efficiency of calcium absorption from various supplements
    4. The calcium in supplements made from oyster shell and bone meal is more absorbable than the calcium in calcium citrate and calcium lactate

    a 418(K) 160. Among the following calcium supplements, which is most likely to be contaminated with toxic minerals?

    1. Oyster shells
    2. Calcium lactate
    3. Calcium citrate
    4. Calcium carbonate

    b 418(K) 161. Which of the following is not a characteristic of alcohol and bone health?

    1. Alcohol intake promotes urinary calcium loss
    2. Even moderate alcohol intake reduces bone density
    3. Bone breakdown is enhanced from excess alcohol consumption
    4. Hormones involved in bone maintenance are adversely affected by alcohol intake

    a 419(K) 162. Which of the following is a characteristic of calcium supplement use?

    1. Taking them with a meal enhances absorption of calcium
    2. Taking them with iron supplements enhances absorption of iron
    3. Supplements of calcium carbonate show higher bioavailability than calcium citrate
    4. Small pills containing a large amount of calcium salt show faster dissolution in the stomach

    c 419(A) 163. For optimal utilization of calcium supplements, it is best to take them several times a day, in doses up to

    1. 100 mg.
    2. 200 mg.
    3. 500 mg.
    4. 800 mg.

    c 419(A) 164. Among the following calcium supplements, which is most calcium-dense?

    1. Calcium citrate
    2. Calcium lactate
    3. Calcium carbonate
    4. Calcium gluconate

    d 419(A) 165. Common side effects of taking a high-dose calcium supplement include all of the following except

    1. constipation.
    2. excessive gas.
    3. intestinal bloating.
    4. increased iron absorption.

    d 419(A) 166. Among the following calcium supplements, which contains the lowest percentage of calcium?

    1. Calcium citrate
    2. Calcium lactate
    3. Calcium carbonate
    4. Calcium gluconate

    b 419(A) 167. How many mg of calcium are present in a 500-mg tablet of calcium carbonate?

    1. 100
    2. 200
    3. 350
    4. 500

    c 419(K) 168. To minimize the risk of calcium toxicity, total daily intakes should be held to a maximum of

    1. 500 mg.
    2. 1,000 mg.
    3. 2,500 mg.
    4. 5,000 mg.

    a 419(A) 169. What is most likely to occur when a calcium supplement and an iron supplement are taken simultaneously?

    1. Absorption of iron is reduced
    2. Absorption of iron is improved
    3. Excretion of iron in the urine is reduced
    4. Excretion of iron in the urine is enhanced

    Chapter 14 – Fitness: Physical Activity, Nutrients, and Body Adaptations

    An. Page(s)/difficulty K = knowledge-level, A = application level

    Multiple Choice

    Question for Section 14.0 Introduction

    c 457(K) 01. All of the following are acceptable definitions of the term fitness except

    1. the ability of the body to resist stress.
    2. the ability of the body to perform physical activity without undue stress.
    3. the ability to maintain a normal body composition and remain free of injury while performing strenuous physical tasks.
    4. the ability to meet normal physical and emotional demands while maintaining an energy reserve sufficient to overcome an immediate challenge.

    Questions for Section 14.1 Fitness

    d 457(K) 02. Which of the following are features of physical activity and exercise?

    1. Neither involves mandatory body movement
    2. Neither involves enhanced energy expenditure
    3. Physical activity, but not exercise, involves muscle contractions
    4. Exercise, but not physical activity, is thought to be vigorous, structured, and planned

    c 458(K) 03. The components of fitness include all of the following except

    1. strength.
    2. flexibility.
    3. bone fragility.
    4. cardiovascular endurance.

    a 458(K) 04. Which of the following is generally not associated with a regular program of physical fitness?

    1. Reduced bone density
    2. Lower blood pressure
    3. Fall in resting pulse rate
    4. Diminished blood cholesterol

    b 458(K) 05. What percentage of U.S. adults lives a completely sedentary lifestyle?

    1. 5
    2. 20
    3. 45
    4. 60

    b 458(K) 06. What may, in part, account for the reduced risk of gallbladder disease in women who engage in regular physical activity?

    1. Increased fiber intake
    2. Reduction of blood lipids
    3. Alteration of hormonal profile
    4. Reduction of dietary fat intake

    b 459(K) 07. Which of the following is a feature of physical activity recommendations?

    1. The minimum daily amount of exercise for health’s sake is 10 minutes
    2. The same level of effectiveness can be achieved by dividing the activity in shorter sessions throughout the day
    3. To maintain a healthy body weight, a minimum of 75 minutes per day of vigorous (intensive) exercise is necessary
    4. Walking each day as the only physical activity is not enough to meet the guidelines for quantity and quality of physical activity

    c 460(K) 08. Substantial health benefits may be achieved by engaging in a moderately intense level of exercise at a frequency of at least

    1. 10 minutes/day.
    2. 20 minutes/day.
    3. 2.5 hours/week.
    4. 5 hours/week.

    d 460(K) 09. All of the following are categorized as fitness strength activities except

    1. pilates.
    2. pull-ups.
    3. push-ups.
    4. kickboxing.

    a 460;461(K) 10. Which of the following best exemplifies an activity that promotes flexibility?

    1. Yoga
    2. Pilates
    3. Weight lifting
    4. Jumping rope

    d 461(K) 11. Which of the following components of training define(s) the progressive overload principle?

    1. Intensity only
    2. Frequency only
    3. Frequency and flexibility only
    4. Intensity, frequency, and duration only

    a 461(K) 12. What is muscle atrophy?

    1. Loss of muscle size and strength
    2. Muscle cramps arising from insufficient warm-up
    3. Muscle spasms resulting from too-rapid progressive overloading
    4. Alterations in heart muscle contractions when first initiating a fitness program

    b 461(A) 13. A muscle that increases in size in response to use is an example of

    1. atrophy.
    2. hypertrophy.
    3. muscular endurance.
    4. muscle engorgement.

    c 461(A) 14. Athletes can safely add muscle tissue by

    1. tripling protein intake.
    2. taking hormones duplicating those of puberty.
    3. putting a demand on muscles repeatedly by making them work harder.
    4. relying on protein for muscle fuel and decreasing intake of carbohydrates.

    b 462(K) 15. The duration of exercise warm-up and cool-down periods should be

    1. 1-2 minutes each.
    2. 5-10 minutes each.
    3. 15 minutes each.
    4. 2 minutes warm-up and 4 minutes cool-down.

    a 462(K) 16. Which of the following is not derived directly from cardiorespiratory conditioning?

    1. Increased flexibility
    2. Slowed resting pulse
    3. Increased breathing efficiency
    4. Increased blood volume and oxygen delivery

    d 462(K) 17. The effect of regular exercise on heart and lung function is known as

    1. muscle fitness.
    2. muscle endurance.
    3. cardiopulmonary adaptation.
    4. cardiorespiratory conditioning.

    a 462(K) 18. For maximum benefits, cardiorespiratory endurance episodes should be sustained for at least

    1. 20 minutes.
    2. 40 minutes.
    3. 1 hour.
    4. 2 hours.

    a 462(A) 19. The typical person who achieves cardiorespiratory conditioning can expect to alter resting pulse rate (beats per minute) by about

    1. -20.
    2. -10.
    3. +10.
    4. +20.

    c 462(K) 20. The volume of blood ejected by the heart each minute is known as the

    1. VO2 max.
    2. one-half VO2 max.
    3. cardiac output.
    4. cardiac conditioned index.

    b 462(A) 21. A person’s “VO2 max” is the maximum

    1. velocity on a treadmill test.
    2. rate of oxygen consumption.
    3. intake of oxygen while at rest.
    4. intake of air at 70% physical exhaustion.

    d 463(A) 22. If a person’s maximum heart rate is 220 beats/min, what is the safe maximum heart rate during vigorous exercise?

    1. 110
    2. 142
    3. 165
    4. 198

    b 463-464(A) 23. Pat has gained about 20 pounds in the past 5 years and has come to you for help with a diet and exercise regimen. In order to promote optimal fat loss through exercise, in which of the following activities should Pat participate?

    1. Wearing an electrical impulse belt throughout the day
    2. Low- to moderate-intensity aerobic exercise like hiking
    3. High-intensity aerobic activity like cycling, swimming, or running
    4. Very high-intensity anaerobic activity like ¼ mile run at maximal speed

    d 464(A) 24. In weight training, muscle endurance can best be emphasized by combining a

    1. low number of repetitions with heavy weight.
    2. low number of repetitions with lighter weight.
    3. high number of repetitions with heavy weight.
    4. high number of repetitions with lighter weight.

    a 464(A) 25. In weight training, muscle strength can best be emphasized by combining a

    1. low number of repetitions with heavy weight.
    2. low number of repetitions with lighter weight.
    3. high number of repetitions with heavy weight.
    4. high number of repetitions with lighter weight.

    Questions for Section 14.2 Energy Systems and Fuels to Support Activity

    a 465(K) 26. What is the predominant fuel used by muscle cells during low- or moderate-intensity activity?

    1. Fat
    2. Protein
    3. Glycogen
    4. Blood glucose

    c 465(A) 27. Chris has been competing all day in a track competition and is now ready for the 100-meter dash. Although he feels tired, which of the following high-energy muscle compounds can he rely on for quick energy in this event?

    1. Fat
    2. Lactate
    3. Creatine phosphate
    4. Adenosine diphosphate

    d 465(K) 28. What high-energy compound acts as a reservoir of energy for the maintenance of a steady supply of ATP?

    1. Glycerol
    2. Glycogen
    3. Fatty acids
    4. Creatine phosphate

    b 465(K) 29. During physical performance, what is the role of creatine phosphate?

    1. Removal of lactic acid
    2. Transfer of energy to make ATP
    3. Removal of nitrogen waste products
    4. Transfer of phosphate to muscle fiber

    b 465(A) 30. A person who suddenly begins sprinting will exhaust the muscles’ supply of creatine phosphate in about

    1. 1 second.
    2. 10 seconds.
    3. 1 minute.
    4. 10 minutes.

    a 465(A) 31. If muscle work is anaerobic, which of the following cannotserve as fuel?

    1. Fat
    2. Protein
    3. Carbohydrate

    a 465(K) 32. What substance contains the chemical energy that drives immediate muscle contraction?

    1. ATP
    2. NAD
    3. Glucose
    4. Fatty acids

    a 466(A) 33. What is the usual fate of muscle glycogen during exercise?

    1. Utilized as a fuel within the muscle cells only
    2. Released into the bloodstream to provide fuel for brain cells
    3. Released into the bloodstream to replenish liver glycogen as needed
    4. Utilized to support lung and heart function under conditions of intense physical performance

    c 466(A) 34. What dietary nutrients are most effective at raising muscle glycogen concentrations?

    1. Fats
    2. Proteins
    3. Carbohydrates
    4. Chromium and iron

    c 466(A) 35. Which of the following diets promotes superior physical performance in athletes?

    1. High-fat diet
    2. High-protein diet
    3. High-carbohydrate diet
    4. Normal mixed diet with vitamin supplements

    c 466(A) 36. In the average person, the amount of stored glycogen represents how many kcal?

    1. 500
    2. 1000
    3. 2000
    4. 4000

    d 466-467(A) 37. Which of the following activities depletes glycogen most quickly?

    1. Hiking
    2. Jogging
    3. Walking
    4. Quarter-mile run

    c 466-468(A) 38. Which of the following is least likely to affect the size of the body’s glycogen stores?

    1. Exercise regimen
    2. Fat content of the diet
    3. Type of supplements taken
    4. Carbohydrate content of the diet

    b 467(A) 39. A tissue deprived of an oxygen supply during exercise would develop an accumulation of

    1. ATP.
    2. lactate.
    3. glucose-1-phosphate.
    4. TCA cycle intermediates.

    b 467(A) 40. Which of the following substances increases in muscles during intense exercise?

    1. ATP
    2. Lactate
    3. Glycogen
    4. Phosphocreatine

    a 467(A) 41. Which of the following is a common product of anaerobic metabolism?

    1. Lactate
    2. Phytate
    3. Phosphoric acid
    4. Hydrochloric acid

    a 467(K) 42. What is the name of the biochemical pathway describing the conversion of lactate to glucose?

    1. Cori cycle
    2. Krebs cycle
    3. Beta-oxidation
    4. Reverse glycolysis

    b 467(K) 43. How much time spent in vigorous activity is usually needed to deplete glycogen reserves?

    1. 1 hour
    2. 2 hours
    3. 3 hours
    4. 4 hours

    a 467(K) 44. What is the Cori cycle?

    1. A process in the liver that regenerates glucose from lactate released by muscles
    2. A sequence of coordinated muscle contractions of slow-twitch and fast-twitch fibers
    3. An exercise machine that allows development of both aerobic and anaerobic capacities
    4. A group of enzymatic reactions that accelerate muscle glycogen repletion in trained athletes

    d 467(K) 45. During the first 20 minutes of moderate exercise, the body uses about

    1. 50% of the available fat.
    2. 10% of the available water.
    3. 90% of the available protein.
    4. 20% of the available glycogen.

    c 468(A) 46. When a marathon runner experiences the phenomenon known as “hitting the wall,” what nutrient is most likely depleted?

    1. Water
    2. Protein
    3. Glucose
    4. Fatty acids

    d 468(A) 47. What type of meal and time of its ingestion promote the most rapid repletion of glycogen stores after physical activity?

    1. Mixed meal taken within 4 hours
    2. Mixed meal taken within 30 minutes
    3. High-carbohydrate meal taken within 2½ hours
    4. High-carbohydrate meal taken within 15 minutes

    c 468-469(K) 48. Which of the following is a characteristic of glycogen synthesis after a bout of strenuous training?

    1. Glycogen synthesis is maximal beginning 2 hours after training
    2. Glycogen synthesis proceeds at an even pace over the next 24 hours
    3. Glycogen repletion is enhanced most by eating foods with a high glycemic index
    4. Glycogen repletion is enhanced most by eating foods with a low glycemic index

    a 469(A) 49. A person engaging in exercise at a moderate level should walk at a speed of one mile per

    1. quarter hour.
    2. half hour.
    3. hour.
    4. hour and a half.

    a 469(K) 50. Which of the following is a property of conditioned muscles?

    1. They can store more glycogen
    2. They are more efficient at converting fat to glucose
    3. They contain less mitochondria due to increased glucose utilization
    4. They rely less on fat breakdown and more on glucose oxidation for energy

    c 469(K) 51. Which of the following describes a characteristic of fat use during physical activity?

    1. Upon commencing an activity, blood fatty acids rise to provide an immediate source of fuel
    2. Fat that is present within the muscle fiber represents the primary source of energy for that muscle
    3. Athletes who consume a high-fat, low-carbohydrate diet for even one day are at risk for depleting their glycogen reserves quickly
    4. After consumption of a high-fat diet for at least 2 weeks, physical activities are performed as efficiently as from intake of a high-carbohydrate diet

    c 469(K) 52. What cellular organelles are responsible for producing ATP aerobically?

    1. Ribosomes
    2. Golgi bodies
    3. Mitochondria
    4. Cell membranes

    c 470(K) 53. For optimal performance of endurance athletes, sports nutritionists recommend approximately how much dietary fat energy?

    1. 5-10%
    2. 10-15%
    3. 20-35%
    4. 35-45%

    c 470(A) 54. During a physical activity, what hormone signals the fat cells to begin releasing their fatty acids?

    1. Leptin
    2. Glucagon
    3. Epinephrine
    4. Neuropeptide-Y

    b 470(A) 55. Which of the following describes fat utilization during physical activity?

    1. Fat that is stored closest to the exercising muscle is oxidized first
    2. Fat represents the major fuel source during sustained, moderate activity
    3. Fat oxidization makes more of a contribution as the intensity of the exercise increases
    4. Fat is burned in higher quantities during short, high-intensity exercises than prolonged, low-intensity exercises

    b 470(A) 56. Which of the following is an effect of physical fitness on fat metabolism?

    1. Fatty acid release from adipose cells directly into muscle cells becomes more efficient
    2. Fatty acid concentrations in the blood rise significantly after the first 20 minutes of physical activity
    3. Fatty acid energy release requires less oxygen on a per-kcalorie basis than does the use of glucose
    4. Fat utilization slows down and liver glucose release rises in response to adaptation of the body’s hormonal profile

    a 470(A) 57. Which of the following is a sure sign that muscles are using their maximum amount of energy from fat?

    1. Breathing is easy
    2. Training regimen is optimal
    3. Balanced diets were ingested
    4. High-glycemic index foods were ingested

    d 471(A) 58. In the immediate postexercise period, what type of diet enhances muscle protein synthesis?

    1. Protein alone
    2. Carbohydrate alone
    3. Carbohydrate plus fat
    4. Carbohydrate plus protein

    a 471(A) 59. Which of the following is an effect of exercise on protein metabolism?

    1. Protein synthesis is inhibited during exercise
    2. Protein use as a fuel is lowest in endurance athletes
    3. Protein use during physical performance is generally not related to carbohydrate content of the diet
    4. Protein synthesis is increased slightly during exercise but thereafter diminishes by a like amount to remain in balance

    a 471(A) 60. Which of the following is a feature of protein nutrition in physical activity?

    1. Protein is not a major fuel for physical activity
    2. Body protein synthesis rates increase about 10% during physical activity
    3. Protein contributes 30% more to total fuel used for physical activity than during rest
    4. Body protein synthesis rates decline about 30% for several hours after physical activity

    d 471(A) 61. Which of the following is not known to modify the body’s use of protein?

    1. Diet
    2. The degree of training
    3. Exercise intensity and duration
    4. Vitamin supplements above the RDA

    c 471(K) 62. Which of the following is a characteristic of protein use in physical activity?

    1. Protein use in endurance events is less than for strength events
    2. Protein use for energy is significant in anaerobic strength training
    3. Protein contributes up to 10% of total fuel used, which is similar to the resting state
    4. Protein contributes approximately the same amount to total energy use on high-carbohydrate or high-fat diets

    b 471-472(A) 63. Which of the following is a role for diet in physical activity?

    1. Diets high in fat lead to a fall in amino acid utilization for fuel
    2. Diets lacking in carbohydrates lead to increased amino acid utilization for fuel
    3. Deficiencies of vitamins have no effect on performance provided that all other nutrients are adequate
    4. Deficiencies of minerals have no effect on performance provided that all other nutrients are adequate

    c 472(A) 64. For female endurance athletes, about how much more protein above the RDA is recommended by recognized health organizations?

    1. 10-20%
    2. 25-35%
    3. 50-75%
    4. 100-150%

    c 472(A) 65. According to several recognized health organizations, about how many grams of protein per day are recommended for a female, 50-kg marathon runner?

    1. 40-45
    2. 50-64
    3. 60-70
    4. 120-154

    c 472(A) 66. Which of the following describes the role of protein in the diet of competitive athletes?

    1. The need for protein per kg body weight is higher in female athletes than in male athletes
    2. The need for protein is best met by increasing the level to 20-25% of total energy content of the diet
    3. The need for protein in weight lifters and marathon runners may be up to 50-100% higher than the RDA
    4. The need for protein in most athletes generally could not be met from diets meeting energy requirements but providing only 10% of the energy as protein

    b 472(A) 67. According to several recognized health organizations, about how many grams of protein per day are recommended for a male, 70-kg strength athlete?

    1. 56
    2. 112
    3. 140
    4. 168

    c 472(A) 68. Your friend Bob, who engages in endurance exercise throughout the week, is concerned that his protein intake is inadequate and asks what type of protein supplement he should take. You assure him that

    1. all high-quality protein drinks are equivalent despite the price differences.
    2. the extra protein he needs should be high-quality lean sources of poultry and fish.
    3. he most likely already gets more protein from his regular diet than he needs, even for endurance activity.
    4. no sports authority organizations recommend protein intakes greater than the RDA for endurance athletes.

    Questions for Section 14.3 Vitamins and Minerals to Support Activity

    d 473(A) 69. Which of the following is not a feature of vitamin E in people who engage in regular high-intensity physical activity?

    1. Some studies show that vitamin E supplements increase exercise-induced oxidative stress
    2. Supplements of vitamin E interfere with protective adaptations to free-radical formation
    3. Some studies find that vitamin E supplements protect against exercise-induced oxidative stress
    4. The benefits of vitamin E supplements on performance occur from immediate intake right before the event

    b 473(K) 70. Which of the following is a feature of vitamin E supplementation and physical activity?

    1. Some studies indicate that vitamin E supplementation for 3 weeks protects against the development of sports anemia in women
    2. Some studies show that vitamin E in high doses seems to protect against exercise-induced oxidative stress whereas others show the opposite
    3. Some studies show that vitamin E supplements improve aerobic performance by 25-30% in endurance athletes competing outdoors in air-polluted environments
    4. Some studies show that high-dose vitamin E intake protects against premature oxidation of conjugated linoleic acid supplements, which serve as a unique fuel for strength athletes

    a 473(A) 71. What nutrient is important in the transport of oxygen in blood and in muscle tissue and in energy transformation reactions?

    1. Iron
    2. Calcium
    3. Thiamin
    4. Vitamin C

    d 473-474(K) 72. Which of the following represents current knowledge of the role of vitamin and mineral supplements in physical performance?

    1. When taken right before an event, they have been shown to benefit performance
    2. Moderate amounts have been shown to improve the performance of most elite athletes
    3. Except perhaps for iron, they are needed in high amounts to meet the needs of athletes exposed to hot and humid weather conditions
    4. Except perhaps for iron and vitamin E, supplements are not recommended because there is no difference in the RDA of physically active people compared with sedentary people

    a 473-474(A) 73. Mary is 15 years old and has just joined her high school swim team. After the first three months of training and competing, her coach sends the team for mandatory physical examinations and routine blood tests. When Mary got home, she told her mom that she has sports anemia. Why shouldn’t Mary begin taking iron supplements as a way to treat this condition?

    1. The anemia is not correctible by extra iron intake
    2. The anemia is most likely the result of folate deficiency
    3. The iron will interfere with creatine phosphate synthesis
    4. The iron will not be absorbed well because of the intense work-outs

    b 474(K) 74. Which of the following is a characteristic of sports anemia?

    1. It requires prolonged treatment
    2. It is a temporary condition requiring no treatment
    3. It responds to treatment only with high doses of iron
    4. It is due primarily to increased iron loss via perspiration

    a 474(K) 75. Which of the following is a feature of sports anemia?

    1. It is not a true iron-deficiency anemia
    2. It is usually corrected by iron supplementation
    3. It is found primarily in over-conditioned athletes
    4. It is associated with reduced cardiorespiratory fitness

    b 474(K) 76. Which of the following is a feature of iron nutrition in athletes?

    1. Iron in sweat represents the major route of iron loss from the body
    2. Iron losses occur from accelerated destruction of fragile, older blood cells
    3. Iron deficiency affects a higher percentage of male athletes than female athletes
    4. Sports anemia is successfully treated by increasing dietary iron to levels 2-3 times the RDA

    Questions for Section 14.4 Fluids and Electrolytes to Support Activity

    b 474(K) 77. What nutrient becomes depleted most rapidly during physical exercise?

    1. Iron
    2. Water
    3. Glucose
    4. Glycogen

    a 474(K) 78. Physical performance is noticeably affected when body water loss first reaches

    1. 2%.
    2. 5%.
    3. 10%.
    4. 12%.

    b 474(K) 79. What minimum amount of body water loss (as a percentage of body weight) is likely to cause a person to collapse?

    1. 2
    2. 7
    3. 15
    4. 25

    a 474(K) 80. The first sign of dehydration is typically

    1. fatigue.
    2. dizziness.
    3. intense thirst.
    4. intense sweating.

    d 474(A) 81. A person engaged in an endurance event has lost two liters of body water by sweating. What would be the approximate energy loss from the evaporation of the sweat?

    1. 100 kcal
    2. 500 kcal
    3. 850 kcal
    4. 1200 kcal

    a 474(A) 82. What would be the minimum amount of body water loss necessary to bring about a reduction in work capacity of an average 165-pound individual?

    1. 1½ liters
    2. 3½ liters
    3. 6 liters
    4. 10 liters

    a 474(A) 83. In the endurance athlete, the first priority of nutrient repletion should be

    1. fluids.
    2. protein.
    3. glycogen.
    4. electrolytes.

    a 474-475(K) 84. All of the following are characteristics of heat stroke except

    1. it is rarely fatal.
    2. it is due, in part, to dehydration.
    3. it is caused by heat buildup in the body.
    4. its symptoms include headache, nausea, and mental changes.

    b 474-475(A) 85. A person engaged in physically active work in hot, humid weather and who wears a rubber suit to promote weight loss is at high risk of experiencing

    1. ketosis.
    2. heat stroke.
    3. hypothermia.
    4. overhydration.

    b 475(K) 86. Which of the following are common early symptoms of hypothermia in athletes?

    1. Headache and nausea
    2. Euphoria and shivering
    3. Confusion and delirium
    4. Dizziness and clumsiness

    c 475(K) 87. Which of the following is a feature of water metabolism during exercise?

    1. The maximum loss of fluid per hour of exercise is about 0.5 liters
    2. In cold weather, the need for water falls dramatically because the body does not sweat
    3. Sweat losses can exceed the capacity of the GI tract to absorb water, resulting in some degree of dehydration
    4. Heavy sweating leads to a marked rise in the thirst sensation to stimulate water intake, which delays the onset of dehydration

    c 475(A) 88. The appearance of confusion and clumsiness in a person engaged in outdoor sports activities may be an early sign of

    1. heat stroke.
    2. dehydration.
    3. hypothermia.
    4. exertional distress.

    c 475-478(K) 89. All of the following are characteristics of electrolyte metabolism in sports except

    1. the trained athlete actually loses fewer electrolytes than the untrained person.
    2. replenishment of lost electrolytes in most athletes can be accomplished by ingesting a regular diet.
    3. sweating leads to significant losses of calcium, sulfur, and chromium which can be replaced by including milk and whole grains in the diet.
    4. salt tablet supplements to replace electrolyte losses of sweat are known to cause fluid retention in the GI tract, irritation of the stomach, and vomiting.

    b 475-478(K) 90. For most physically active people, all of the following are valid reasons for consuming sports drinks except

    1. they may provide a psychological advantage.
    2. they are better than water at preventing sodium depletion.
    3. they contain a source of fuel, which may enhance performance in endurance events.
    4. they have a good taste, which encourages their consumption and ensures adequate hydration.

    d 475;479(A) 91. In training to run in your state marathon this summer, you want to determine how much fluid to drink during training sessions. Your weight at the beginning of every training session is 150 pounds. At the end of every training session you weigh 146 pounds. How many cups of fluid are necessary replenish these losses?

    1. 2
    2. 4
    3. 6
    4. 8

    d 475;479(A) 92. How can water loss from the body be quickly estimated at the end of a physical activity?

    1. Multiply body weight (kg) by 1% to determine liters of water loss
    2. Multiply duration of activity (min) by body weight (kg) to determine mL of water loss
    3. Subtract air temperature (°F) from body weight (lbs) and then multiply by 5 to determine mL of water loss
    4. Take the difference in body weight (lbs) before and after the event and multiply by 2 to determine cups of water loss

    b 475;479(A) 93. What is the minimum amount of fluid that an athlete should drink for each pound of body weight lost during an activity?

    1. ¼ liter
    2. ½ liter
    3. 1 liter
    4. 2 liters

    b 476(K) 94. Hyponatremia refers to low blood levels of

    1. water.
    2. sodium.
    3. glucose.
    4. potassium.

    c 476(K) 95. All of the following are features of endurance athletes and sodium except

    1. they need to replace sodium during the event.
    2. they should eat pretzels during the second half of the event.
    3. they can easily replace sodium loss by consuming conventional sports drinks during the event.
    4. they are susceptible to hyponatremia if they refrain from adequate sodium intake during the event.

    a 476(K) 96. Which of the following is a characteristic of sodium in athletes?

    1. There is a direct correlation between heat-induced cramps and the amount of sodium lost in the sweat
    2. Sports drinks that contain sodium polymers can more quickly replace sodium losses from severe sweating
    3. The sodium lost through heavy sweating can be easily replaced by consuming any of the common sports drinks
    4. Hyponatremia is more likely to develop when water intake during intense exercise in hot weather is withheld and salted snacks are consumed

    c 477(K) 97. Which of the following is a benefit of glucose polymer sports drinks as compared with sugar-containing drinks?

    1. They supply more energy per gram of carbohydrate
    2. They require less digestion and therefore are absorbed faster into the circulation
    3. They attract less water in the GI tract and thus allow more water to remain in circulation
    4. They are absorbed much more slowly and therefore provide a more even carbohydrate load to the body

    b 477(A) 98. Sports drinks begin to provide an advantage over plain water for athletes when their exercise periods first exceed

    1. 15 minutes.
    2. 60 minutes.
    3. 1½ hours.
    4. 3 hours.

    c 477(A) 99. The optimal carbohydrate concentration of sports drinks for the endurance athlete is

    1. 1-2%.
    2. 5%.
    3. 6-8%.
    4. 15-20%.

    b 477(K) 100. About how many kcal are supplied by 8 oz of the typical sports drink?

    1. 5-10
    2. 50-100
    3. 250-500
    4. 500-1,000

    c 477;475(A) 101. Which of the following would be the best choice for physically active people who need to rehydrate?

    1. “Sweat” replacers
    2. Salt tablets and tap water
    3. Diluted juice or cool water
    4. Water warmed to body temperature

    c 478(K) 102. What is the chief adverse effect from drinking a carbonated beverage before engaging in athletic activity?

    1. The carbonic acid inhibits fluid absorption
    2. The bubbles induce chronic burping and so inhibit performance
    3. The bubbles induce feelings of fullness quickly and so limit fluid intake
    4. The carbonic acid promotes gastroesophageal reflux leading to upper GI discomfort

    a 478(K) 103. Which of the following is the most significant rationale for eliminating alcohol intake in athletic performance?

    1. It is not metabolized in muscle
    2. It inhibits glycogen breakdown
    3. It inhibits creatine-phosphate synthesis
    4. It interferes with ATP synthesis in the liver

    a 478(K) 104. Which of the following is a characteristic of oxygenated water use in athletes?

    1. The oxygen in the water is without benefit
    2. Regular use reduces risk for sports anemia
    3. The water’s oxygen can more easily traverse the GI tract
    4. It increases blood oxygen levels but only for about 15 minutes

    Questions for Section 14.5 Diets for Physically Active People

    c 479(A) 105. Which of the following should be a component of a healthy diet for athletes?

    1. Salt tablets
    2. Protein powders
    3. Nutrient-dense foods
    4. Vitamin and mineral supplements

    c 479(A) 106. The recommended amount of dietary carbohydrate (g/kg body weight) for an athlete training for a marathon is approximately

    1. 2.
    2. 4.
    3. 8.
    4. 12.

    c 479;481(A) 107. What should be the composition of the last (pregame) meal before an athletic event?

    1. High-protein, providing 30 kcal per kg body weight
    2. Vegetable and fruit juices, providing 100 to 200 kcal
    3. High-carbohydrate, low-fiber, providing 300 to 800 kcal
    4. High-fiber, providing 200 to 300 kcal and liberal amounts of fluid, which is beneficially retained by the fiber in the GI tract

    b 481(A) 108. For optimal performance, the athlete’s precompetition meal may include all of the following except

    1. pasta.
    2. beans.
    3. breads.
    4. potatoes.

    d 481(K) 109. Why should fiber-rich foods be avoided in an athlete’s pregame meal?

    1. The fiber delays absorption of fat
    2. The fiber interferes with glycolysis
    3. The meal crowds out more energy-dense foods
    4. The fiber retains water in the GI tract that would otherwise be absorbed

    d 481(A) 110. What is the recommended composition of the postgame meal of the athlete?

    1. Low-protein
    2. High-protein
    3. Low-carbohydrate
    4. High-carbohydrate

    Questions for Section 14.6 Supplements as Ergogenic Aids

    c 487(K) 111. Which of the following is a feature of creatine supplementation in athletes?

    1. It may enhance performance of endurance athletes
    2. Long-term use adversely affects liver and kidney function
    3. It may enhance performance of weight lifters and sprinters
    4. It induces short-term weight loss consisting primarily of lean tissue

    a 487(A) 112. Results of research studying carnitine supplementation as an ergogenic aid showed that it

    1. does not seem to increase fat oxidation.
    2. enhanced carbohydrate oxidation rate but not fat oxidation.
    3. raised muscle carnitine concentration but did not improve performance.
    4. promoted retention of amino acids but did not lead to increased muscle mass.

    a 487(K) 113. Which of the following is a feature of specific ergogenic aids?

    1. Caffeine may enhance short-term, high-intensity performance

    b Carnitine supplements appear to increase the concentration of muscle carnitine

    1. Conjugated linoleic acid supplements permit longer, more intense workouts in most athletes
    2. Chromium supplements (as chromium picolinate) appear to enhance fat oxidation in most athletes

    a 487(A) 114. Which of the following describes an effect of caffeine use in the athlete?

    1. It stimulates fatty acid release
    2. It enhances performance for almost all athletes
    3. It raises blood pH to counteract the buildup of lactate
    4. It promotes absorption of electrolytes from the intestinal tract

    d 487(A) 115. Which of the following is a feature of chromium in physical performance?

    1. Chromium from ginseng shows high bioavailability
    2. Athletes may obtain sufficient chromium from green leafy vegetables and legumes
    3. Supplements of chromium chloride enhance free fatty acid release but inhibit fatty acid oxidation
    4. Most recent studies on chromium picolinate supplementation show no favorable effects on strength or lean body mass

    a 487-488(K) 116. Which of the following is not a characteristic of caffeine use in physical activity?

    1. It slows depletion of muscle glycogen
    2. It often induces stomach upset and diarrhea
    3. It acts as a physiological and psychological stimulant
    4. It is permitted in moderation by the National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA)

    c 487-488(K) 117. Which of the following is a feature of caffeine use in physical activity?

    1. Caffeine is widely abused by endurance athletes because it cannot be detected by blood or urine tests
    2. Caffeine enhances performance by stimulating glycogen breakdown and increasing the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells
    3. College and national competitions prohibit the use of caffeine in amounts greater than that present in 5 cups of coffee when consumed within a few hours before testing
    4. The usual side effects of caffeine use such as irritability, headaches, and diarrhea are delayed or diminished in endurance athletes because of their high metabolic rates during competition

    d 489(K) 118. Which of the following ergogenic aids increases the risk for acromegaly?

    1. HMB
    2. Creatine
    3. Octacosanol
    4. Growth hormone

    a 489(K) 119. What type of chemicals are DHEA and androstendione?

    1. Hormones
    2. Estrogens
    3. Phytonutrients
    4. Herbal extracts

    a 489(K) 120. Which of the following is a characteristic of human growth hormone use in athletes?

    1. Excessive use shortens life span
    2. Low cost accounts for some of its popularity
    3. Excessive use leads to shrinking of internal organs
    4. Laboratory tests can differentiate between the naturally occurring form and the drug form of growth hormone

    a 489(K) 121. Which of the following is a feature of androstenedione use in athletes?

    1. It is now classified as an anabolic steroid.
    2. It is synthesized in the body by the thyroid gland.
    3. It leads to testicular enlargement and liver atrophy.
    4. It reduces free radical formation and slows the aging process but does not enhance performance.

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